Final Exam: immune deficiency - malignant bone tumor Flashcards

(58 cards)

1
Q

B cell deficiency increases susceptibility to _______; while T lymphocytes increase susceptibility to _________

A

Bcell = Bacterial infection

TLymph =Viral and fungal infections

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2
Q

A specialized protein in the blood usually formed in response to antigen

A

Antibody

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3
Q

An agent which initiates production of specific antibodies against itself

A

Antigen

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4
Q

An agent which alone is not antigenic but exhibits antigenic properties when attached to other protein molecules

A

Haptens

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5
Q

Type 1 hypersensitivity is

A
  • Anaphylactic
  • Mediated by IgE bound to mast cells and basophils
  • Results in rapid release of histamine
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6
Q

What are examples of local type 1 hypersensitivity reactions (3)?

A

Hay fever, food allergies, skin reactions

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7
Q

What are examples of systemic type 1 hypersensitivity reactions (2)?

A

Widespread vasodilation

Bronchospasm

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8
Q

Type 2 hypersensitivity

A
  • antibodies directed toward antigens located on cell surfaces or in ECM
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9
Q

Antibody dependent mechanisms of Type II hypersensitivity (3)

A
  1. Complement mediated mechanisms: lysis of target cell, opsonization, phagocytosis e.g. transfusion or drug reactions
  2. Antibody dependent cytotoxicity: NK cells target tissue elements with bound antibody
  3. Antireceptor antibodies: non-cytotoxic mechanisms, antibodies activate or block cell membrane receptors e.g. Graves’ disease — antibodies mimic TSH; myasthenia gravis — antibodies block ACh receptors
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10
Q

Graves’ disease

A

antibodies mimic TSH

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11
Q

Myasthenia gravis

A

antibodies block ACh receptors

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12
Q

Type 3 hypersensitivity

A

Is an immune complex injury

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13
Q

Immune complex

A

Antigen and antibody that form in blood and tissue fluids

Activate complement and elicit inflammatory responses and tissue damage

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14
Q

What is the type 3 hypersensitivity that is:

Formation of circulating immune complexes in sensitized host

A

Serum sickness

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15
Q

**What is the type 3 hypersensitivity that is:

Multiple autoantibodies contribute to injury of various structures

A

Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

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16
Q

**What is the type 3 hypersensitivity that is:

Associated with local immune complex injury

A

Arthus reaction

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17
Q

Type 4 hypersensitivity

A

Delayed hypersensitivity

Sell mediated, especially T-lymphocytes. Skin rashes in certain virus infections and in contact dermatitis, and granulomatous diseases

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18
Q

Example of type 4 hypersensitivity (3)

A

Tuberculosis
Leprosy
Acute rheumatic fever

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19
Q

A system of cell surface proteins know as major histocompatability (MHC) antigens

A

Human leukocyte antigens (HLA)

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20
Q

MHC gene products are grouped into 3 classes:

A

Class I: presented on nucleated cells and platelets

Class I & II associated with antigen presenting and production of cell surface glycoproteins

Class III: genes are associated with complement

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21
Q

HLA-B27

A

90X greater chance of developing ankylosing spondylitis

Note: HLA-DR3/4 = type 1 diabetes

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22
Q

Chronic multisystem inflammatory disease that commonly affects skin, kidneys, serosal membranes, joints, heart, CNS

A

Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

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23
Q

***Classic triad of SLE

A

Butterfly rash
Joint pain
Fever

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24
Q

***Endocarditis is characterized by

A

patchy vegetation’s on exposed surfaces of valves

25
***What are (6) environmental risk factors for SLE?
``` UV light Drugs Psoralens (figs, parsnips) Estrogen (e.g. pregnancy) Viruses Stress ```
26
***How do you diagnose lupus?
ANA: Antinuclear antibodies to double stranded DNA and smith antigens Note: Serum ANA levels correlate with severity of disease. Note #2: ANA is sometimes present in non-SLE population too.
27
SLE heart problems include
Pericarditis Myocarditis ***Endocarditis: patchy vegetation’s on exposed surfaces of valves
28
Overproduction of collagen throughout the body
Scleroderma
29
**Describe diffuse and localized patterns of scleroderma
Diffuse: early widespread skin involvement with rapid progression and visceral effects (ANA) Localized: only skin of face and fingers. CREST syndrome (calcinosis, raynaud’s phenom, esophageal dysfunction, sclerodactyly, telangiectasias)
30
What is CREST syndrome?
Combined effects known of localized scleroderma: - Calcinosis — calcific deposits - Raynaud’s phenomenon — CT disorders fingers and toes turn cyanotic and whitish - Esophageal dysfunction — scarring around esophagus - Sclerodactyly - shortening digits - Telangiectasias - micro exposed BV on face (ecchymosis)
31
What is the differentiating factor between polymyositis and myasthenia gravis?
Polymyositis spaces the extra-ocular muscles
32
What 6 organs are affected in scleroderma?
``` Skin GI tract Musculoskeletal Kidneys Lungs Heart ```
32
Polymyositis is
Inflammatory damages to skeletal m — groups of muscles degenerate
32
What are the 3 factors of dermatomyositis (which is polymyositis + skin issues)
Butterfly rash Helicotrope eyelids Purple bumps on knuckles
32
4 questions in 1: What is the 1˚ cause of osteoporosis (2)? What is the 2˚ cause of osteoporosis (4)? Do they present differently? Do you see serum changes?
1˚ Being an old female (menopausal) 2˚ diet/lifestyle, preggo, vitamin D deficiency, endocrine disorders No, 1˚ and 2˚ present the same way. No serum changes: composition the same, quantity decreased.
33
What does osteoporotic bone look like (3)?
Catfish vertebra Schmorl’s nodes Vertebral collapse (dowager hump)
34
What is Osteomalacia associated with and why?
Poor calcification of bone matrix; vitamin D deficiency usually
35
What serum changes will you notice with osteomalacia?
Low calcium, low phosphate, HIGH alkaline posphatase
36
Looser’s zones associated with
Osteomalacia “soft bones” Looser’s zones are pseudofractures
37
Osteomalacia for young people is called?
Rickets (juvenile osteomalacia)
38
Rickets (juvenile osteomalacia) is associated with skeletal deformities (4)
- Rachitic rosary - “Pigeon breast” - Harrison’s groove - Craniotabes
39
Ostoemyelitis is associated with what bone deformity?
Brodie’s abscess: common in tibia
40
Infection of marrow and bone
Osteomyelitis
41
Pyogenic osteomyelitis vs tuberculous osteomyelitis
Pyogenic — infection of hematogenous origin Tuberculous — Pulmonary Tb can lead to lesions of bone and if its in the spine its Pott’s Disease
42
Von recklinghausen’s disease of bone is associated with what disease
Hyperparathyroidism. Less common now because people are being treated
43
Characteristics of Von recklinghausen’s disease of bone (2)?
- moth eaten x-ray - brown tumors *not all inclusive
44
Paget’s disease (osteitis deformans) is what kind of bone disease and how does it present?
Hyperosteolytic bone disease; thick + porous
45
Histologically Paget’s disease
Tile-like mosaic
46
Bone scan for Paget’s disease shows
Increased activity (hyperosteolytic)
47
Monostotic lesions versus polyostotic lesions in Paget’s disease
Mono: tibia - 15% of cases Poly: multiple sites - 85% of cases
48
Stages of Paget’s disease progression (3)
- Hot (osteoclastic phase) - Mixed (osteolytic, osteoblastic) - Cold (burned out stage)
49
2˚ metastatic cancer is ___% more common that 1˚ bone tumors.
70%
50
___% of metastatic bone disease is osteolytic (not osteoblastic)
70%
51
4 most common malignant bone tumors
1. Osteosarcoma 40% 2. Chondrosarcoma — slooooooow and LARGE, 40-60 yo 3. Ewing’s sarcoma — 10-15yo. Need to rule out infection as differential diagnosis 4. Giant Cell Tumor — soap bubbly appearance
52
Codman’s triangle is associated with what malignant bone tumor
Osteosarcoma
53
What malignant bone tumor occurs in 40-60 you and is sloooooow and LARGE
Chondrosarcoma
54
What malignant bone tumor occurs in 10-15yo and has a differential diagnosis of infection?
Ewing’s sarcoma
55
What malignant bone tumor has soap bubbly appearance
Giant Cell Tumor