Final Exam - Dr. Roberson's Material Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in Final Exam - Dr. Roberson's Material Deck (127):
1

How much colostrum needs to be consumed by the dairy calf to avoid failure of passive transfer? 

4 quarts

2

What is the average weaning age of US dairy heifer calves?

8.4 weeks

3

The best time to wean dairy calves from milk is? 

When calves are eating 2 lbs calf starter 

4

2-3 month old heifers require ____% of nutrients from grain

75

5

The ratio of grain to forage for heifers 3-6 mo is:

50:50

6

Which picture is from a grain-fed calf?

B (the middle one)

7

The orphaned beef calf needs ____ quarts of colostrum to achieve successful passive transfer 

2 quarts beef colostrum

-or-

4 quarts of dairy colostrum

 

This is because dairy breeds produce lower concentrations of immunoglobulins in their colostrum than beef breeds

8

What is the average weaning age for beef cattle?

150-180 days

9

The low critical temperature at which we need to add energy to the bovine diet is:

32 degrees F

increase 1% for each degree the wind chill is below the 32 degree lower critical temperature (so need to consider the wind chill…not just the ambient temp)

10

What is the lower critical temperature for cows with a wet hair coat?

59 degrees F

The requirements change twice as much to 2% for each degree below 59 degrees F. 

 

The fact that it is not feasible to feed a wet, very cold cow enough to maintain her current body condition, underscores the need for cows to be in “good” body condition at the start of winter 

11

What is the ideal BCS for beef cattle?

~5-6

(varies between sources)

12

Heifers should be ___% of mature weight at breeding and ___% of mature weight at calving 

Heifers should be 65% of mature weight at breeding and 85% of mature weight at calving 

13

What is a big problem associated with feeding dry distiller's grains to beef cattle?

Sulfur Toxicity (Polioencephalomalacia)

14

Baby llamas need to eat about ___% of body weight to meet nutrient requirements

Baby llamas need to eat about 2% of body weight to meet nutrient requirements

15

Adult llamas need to eat about __% of body weight to meet nutrient requirements

Adult llamas need to eat about 1% of body weight to meet nutrient requirements

16

Regarding Vitamin D requirements: ________ may occur in neonatal camelids kept indoors

Rickets

17

When should additional supplements be considered for llamas?

Additional supplements should be considered for growing, pregnant, or lactating stock

18

A baby llama is called a:

cria

and that's just adorable

19

A cria will suckle about every _____ hours for about ____ minutes

~every 2-3 hours for about 5 minutes

20

If you must feed colostrum to crias, how much should you give?

10-12% of body weight per day

Divide into multiple feedings (every 4 hours or so)

21

Sheep & Goat Nutrition: 

Fresh water is needed to help prevent _________ in males

urincary calculi

22

Sheep & Goat Nutrition: 

It is important to feed sheep mineral to sheep in order to help prevent ____________

Copper toxicity

23

Sheep & Goat Nutrition:

classic “white muscle disease” which presents as extreme stiffness and tightness of muscle and muscle pain, is a result of ______________

Selenium deficiency

24

Sheep & Goat Nutrition:

If your goat (yes, you suddenly have a goat) is showing symmetrical hair loss, rough hair coats, weight loss, and generalized unthriftiness; red skin, itchiness, thick crusts on legs, face and ears, scaly skin over the rest of the body...

What would you suspect to be the problem?

Zinc deficiency

25

What is the ideal BCS for a goat?

2.5-3.5

26

Enjoy this goat tree and laugh.. because it is finals week

lol

27

Sheep & Goat Nutrition:

How much will a goat/sheep eat per day? 

3-5% dry matter but some may eat up to 10-11% 

28

What is the ideal BCS for a close-up dry cow (ie. Just before calving)? 

3.0

29

Feed and forage cost total ______% of the milk check. 

Feed and forage cost total 45-60% of the milk check. 

30

What is the ideal BCS of a dairy cow at fresh (parturition/calving)?

3.0-3.25

31

When does peak milk production occur? 

40-70 days 

32

Numerous anestrus, thin cows with no ovarian structures indicate: 

Problem with early lactation energy levels and or DMI problems 

33

The quantity of moisture-free feed consumed by a cow in a 24-hr period is the ___________

Dry Matter Intake (DMI)

34

If a feed is 20% DM, how much is water? 

80% 

35

The cow’s maximum voluntary feed intake (DM capacity) is _________% of body weight 

The cow’s maximum voluntary feed intake (DM capacity) is 2.25-3.5% of body weight 

36

In open access feed bunks, there should be a minimum of ___ft per animal. 

In open access feed bunks, there should be a minimum of 2 ft per animal. 

 

If the pen is overstocked with cattle, there will likely be a larger disparity on BCS. The bigger cows push out the smaller cows 

37

1400 lb cow: How much can she eat a day? 

32-49 lbs dry matter

(2.25-3.5% of body weight)

38

How often should cows eat? 

Several times a day 

 

We don’t want that binge eating: aka slug feeding…this is especially important when the diet is high in energy. 

39

The lower range of an acceptable rumen pH is: 

5.5

40

The most efficient and economical time to adjust BCS in a dairy cow is during: 

late-lactation

41

The ___________ is a measure of the % of cows lying properly in stalls. 

Cow-comfort quotient 

42

The cow comfort quotient should be greater than or equal to ____

80%

 

43

If low milk fat is reported (2.7), what is suspected?

Too little fiber (roughage)

44

What does TMR stand for?

Total mixed ration 

All the cows requirements (grain, hay, mineral etc) are mixed in a “mixer wagon” and fed as a single selection. 

45

Too much corn may lead to _______ in dairy cows

acidosis

46

Is a forage with a high NDF considered to be high quality or low quality?

low quality

47

Rule of thumb for dry matter intake:

The ideal ration should be between ___% and ___% dry matter

The ideal ration should be between 50% and 75% dry matter

48

Why is it important to feed roughage? 

  • Provides a fiber mat in the rumen 
  • Keeps smaller particles in rumen longer allowing for more efficient digestion 

49

Longer fiber length encourages:

  • eructation (burping)
  • cud chewing
  • salivation

50

Dairy cow nutrition:

It is essential to maintain a rumen pH above ____

5.5

 

(Rumen microbes need a pH between 5.8-6.8 or so) 

51

Rumen microbes digest ~___% of intake in dairy cows

Rumen microbes digest ~65% of intake in dairy cows

52

What does SARA stand for?

Subacute Ruminal Acidosis

53

SARA can lead to several disease problems including ____________

liver abscess, poor BCS, laminitis

54

Subtle signs of SARA include:

  • reduction in DMI
  • Mild diarrhea
  • moderately distended doughy rumen
  • subsolar hemorrhages

55

If SARA is suspected, a rumen tap is performed on 12 cows.  If 25% of the 12 cows are below 5.5 pH, the group is classified as ______________

If SARA is suspected, a rumen tap is performed on 12 cows.  If 25% of the 12 cows are below 5.5 pH, the group is classified as experiencing ruminal acidosis

56

Pictured below is ruminitis associated with ____________

slug feeding

57

Pictured below are liver abcesses associated with _____________

SARA

(whatever man, she's a bitch anyway)

58

Distiller’s grains are a good source of __________

protein & energy

59

You calculate the “cow-comfort quotient” in a herd to be 80%. Do you need to take any actions? 

No, but would be good to recheck at next visit because this is the minimal desired level. 

60

Shaker Box - Particle Separator Recommendations

Upper Tier: ___% TMR

Shaker Box - Particle Separator Recommendations

Upper Tier: 6-10% TMR

61

Shaker Box - Particle Separator Recommendations

Middle Tier: ___% TMR

Shaker Box - Particle Separator Recommendations

Middle Tier: 30-50% TMR

62

Shaker Box - Particle Separator Recommendations

Lower Tier: ___% TMR

Shaker Box - Particle Separator Recommendations

Lower Tier: 40-60% TMR

63

What is a transition ration?

A ration that slowly adjusts a cow to a higher CHO diet

64

What is the purpose of a transition diet (3 weeks prepartum)?

Adapt rumen and rumen microbes to new diet 

65

Numerous postpartum cows have developed milk fever.

Which ration should be evaluated? 

dry cow ration

66

Research has found that high ______ diets result in less milk fever 

Research has found that high sulfur diets (more acidic) result in less milk fever 

67

__________ diets promote bone Ca resorption because bone acts as an important buffer for excessive systemic acidity. 

Acidogenic diets promote bone Ca resorption because bone acts as an important buffer for excessive systemic acidity. 

68

Acidogenic diets promote bone __________ because bone acts as an important buffer for excessive systemic acidity. 

Acidogenic diets promote bone Ca resorption because bone acts as an important buffer for excessive systemic acidity. 

69

Anionic salts should decrease milk fever by ___%. 

Anionic salts should decrease milk fever by 50%. 

70

Anionic salts are highly unpalpable.

They are best fed in ______.

Anionic salts are highly unpalpable.

They are best fed in TMR.

71

Anionic salts are highly unpalpable.

________ & ________ are the worst feeding methods for giving anionic salts

Anionic salts are highly unpalpable.

grain & mineral are the worst feeding methods for giving anionic salts

72

Approach to Anionic Salt Supplementation

Monitor dietary intake. If intake decreases, ________ anionic salt. 


(increase or decrease)

Monitor dietary intake. If intake decreases, decrease anionic salt.

73

You run a TMR through a Penn State shaker box. Which of the following statements represents an abnormal %? 

a) 50% in the top

b) 50% in the middle

c) 50% in the bottom

You run a TMR through a Penn State shaker box. Which of the following statements represents an abnormal %? 

a) 50% in the top

b) 50% in the middle

c) 50% in the bottom

74

If urine pH is too high, ______ anionic salt is needed.

(more or less)

If urine pH is too high, more anionic salt is needed.

75

If urine pH is too low, ______ anionic salt can be fed.

(more or less)

If urine pH is too low, less anionic salt can be fed.

76

Anionic salts are used to control ________. 

Anionic salts are used to control milk fever

77

The transition diet is primarily used during what period? 

late dry

78

What does NEFA stand for?

Nonesterified Fatty Acids 

79

elevated NEFA suggests ________________. 

elevated NEFA suggests negative energy balance

80

____________ is the major source of protein for the cow. 

Microbial protein 

81

How does heat stress affect cattle nutrition?

If the temperature is above 77 degrees, DMI (Dry Matter Intake) declines 

If the temperature is above 86 degrees, DMI (Dry Matter Intake) declines even more!

 

Ration feeding time may need to be adjusted during periods of heat stress or milk production will decline or cool the cows. 

82

When large amounts of fiber are fed, the predominate fatty acid is: 

Acetate (60-70%)

83

Sugars and starches increase the amount of which fatty acid?

Propionate 

84

Which supplies more energy: fat or CHO? 

Fats (about 2.25x more)

85

Caution is required when feeding fats. Why? 

Feeding > 3-5% DM (another source says > 7-8 %) may be toxic to rumen bugs 

Remember: "A healthy rumen = a healthy cow"

86

What vitamins need to be added to the cow’s diet? 

A, D, & E

87

Most grains are __% DM. 

Most grains are 90% DM. 

88

Feeding grain in the milking parlor is an example of ______ feeding. 

Feeding grain in the milking parlor is an example of slug feeding. 

89

~ How much protein is in SBM (soybean meal)? 

44%

This is the most common protein supplement 

90

Why can only a limited amount of soybean meal be fed? 

It contains ~18% fat.

The rumen can't handle plant fat very well because the rumen's a sensitive mother f*****

91

Urea should not be fed with raw soybeans because soybeans contain urease and this combo could lead to __________. 

Urea should not be fed with raw soybeans because soybeans contain urease and this combo could lead to urea toxiciosis

92

From Roberson's Slides:

Wherever _________ intake goes, milk production is soon to follow. 

Wherever dry matter intake goes, milk production is soon to follow. 

93

True or False:

Dry matter intake can be directly measured by daily milk production. 

False.

94

For every pound of additional peak milk, the cow gives ~___ lb of milk more in the first 10 mo of lactation. 

For every pound of additional peak milk, the cow gives ~200 lbs of milk more in the first 10 mo of lactation. 

95

Cows can develop Grass Tetany due to ____________

Cows can develop Grass Tetany due to low magnesium

96

Nitrate poisoning in beef cattle is typically caused by ________

Nitrate poisoning in beef cattle is typically caused by draught

97

Name a few methods that control urinary calculi

  • a lowering of urinary phosphorus levels
  • rations high in dietary phosphorus should be avoided
  • Acidification of the urine may be achieved by the feeding of acid forming salts
  • an increase in urine volume
  • feed plenty of fresh water

98

Growing heifers should be fed which sort of hay?

high quality hay (alfalfa)

99

Describe creep feeding


Creep feeding is the practice of providing nursing calves with the opportunity to eat feed to which the cows do not have access.
 

100

How would you manage a hypoglycemic newborn calf? 

give dextrose

101

True or false: anionic salts can be toxic if force-fed.

True

102

How much colostrum does a dairy calf need? 

1 gallon within 12 hours of birth


Gut is permeable to antibodies at birth and closes down by 24 hours
 

103


What is colostrum


immunoglobulin (antibodies) rich first milk 



first milking provides the highest quality colostrum 

104


If you find a Failure of Passive Transfer (FPT) calf that is 3 days old, what is the BEST thing you can do to correct the FPT?
 


Perform a plasma transfusion
 

105


Feeding cattle in this manner increases the risk of _____ in the calves.
 


Diarrhea
 

106

In beef cattle, low magnesium leads to __________

In beef cattle, low magnesium leads to grass tetany

107

In beef cattle, copper deficiency leads to __________

In beef cattle, copper deficiency leads to faded hair coat

108

In beef cattle, Selenium deficiency leads to __________

In beef cattle, Selenium deficiency leads to white muscle disease

109

Enlarged thyroid glands in goats and sheep are likely due to ____________

Iodine deficiency

110

What the hell is a stocker calf?

A weaned calf that is not ready for the feedlot

111

Heifers should be __% of their mature weight at breeding

65

112

What is a prominent symptom of urinary calculi?

hump handle tail 

113

Hay should be ___% dry matter

80%

114

Frozen water and snow can predispose goats to ____________ 

Frozen water and snow can predispose goats to urinary calculi 

115

Pregnancy Toxemia (Ketosis) can be developed when ________ needs are not met

Pregnancy Toxemia (Ketosis) can be developed when energy needs are not met

116

How is zinc typically supplied?

trace mineral salts

117

Who is at the highest rist of becoming ketotic?

fat does and ewes with multiple feti (fetuses?)

118

Camelids are obligate _______ breathers

nasal

119

___ compartment in the camelid is the largest and is equivalent to the rumen in the ruminant

C1 compartment in the camelid is the largest and is equivalent to the rumen in the ruminant

120

___ compartment in the camelid is the 'true stomach' 

C3 compartment in the camelid is the 'true stomach' 

121

Camelids only require ___% (of BW) protein for maintenance

Camelids only require 10% (of BW) protein for maintenance

122

What does cobalt deficiency in camelids lead to?

death!!!!!

123

What does ADG stand for?

Average Daily Gain

(how many pounds gained per day)

124

What is the ideal pH of the rumen of a dairy cow?

6.2

125

Which of the following would result in the greatest saliva production?

green chop

cottonseed

timothy

Timothy hay, because it is dry, will lead to more cud-chewing (and therefore more saliva)

126

Less than ___ total protein is complete failure of passive transfer

Less than 4.5 total protein is complete failure of passive transfer

127

You would measure _______ level to determine failure of passive transfer 

You would measure protein level to determine failure of passive transfer