FINAL EXAM REVIEW Flashcards
(546 cards)
1
Q
What is found in gray matter?
A
a. Cell bodies
B. Synapses
C. Unmyelinated axons
2
Q
Why is white matter white?
A
Axons are myelinated here. Myelin on axons is made up mostly lipids.
3
Q
What is the filum terminal and where is it found?
A
Pia matter that extends down past the spinal cord and attaches to the coccyx
a fibrous band that extends from the conus medullaris to the periosteum of the coccyx
4
Q
What is cauda equina? Where can it be found?
A
nerve roots that start at inferior end of spinal cord + extend down until they exit
5
Q
What can be found in the columns of the spinal cord?
A
Myelinated tracts
6
Q
What can be found in the horns of the spinal cord?
A
Cell bodies, synapses, Unmyelinated axons
7
Q
Where does the spinal cord begin and where does it end?
A
Begins in foramen magnum and ends at L1
8
Q
From superficial to deep, name the meninges and the type of tissue in each meninx:
A
a. Dura mater - fibrous connective tissue
b. arachnoid - fine collagen + elastic fibers
c. Pia mater- fibrous connective tissue
9
Q
Where is CSF found? What is its function?
A
subarachnoid space - protection, carry nutrients and waste
10
Q
What chemicals comprise CSF?
A
plasma, ions, 99% Water
11
Q
How does the epidural space around the spinal cord differ from the epidural space around the
brain?
A
the epidural space around the spinal
Cord contains fat
12
Q
What is a spinal tap? Where is a spinal tap performed and why?
A
Collection of CsF for testing. L2- L3 because there is no spinal cord, so no risk of damage.
13
Q
What can be found in the central canal of the spinal cord?
A
Cerebrospinal fluid
14
Q
What is a plexus?
A
Weaving of nerves near the spinal cord
15
Q
What is the major nerve of the cervical plexus and where does it innervate?
A
Phrenic nerve - diaphragm
16
Q
Name three nerves the exit the brachial plexus:
A
Axillary nerve, radial nerve, and ulnar nerve
17
Q
Which brachial plexus nerve innervates muscles that extend the wrist?
A
Radial nerve
18
Q
Name the major nerve of the lumbar plexus. Which large muscle does it innervate?
A
Femoral nerve - quadriceps femoris (anterior thigh)
19
Q
The axons of motor neurons that innervate The hamstrings are found in which nerve? From which plexus?
A
Sciatic nerve - sacral plexus
20
Q
Are spinal nerves sensory, motor, or mixed?
A
Mixed
21
Q
What happens to the spinal nerves that exit the thoracic vertebrae? Do they form a plexus?
A
They create intercostal nerves. No plexus
22
Q
Through which structures do the spinal nerves exit the vertebral column?
A
Intervertebral foramen
23
Q
Are the spinal nerves part of the CNS or PNS
A
PNS
24
Q
What is a dermatome?
A
Parts of skin that are supplied by spinal nerves
25
Why are dermatomes significant?
Can help determine where a spinal injury may be located
26
What is the difference between a tract and a nerve?
Tract- bundle of axons in CNS
| Nerve- bundle of axons and PNS
27
What is the difference between a ganglion and a nucleus?
Ganglion- Group of cell bodies in PNS
| Nucleus- Group of cell bodies in CNS
28
Describe where the following tracts are located and what sensory information they carry:
A. Lateral spinothalamic tract
B. Anterior spinothalamic tract
C. Posterior columns tract
A. Lateral column - pain and temperature
B. Anterior column - crude touch and pressure
C. Posterior column - proprioception, vibration, discriminative touch
29
What sensory information does the spinocerebellar tract carry?
Proprioception
30
Describe where the following tracts are located and what motor information they carry:
A. Lateral corticospinal tract
B. Anterior corticospinal tract
A. Lateral column - 80% of motor
| B. Anterior column - 20% of motor
31
What motor information is carried by the indirect motor pathways?
Muscle tone, balance, and posture
32
Concerning reflexes, name the components of the reflex arc:
a. receptor
b. afferent/ sensory neuron
C. Integration center
d. efferent/ motor neuron
e. effector
33
Concerning the cross X anatomy of the spinal cord, what is located in each of the following:
```
a. dorsal root ganglion
B. Dorsal root
C. Posterior gray horn
D. Anterior gray horn
E. Ventral root
```
```
A. cell body of unipolar afferent neuron
b. Axon of sensory afferent neuron
C. Cell body of integration neuron/ Second order neuron of spinothalamic pathway
d. Cell body of Efferent motor neuron
e. Axon of efferent motor neuron
```
34
Sensory impulses always enter the ___________ of the spinal cord.
Dorsal root
35
What type of neuron is found in the dorsal root ganglion?
Unipolar
36
Name the specific components of the reflex arc for the stretch reflex: (there’s 4)
A. Muscle spindle
B. Unipolar sensory neuron
C. Efferent Motor neuron
D. Effector
37
What is a muscle spindle? Where is it located? What does it detect?
detects muscle changes in length of muscle, protects from over stretching, located in skeletal muscle
38
What is a Golgi tendon organ? What does it detect?
detects contraction,
| protects from over contraction
39
How does the response of the effector differ in the stretch reflex and the tendon reflex?
Are these reflexes monosynaptic or polysynaptic?
Are they ipsilateral or contralateral?
stretch reflex - contracts; monosynaptic
tendon reflex - relaxes; Polysynaptic
Both are ipsilateral
40
What is the clinical significance of a positive Babinski sign?
indicates brain damage
41
What is the difference between an autonomic and a somatic reflex?
Somatic - skeletal muscle
| autonomic - smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands
42
is the withdrawal reflex Ipsilateral or Contralateral? What is its purose?
the withdrawal reflex is ipsilateral- causes
| Flexor muscles to flex away from dangerous stimuli
43
Identify the structures in the reflex arc for the withdrawal reflex:
a. nociceptor
b. sensory afferent neuron
c. integration neuron
d. motor efferent neuron
e. flexor muscles
44
Name at least three autonomic reflexes:
A. Defecation
B. Urination
C. Pupillary reflex
45
What happens in the pupillary reflex?
A. Name the receptor
B. The Afferent neuron is carried by the ____________ nerve.
C. The Efferent neuron is carried by the ____________ nerve.
D. Name the effector.
A. Photo receptor
B.  optic
C. Oculomotor
D. Constrictor pupillae muscle (bilateral response)
46
Which two arteries supply the brain with blood? Note that actually there would be four arteries,
because each artery has a right and left side.
A. Right and left internal carotid artery
| B. Right and left vertebral artery
47
Which structure actually makes cerebrospinal fluid? Where in the brain is cerebrospinal fluid made?
Choroid plexus.
| Ventricles.
48
Explain the flow of Cerebrospinal fluid from the lateral ventricles of the brain to the superior sagittal sinus naming all the structures involved.
Lateral ventricles > third ventricle > cerebral aqueduct > fourth ventricle > subarachnoid space > arachnoid villi > superior sagittal sinus
49
What is the superior sagittal sinus
A vein that cerebrospinal fluid drains into
50
What are arachnoid villi?
Extensions of arachnoid into superior sagittal sinus to drain cerebrospinal fluid
51
What is the function of the ependymal cells?
To move cerebrospinal fluid with cilia
52
What is a epidural hematoma?
A bleed between the Dura Mater and the cranium
53
What is a sub dural hematoma?
A bleed between the Dura Mater and the arachnoid.
54
What is the mesencephalic (cerebral) aqueduct?
Connects the third and fourth ventricles
55
Name the four major parts of the brain
A.  cerebrum
B. Cerebellum
C. Diencephalon
D. Brainstem
56
Is gray or white matter found in the outer most cortex of the brain?
Gray
57
What is the difference between:
A. Commissure (name one)
B. Association tract
C. Projection tract
A. Connects right and left brain (corpus callosum)
B. Connects same side of brain
C. Connects upper and lower parts of the brain
58
Name the gyrus or lobe where each of the following is located:
A. Primary sensory cortex
What is its significance?
Why is it important that sensory impulses end here?
A. Post Central gyrus
Where sensory impulses end.
Sensory information on the right would be lost.
59
Name the gyrus or lobe where each of the following is located:
B. Primary motor cortex
What is its significance?
What would happen if the primary motor cortex on the right side was damaged?
B. Precentral gyrus
All motor information starts here.
Motor on the left would be lost.
60
Name the gyrus or lobe where each of the following is located:
C. Visual cortex
C. Occipital lobe
61
Name the gyrus or lobe where each of the following is located:
D. Auditory cortex
D. Temporel lobe
62
Name the gyrus or lobe where each of the following is located:
E. Brocas center (speech production)
E. Frontal lobe
63
Name the gyrus or lobe where each of the following is located:
F. Wernickes center (speech comprehension)
F. Parietal lobe
64
What is the function of the basal nuclei?
Semi automatic and subconscious motor movements.
65
Where are the basal nuclei located?
Cerebrum
66
Which inhibitory neurotransmitter is located at the basal nuclei?
Dopamine
67
A lack of dopamine is part of the Pathogenesis of which disease?
Parkinson’s disease
68
Name three important components of the diencephalon:
Thalamus, Epithalamus, and hypothalamus
69
Name three important function of the thalamus:
A. Sensory relay station
B. Memory and emotions
C. Motor function
70
Why is the thalamus called a sensory relay station?
Second order neurons end here. Third order neurons cell body receives, processes, and distributes almost all sensory and motor information that reaches the cortex.
71
The hypothalamus has many functions. List five.
1. Feeding center
2. Pituitary gland
3. Day and night cycle
4. Smell
5. Autonomic nervous system
72
Name the three parts of the brain stem
A. mesencephalon
B. Pons
C. Medulla oblongata
73
The following structures are found in the mesencephalon. Name their functions:
```
A. Red nucleus
B. Cerebral peduncles
C. Substantia nigra
D. Mesencephalic aqueduct
E. Corpora quadrigemina
```
```
A. Muscle tone
B. Descending motor tracts
C. Dopamine synthesis
D. Connects third and fourth ventricles
E. Hearing and vision reflex
```
74
Which major vital center is located in the pons?
Respiratory
75
Name three vital centers located in the medulla oblongata:
1. Vasomotor
2.  cardiac
3. Respiratory
76
Name for non-vital centers in the medulla oblongata:
1. Sneezing center
2. Coughing center
3. Vomiting center
4. Swallowing center
77
Name two functions of the cerebellum:
1. Muscle coordination
| 2. Balance
78
A loss of motor coordination and balance is called ______________.
Ataxia
79
Name the structures that connect the cerebellum to the brain stem:
Cerebellar peduncles
80
What is the limbic system?
| What functions are controlled by the limbic system?
Play a role in emotional behavior and motivation
81
Name three specific parts of the brain that are components of the limbic system:
```
A. Hypothalamus
B. Thalamus
C. Fornix
d.  hippocampus
E. Amygdala
```
82
Are all components of the limbic system located In the cerebral hemispheres?
No
83
What is the reticular formation?
| Where in the brain is it found?
Nuclei in brainstem
84
What is the reticular activating system? Where is it found?
Nuclei in mesencephalon
85
What is the function of the reticular formation and the activating system?
Formation- level of activity in the brain,
| Activating- Wakefulness/sleep
86
What is the significance of the following neurotransmitters in the reticular formation?
A. Norepinephrine
B. Serotonin
A. Excitatory- wake up
| B. Inhibitory- sleep
87
Name the cranial nerve described below:
The nerve that innervates the trapezius
11 accessory
88
Name the cranial nerve described below:
The nerve that carries hearing impulses
8 vestibulocochlear
89
Name the cranial nerve described below:
The nerve that carries sensory input from the face
5 Trigeminal
90
Name the cranial nerve described below:
The nerve that innervates zygomaticus major
7 facial
91
Name the cranial nerve described below:
The nerve that constricts the pupil
3  oculomotor
92
What is Dr. Saroli’s formula?
LR6 - SO4
___________
3
93
Name the cranial nerve described below:
The nerve that carries visual input from the eye
2 optic
94
Name the cranial nerve described below:
The nerve that innervates the muscle for mastication or chewing
5 Trigeminal
95
Name the cranial nerve described below:
The nerve that innervates the muscles for swallowing
10 vagus, 9 glossopharyngeal
96
Name the cranial nerve described below:
The nerve that controls digestion
10 vagus
97
Name the cranial nerve described below:
The nerve that innervates tongue muscles
12 Hypoglossal
98
Name the cranial nerve described below:
The three nerves innervate extrinsic eye muscles
3 oculomotor, 4 Trochlear, 6 abducens
99
Name the cranial nerve described below:
The nerve that carries impulses for smell
1 olfactory
100
What is the difference between an interceptor and exteroceptor?
interoceptor detects internal changes, exteroceptors-external changes
101
What is a proprioceptor? Name three proprioceptors:
Detects body position.
A. Muscle spindle
B. Golgi tendon organ
C. Joint receptor
102
In order to maintain balance, impulses for proprioception travel to the _______ in the brain.
Cerebellum
103
What do each of the receptors below detect?
```
A. Tactile Meissner‘s corpuscle
Where is it located?
B. Tactile Merkel cell/disc
Where is it located?
C. Laminated Pacinian corpuscle
Where is it located?
```
A. Touch; Epidermis
B. Touch, dermal papillae
C. deep pressure; dermis
104
What is a nociceptor? What stimulates these receptors?
Detects cell damage.
| Pain.
105
Explain each of the following:
A. Referred pain
B. Phantom pain
C. Adaptation
D. Punctate distribution
A. When pain is being felt elsewhere from actual injury location
B. Feeling pain in an amputated limb because the impulse is ending at the post central gyrus
C. When the receptor is no longer aware of the stimulus
D. Uneven distribution of receptors in the skin
106
Give an example of a chemoreceptor.
Taste buds
107
Give an example of a photo receptor
Pupil
108
Give an example of a thermoreceptor
Free dendritic endings
109
How many neurons do most sensory pathways have?
3
110
How many neurons does the direct (pyramidal) motor pathway have?
2
111
What does the term “pathway” mean in neural integration?
How and where the neurons travel
112
Name the sensory information carried by the following pathways as well as where the cell bodies of the three sensory neurons are located. Where does the pathway cross to the opposite side?
```
A. Anterior spinothalamic
First neuron (cell body)
Second neuron (cell body)
Third neuron (cell body)
Crossover
```
Crude touch and pressure
Dorsal root ganglion
Posterior gray horn
Thalamus
Spinal cord
113
Name the sensory information carried by the following pathways as well as where the cell bodies of the three sensory neurons are located. Where does the pathway cross to the opposite side?
```
B. Lateral Spinothalamic
First neuron cell body
Second neuron cell body
Third neuron cell body
Crossover
```
B. Pain and temperature
Dorsal root ganglion
Posterior gray horn
Thalamus
Spinal cord
114
Name the sensory information carried by the following pathways as well as where the cell bodies of the three sensory neurons are located. Where does the pathway cross to the opposite side?
```
C. Posterior columns
First neuron cell body
Second neuron cell body
Third neuron cell body
Crossover
```
```
C. Discriminative touch, proprioception, vibration
Dorsal root ganglion
Medulla oblongata
 thalamus
BRAIN
```
115
Name the sensory information carried by the following pathways as well as where the cell bodies of the three sensory neurons are located. Where does the pathway cross to the opposite side?
```
D. Direct motor pathways
i. Anterior corticospinal tract
First neuron
Second neuron
 crossover
```
ii. Lateral corticospinal
First neuron
Second neuron
Crossover
i. 20%
Precentral gyrus
Anterior gray horn
Spinal cord
ii. 80%
Precentral gyrus
Anterior gray horn
Decussation of pyramids
116
Do indirect motor pathways also affect the neurons in the anterior gray horn? What effects do indirect motor pathways have?
Yes, Control muscle tone, balance, and posture.
117
What is the role of the basal nuclei in motor movement?
uses dopamine to create smooth muscle movement,
| influence subconscious motor centers.
118
Name three types of tissues innervated by the autonomic nervous system:
Cardiac muscle, smooth muscle, glands
119
What is meant by dual innervation of an organ?
When parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous system have opposite effects end organ
120
How many motor neurons are involved in the autonomic nervous system pathway? Are these neurons afferent or efferent?
2, efferent
121
Where are first and second neuron cell bodies located in the efferent sympathetic nervous system?
a. Lateral gray horn
| b. Sympathetic trunk
122
Is the preganglionic neuron in the sympathetic nervous system long or short?
Short
123
Name the two types of ganglia in the sympathetic nervous system.
Sympathetic trunk and collateral ganglia
124
What is the neurotransmitter in these sympathetic ganglia?
Acetylcholine
125
What is the neurotransmitter at the end organ in the sympathetic nervous system?
Norepinephrine
126
Where are nicotinic receptors found in the sympathetic nervous system?
On the postganglionic neuron
127
What are alpha and beta receptors?
On the end organ
128
What is the function of the adrenal medullae in the sympathetic nervous system?
To release epinephrine into the blood
129
Where are the first and second neuron cell bodies located in the efferent parasympathetic
nervous system?
A. Lateral gray horn
| B. Terminal ganglia
130
Which cranial nerves carry parasympathetic fibers?
Ocular motor, facial, Vagas, Glossopharyngeal
131
Where is the second neuron cell body of the parasympathetic nervous system located?
In the terminal ganglion
132
What is the neurotransmitter released by the preganglionic neuron in the parasympathetic
system?
Acetylcholine
133
Which neurotransmitter is released in the terminal ganglion?
 acetylcholine
134
Which neurotransmitter is released at the end organ?
 acetylcholine
135
Where are muscarinic and nicotinic receptors found in the parasympathetic nervous system?
 nicotinic- Postganglionic neuron,
| Muscarinic- end organ
136
Name two organs not innervated by the parasympathetic nervous system.
Arrector pili, adrenal gland,
137
What does it mean to say that the sympathetic nervous system is for the "fight or flight"
response?
It prepares the body for emergencies
138
What part of the brain activates the sympathetic or parasympathetic nervous systems?
Hypothalamus
139
Discus the parasympathetic (if any) response and sympathetic (if any) response on:
A. Sweat glands
Sympathetic- secretion
| Parasympathetic- inhibits secretion
140
Discus the parasympathetic (if any) response and sympathetic (if any) response on:
B. Lacrimal glands
Sympathetic - inhibit
| Parasympathetic- activate tears
141
Discus the parasympathetic (if any) response and sympathetic (if any) response on:
C. Fat cells
Sympathetic- burn
| Parasympathetic- store
142
Discus the parasympathetic (if any) response and sympathetic (if any) response on:
D. Blood glucose level
Sympathetic- raise
|  parasympathetic- no effect
143
Discus the parasympathetic (if any) response and sympathetic (if any) response on:
E. Stomach
Sympathetic - shut down
| Parasympathetic - active
144
Discus the parasympathetic (if any) response and sympathetic (if any) response on:
F. Pupil
 sympathetic -  dilate
| Parasympathetic- constrict
145
Discus the parasympathetic (if any) response and sympathetic (if any) response on:
G. Salivary glands
 sympathetic- inhibit
| Parasympathetic- activate
146
Discus the parasympathetic (if any) response and sympathetic (if any) response on:
H. Skin blood vessels
Sympathetic- constrict
| Parasympathetic- dilate
147
Discus the parasympathetic (if any) response and sympathetic (if any) response on:
I. Bladder
Sympathetic- shit down
| Parasympathetic- contraction
148
Discus the parasympathetic (if any) response and sympathetic (if any) response on:
J. Heart
Sympathetic- faster and stronger
| Parasympathetic- slower and weaker
149
Discus the parasympathetic (if any) response and sympathetic (if any) response on:
K. Arrector pili
Sympathetic- contraction
| parasympathetic- inhibit
150
Discus the parasympathetic (if any) response and sympathetic (if any) response on:
L. Sex organs
Sympathetic-  no affect
| Parasympathetic- stimulate
151
Discus the parasympathetic (if any) response and sympathetic (if any) response on:
M. Bronchioles
Sympathetic- dilate
|  parasympathetic- constrict
152
What would be a sympathomimetic (adrenergic) effect on the heart?
Increased heart rate, constricted heart blood vessels
153
What would be a parasympatholytic (anticholinergic) effect on the stomach?
Shut down digestion
154
What would be a Parasympathomimetic (cholinergic) affect on the pupil?
Constriction
155
Name three visceral reflexes:
A. Pupillary reflex
B. Salivary reflex
C. Urination reflex
156
What makes a visceral reflex different from a somatic reflex?
visceral reflex effectors are
cardiac, smooth, or glands
somatic- skeletal muscle
157
Cranial nerve mnemonic
On occasion our trusty truck acts funny. Very good vehicle anyhow.
158
Sensory or motor nerve mnemonic
Some say marry money but my brother says Big brains matter more.
159
What is the function of each type of junction and where are they found in the body?
A. Tight junction
Keeps fluid from passing through -skin, stomach
160
What is the function of each type of junction and where are they found in the body?
B.  desmosome
Welding Junction- intercalated disc
161
What is the function of each type of junction and where are they found in the body?
C. Gap junction
communication- intercalated disc
162
Name the four major types of tissue:
Epithelial, connective, muscle, nervous
163
Name 5 characteristics that contrast epithelial and connective tissues:
a. Free surface / No free surface
b. Basement membrane / No basement membrane
c. Avascular / vascular
d. Tightly packed cells / scattered cells
e. no matrix / Matrix
164
How are epithelial tissues classified? Give examples.
A. By shape
B. By layers
A. Squamous, Cuboidal, Columnar
| B. Simple, Stratified
165
How would the following epithelial tissues be named?
A. One layer of flat cells
B. many layers with top layer of cells taller than they are wide
A. Simple squamous
| B. Stratified columnar
166
What is a basement membrane? What does it contain?
Layer of collagen and glycoproteins that separate epithelium from connective tissue
167
Name three functions of the basement membrane.
Surface for mitosis; connects epithelium to connective tissue; determines what gets to epithelium
168
Where is each tissue found and what is its function?
A. Simple squamous
Found in blood vessels, body cavity lining, Air sacs
Function is Diffusion
169
Where is each tissue found and what is its function?
B. Stratified squamous
Found in the skin, vagina, rectum, and mouth
Functions as protection against friction
170
Where is each tissue found and what is its function?
C.  Pseudostratified
Found in most of respiratory tract, male reproductive tract
Functions as protection and produces mucus
171
Where is each tissue found and what is its function?
D. Transitional
Found in the bladder and uterus.
Functions to expand and contract.
172
Glands are made up of ________ tissue.
 epithelial
173
What is the difference between endocrine and exocrine glands?
Endocrine- into blood or extracellular fluid
| Exocrine- into duct
174
Name a unicellular gland. Where is it found?
Goblet cell found in pseudostratified tissues.
175
Give three examples of exocrine glands based on their secretions:
A. Merocrine- exocytosis
B.  apocrine- part of cytoplasm
C. Holocrine- cell bursts
176
Connective tissue is derived from embryonic tissue called ___________.
 mesenchyme
177
Connective tissues contain _____________ and extracellular ___________.
Connective tissue contains cells and extracellular matrix.
178
Name at least five types of cells found in connective tissues and their functions:
```
A. Fibroblasts- secretes fibers
B. Mast cells - secretes histamine
C. Macrophages- Phagocytosis
D. Adipocytes- Store fat
E. Osteoblast - secrete osteoid
```
179
Name the two components of matrix;
A. Protein fibers
| B. Ground substance
180
Name the three types of fibers. Describe the characteristics of each:
A. Collagen- tough and flexible
B. Elastic- elasticity and strength
C. Reticular- networking
181
What type of organic compound is a fiber?
Carbohydrate
182
Name the ground substance common to most connective tissues.
Hyaluronic acid
183
What are some other types of ground substance?
Glucosamine, chondroitin sulfate, calcium salts, plasma
184
Name three types of loose connective tissue. Why are they called Loose?
Areolar, adipose, reticular. The fibers are scattered or loose.
185
```
For each of the tissues below, name the cells, extracellular matrix, functions, and locations. Will
each of these tissues bleed when damaged?
A. Areolar
B. Adipose
C. Reticular
D. Dense regular
E. Dense irregular
F. Hyaline cartilage
G.  fibrocartilage
H. Bone
I. Blood
J. Elastic cartilage
```
A. Areolar: fibroblasts, mast cells, macrophages, adipocytes (under basement membrane), hyaluronic acid, collagen, elastic, reticular fibers.
B. Adipose: adipocytes, hyaluronic acid, collagen, elastic, reticular fibers (hypodermis)
C. Reticular: reticular cells, reticular fibers; spleen, lymph nodes, liver, bone marrow
D. Dense regular: fibroblasts, collagen fibers- strength in one direction; tendons, ligaments
E. Dense irregular: fibroblasts, collagen fibers- strength in many directions; dermis (reticular layer), valves of the heart, perichondrium
F. Hyaline cartilage: WONT BLEED; chondrocytes in lacunae, glucosamine, embryonic skeleton, chondroitin sulfate, collagen fibers, articular cartilage, epiphyseal plate, nose
G. fibrocartilage: WONT BLEED; chondrocytes in Lucunae, collagen fibers; vertebral discs, meniscus
H. Bone: osteocytes and osteoblasts in lacunae, calcium salts and collagen fibers, Skeleton
I. Blood: Red blood cells, white blood cells, platelets and plasma - no fibers unless clotting. In blood vessels
J. Elastic cartilage: WONT BLEED; chondrocytes in lacunae- elastic fibers; ear and epiglottis
186
Why do bone and cartilage have lacunae?
So they have space to grow and divide
187
How do bone cells get nourishment?
Haversian canals/Volkmanns canal/canuliculi
188
How do cartilage cells get nourishment?
From perichondrium through diffusion
189
How easily does cartilage repair itself? Why?
Not easily because it doesn’t have a good blood supply.
190
What characteristic does collagen give to the matrix of bone?
 flexibility
191
What characteristic do calcium salts give to the matrix of bone?
 hardness
192
Is an osteon part of spongy or compact bone?
Compact
193
Why is blood a unique connective tissue?
It has no fibers unless it clots
194
Why is cartilage a unique connective tissue?
It has no blood vessels or nerve supply
195
What is the main function of muscle tissue?
Can shorten and stretch
196
Classify each muscle tissue concerning involuntary/voluntary, striations, nuclei, shapes of cells, and location:
A. Skeleton
B. Smooth
C. Cardiac
A. Skeletal: voluntary; striations; many nuclei at sides of cell; long cylindrical; skeletal muscle
B. Smooth: involuntary; no striations; One nucleus; spindle; internal organs
C. Cardiac: involuntary; striations; One nucleus; branched; heart
197
What is the function of an intercalated disc?
coordinated muscle contraction (gap and desmosome)
198
How do the functions of neurons and neuroglia differ in nervous tissue?
Neuron- conduct electrical impulses
| Neuroglia- supports neurons
199
What difference do neurons and neuroglia have relative to my mitosis?
Neuron- do not undergo mitosis
| Neuroglia- undergo mitosis
200
What is the “space” between neuron cell bodies and neuroglia in nervous tissue?
Extracellular space
201
What are the two components of a membrane?
Epithelium and connective tissue
202
Name the four types of membranes discussed in class. For each, list the epithelium and
connective tissue as well as where the membrane is located:
A. Mucus membrane: various epithelium and areolar connective tissue (lamina propria) / digestive, respiratory, reproductive, urinary tracts, and goblet cells
B. Serous membrane: simple squamous and areolar connective tissue and adipose / pericardium, peritoneum, and pleura
C. Synovial membrane: scattered cells and areolar connective tissue and adipose / bursa, joints
D. Cutaneous membrane: keratinized stratified squamous and areolar connective tissue / skin
203
Does a synovial membrane have an epithelium? Explain.
No, epithelium is characterized as tightly packed cells. Synovial membranes contain scattered cells on top, so it is not a real epithelium.
204
Name 3 serous membranes in the body:
A. Pericardium
B. Peritoneum
C. Pleura
205
What are the three basic steps in tissue repair?
A.  inflammation
B. Granulation tissue
C. Maturation stage
206
What happens during inflammation stage of tissue repair?
Redness, pain, swelling, blood rushes to wound
207
What is granulation tissue?
Connective tissue with many blood vessels that is actively growing
208
What is the difference between a stromal and a parenchymal cells?
Stromal cells leave a scar and parenchyma cells repair to good as new
209
What happens if fibroblasts are responsible for repair of cardiac muscle?
Collagen scar
210
Name four functions of the skin:
A. Protection
B. Vitamin D synthesis
C. Temperature regulation
D. Excretion
211
What is the function of Vitamin D?
Allows body to absorb calcium.
212
What type of epithelium is present to make the skin protective?
keratinized stratified squamous
213
What type of compound is keratin?
Protein
214
Where is keratin found in the skin?
Stratum corneum
215
What is keratin‘s function?
Protection
216
What is the superficial layer of epidermal cells called? What does it contain?
Stratum corneum - keratinized cells
217
What is the deep layer of epidermal cells called? What is its function?
Stratum basale- mitosis of keratinocytes
218
What do the following epidermal cells do?
A. keratinocyte
B. tactile (Merkel) cell/disc
C. Langerhans cell (dendritic cell)
A. keratinocyte- produce keratin
B. tactile (Merkel) cell/disc- Senses touch and vibrations
C. Langerhans cell (dendritic cel) - phagocytize harmful substances
219
What are the two layers of dermis and what tissues do they contain?
Epidermis- keratinized stratified squamous
| Dermis- areolar and dense irregular
220
What is the function of the dermal papillae?
Attachment of the epidermis to the dermis
221
Name the tissues that are found in the hypodermis.
Areolar and adipose
222
Is the hypodermis part of the skin?
No
223
Name the three pigments that determine skin color and the layer where each pigment is
primarily found in the skin:
A. Melanin- stratum basale
B. Carotene- stratum corneum
C. Hemoglobin- dermis
224
What is vitiligo?
When some melanocytes stop functioning and cause white patches.
225
What is cyanosis?
When hemoglobin is deoxygenated in the skin turns blue
226
Name the parts of the hair above and below the epidermis.
Shaft, root
Plexus, papillae, matrix
227
What is the term for the portion of the hair that divides to make the hair grow?
Matrix
228
Hair is made of the protein, ______________.
Keratin
229
What is the function of the hair papillae?
To provide nourishment to the hair (blood vessels)
230
What muscle is attached to the root of the hair?
Arrector pili muscle
231
What determines hair color?
Melanin
232
What is the product of sebaceous oil glands? What is its function?
Sebum- inhibits bacterial growth
233
Where in the skin are sebaceous oil glands found?
Dermis- reticular layer
234
What type of secretion do sebaceous oil glands have?
Holocrine
235
Name the two types of sudoriferous glands and state where they are found:
A. Merocrine sweat gland: Palms of hands and soles of feet
| B. Apocrine sweat gland: armpits and groin
236
Explain two ways that the skin helps with the homeostasis of body temperature:
A. Excretion of sweat to cool the skin
| B. Goosebumps to hold onto body heat. Contracting arrector pili muscles also generate heat.
237
What is a ceruminous gland?
Modified sweat gland that produces cerum (ear wax)
238
Fingernails are made of the protein, ____________.
Keratin
239
What is the name for the part of the nail that divides to make it grow?
Matrix
240
Why do nails appear pink?
 It’s the color of the nail bed underneath with blood vessels holding oxygenated hemoglobin.
241
Is bone dead tissue? Why or why not?
No, it has blood supply through haversions and Volkmann’s canal‘s
242
Does a bone, such as the femur, ever replace itself?
Yes
243
Name important minerals found in bone.
Calcium, phosphorus
244
Why do long bones have each of the following? State the significance of each:
```
A. medullary cavity
B. periosteum (2 functions)
C. endosteum
D. epiphysis with spongy bone
E. epiphyseal cartilage (plate)-groWth, In length
```
A. medullary cavity - Contains Yellow bone marrow (stores fat)
B. periosteum (2 functions) - attachment to bone/protection; growth in width
C. endosteum- lines medullary cavity- growth + repair
D. epiphysis with spongy bone - Creates red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets
E. epiphyseal cartilage (plate)- growth in length
245
What blood cells are made in red bone marrow?
Red blood cells, white blood cells, platelets
246
Name the two layers of periosteum:
Osteogenic layer and fibrous layer
247
Does the periosteum have blood vessels and nerves?
Yes
248
Name two places in a child's long bone where hyaline cartilage can be found:
Epiphyseal plate and articular cartilage
249
What are the two major components of the extracellular matrix of bone? Name the function of each:
A. Calcium salts- hardness
| B. Collagen- flexibility
250
What function does each component give to bone?
Hardness & flexibility.
251
Name the four types of cells found in bone and the functions of each:
A. Osteoprogenitor cells- stem cells
B. Osteoclasts- break down bone
C. osteoblast- create osteoid
D. Osteocyte- mature bone cell
252
Three of these types of cells are related. One is not. Which one is not related to the others?
Osteoprogenitor -> osteoblast -> osteocyte
Osteoclast not related.
253
Which cell becomes active when blood calcium is low?
Osteoclast
254
Name the two types of bone tissue and explain how they histologically differ. Make sure
words like lamellae (rings of osteon), lacunae, canaliculi, central (Haversian) canal, trabeculae, and osteocyte are understood.
A. Compact bone- osteocyte in lacunae which gets nutrients from Haversian canal from canaliculi.
B. Spongy bone- Trabeculae and osteocyte in lacunae
255
How is a perforating (Volkmann) canal different from a central (Haversian) canal?
Volkmann- horizontal, Haversian- Vertical
256
What is meant by appositional growth? How does it differ from interstitial growth?
Interstitial- bone is growing from inside (inside out);
| Appositional- bone is added to existing bone (outside in)
257
What is the term for the formation of bone?
 ossification
258
Name the two types of tissue that bone is derived from and the name of bone formation from each:
A. Fibrous connective tissue- Intramembranous
| B. Hyaline cartilage- endochondral
259
Give examples of bones that undergo each type of formation.
 Intramembranous- cranium, clavicle, mandible, endochondral,
-most long bones, carpals
260
Where does bone formation begin in endochondral ossification?
Primary ossification center
261
Where are the secondary ossification centers located?
Epiphyses of long bones
262
Which two places will remain hyaline cartilage even after ossification of a long bone is complete?
Epiphyseal plate and articular cartilage
263
How can a radiologist “age” a child based on an x-ray of carpal bones?
whether the epiphyseal plate has ossified (epiphyseal line)
264
How does bone grow in length?
Appositional and interstitial at epiphyseal plate
265
Which side of the epiphyseal plate (epiphyseal side or diaphyseal side) becomes bone during
bone growth?
Diaphyseal side
266
When in life are bones no longer able to grow in length? Why?
When the epiphyseal plate ossifies.
267
How does bone grow in width?
Appositional growth
268
Is there a time in life when bones are no longer able to grow in width? Explain.
No- bones grow and shrink in width throughout life
269
Which hormone increases blood calcium levels? How?
parathyroid hormone- activating osteoclasts
270
Which hormone decreases blood calcium levels? How?
Calcitonin- inhibiting osteoclasts
271
Name four major steps in fracture repair:
a hematoma (blood clot)
b. Soft callus (fibrocartilage)
c hard callus (spongy bone)
d. Remodeling (Compact bone)
272
What is a greenstick fracture?
One side of bone is fractures and the other side is bent
273
What is a compound fracture?
When skin is broken
274
What is a meniscus? Name a joint that has one.
Fibrocartilage in Knee
275
What is the purpose of a meniscus? What type of tissue is found in a meniscus?
Fibrocartilage; assisting gliding movement and reduce wear and tear
276
Why does the occipital bone have a large foramen?
An opening for the spinal cord
277
With which bone of the vertebral column does the occipital bone form a joint?
Atlas (C1)
278
What movement is permited at the occipital bone and the atlas (C1)?
Yes movement
279
How is the scapula connected to the axial skeleton?
Clavicle
280
```
Name the bones that make up the following joints:
a. elbow
b. wrist
c. knee
d. hip
E. Shoulder
F. ankle
```
a. elbow- radius, ulna, + humerus
b. wrist- Carpal bones, radius + ulna
c. knee- Patella, femur, tibia
d. hip- ilium + ischium
e. shoulder- humerus, Scapula
f. ankle- Tarsal bones + tibia + fibula
281
Which axial bone forms a joint with the os coxae?
Sacrum
282
The tibia articulates at its proximal end with the _______________ and _______________.
Fibula; femur
283
To which bone is the coccyx attached?
Sacrum
284
Which bone forms a joint with the hyoid bone?
The hyoid does not articulate with any other bone.
285
What is the only moveable joint of the skull?
Temporal mandibular joint
286
Name the two bones that form the moveable joint.
Temporal bone and mandible
287
Does the femur form a joint with the fibula? The femur forms joints with the ____________, ______________, and ________________.
Patella; tibia; os coxa
288
The proximal end of metacarpal I forms a joint with _______________.
Trapezium
289
The distal end of proximal phalanx Il forms a joint with __________________________.
Middle phalanx II (proximal end)
290
Name the two parts of an intervertebral disc.
Fibrocartilage and nucleus pulposus
291
The clavicle forms a joint with which two bones?
Sternum and scapula
292
Name the 3 bones of the os coxa and the 3 bones of the pelvis.
Os coxa: Ilium, pubis, ischium
| Pelvis: sacrum, coccyx, os coxae
293
What are inferior nasal conchae? What is their purpose?
Force air to circulate when we inhale
294
Name the bones that have paranasal sinuses
Frontal, sphenoid, maxillae, ethmoid
295
The medical term for "hunchback" is _____________.
Kyphosis
296
What are the two ways to classify an articulation?
A.  functional
| B.  structural
297
A synarthrosis can structurally be a ____________ or ____________ joint. Give examples of each.
Fibrous (gomphosis, sutures)
| Cartilage (epiphyseal plate)
298
An amphiarthrosis can structurally be a ________________ or a ________________ joint.
Give an example of each.
Fibrous (syndesmosis)
| Cartilage (symphysis)
299
Name an amphiarthrotic, cartilaginous joint.
Symphysis pubis
300
Name an amphiarthrotic, fibrous joint.
Syndesmosis
301
How would you functionally classify a suture?
 synarthrosis
302
How would you structurally classify a suture?
Fibrous
303
How would you functionally classify a syndesmosis?
Amphiarthrosis
304
How would you structurally classify a syndesmosis?
Fibrous
305
Name three places in the body where synovial membranes are found:
A. Synovial joints
B. Bursae
C. Tendon sheaths
306
What is the function of synovial fluid?
provide lubrication, shock absorber, nutrients to cartilage
307
What is the structure of a synovial membrane? What is its function?
Scattered epithelial cells and areolar- secretes synovial fluid
308
Demonstrate or explain the following movements:
a. plantar flexion (extension)/foot
b. flexion / knee
C. extension /hip
d. flexion/ trunk
e. abduction / hip
f. eversion/foot
G . pronation/ wrist
h. rotation / shoulder
I. flexion/shoulder
J. circumduction/hip
K. abduction/ eye
a. plantar flexion (extension)/foot= pointing toes
b. flexion / knee= bending knee
C. extension /hip= Standing
d. flexion/ trunk= bending over
e. abduction / hip= Leg away from body
f. eversion/foot= foot away from midline
G . pronation/ wrist= palm of hand Facing down
h. rotation / shoulder= twisting arm
I. flexion/shoulder= arm straight ahead
J. circumduction/hip= moving leg in a circle
K. abduction/ eye= moving eye to the outside
309
Give at least two examples of each type of joint explaining the movement(s) possible at those joints:
A. Pivot joint
B. Hinge joint
C. Ball and socket joint
A. Pivot joint= axis and atlas/ proximal radius/ulna.
Rotation
B. Hinge joint= distal humerus and ulna/ proximal and middle phalanx.
Flexion/extension
C. Ball and socket joint= humerus and scapula/ femur and os coxa.
Flexion/extension/hyperextension, abduction/adduction, rotation, Circumduction
310
Is a gliding joint a diarthrotic or amphiarthrotic joint?
 Diarthrotic
311
Which ligament at the knee protects it from lateral rotation?
Lateral collateral ligament
312
Why does the knee have two menisci? What type of tissue is found in a meniscus?
Shock absorber and cushion
Outer Dense connective tissue and inner fibrocartilage
313
What are three factors that determine movement at a joint?
a. amount of soft tissue
b. Shape of condyles
c. Ligaments
314
Explain why the shoulder joint has more range of motion than the hip joint.
```
Shallow socket (glenoid fossa)
Less ligaments
```
315
Differentiate the three types of muscle tissue (histologically, functionally):
A. Cardiac
B. Skeletal
C. Smooth
A. Cardiac= self-excitation, striations, single nucleus, inter-collated discs, no regeneration, involuntary, autonomic nervous system.
B. Skeletal= excitability, striations, Multinucleated, stretch and recoil, voluntary, somatic nervous system.
C. Smooth= stretch and relaxation response, no striations, good regeneration, involuntary, autonomic nervous system.
316
What unique characteristics to muscle tissues have?
A. Excitability- able to conduct an action potential
B. Contractibility- able to contract with actin and myosin
C. Elasticity- stretch and recoil
317
What are three functions of muscle tissue?
A. Posture
B. Movement
C. Body heat production
318
Is an entire muscle an organ, tissue, or system? Why?
An organ because a whole muscle is many tissues working together.
319
What is the difference between superficial and deep fascia? Where are they found?
Superficial fascia- under dermis (adipose and areolar)
| Deep fascia- under superficial fascia and covers entire muscle (epimysium)
320
What is the difference between a muscle fascicle, Muscle fiber, myofibril, and myofilament?
Muscle fascicle- bundle of muscle fibers.
Muscle fiber- bundle of myofibrils
Myofibrils- bundle of myofilaments
Myofilaments- bundles of myosin, actin, tropomyosin, and troponin.
321
```
Describe each of the following:
A.  sarcolemma
B. Transverse tubules
C. Sarcoplasm
D. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
```
A. sarcolemma- muscle cell membrane.
B. Transverse tubules- invagination of sarcolemma, brings the action potential to the inside of the cell.
C. Sarcoplasm- muscle cells cytoplasm (more K+)
D. Sarcoplasmic reticulum- smooth endoplasmic reticulum of muscle cell.
322
What type of organic compound is actin? What type of organic compound is myosin?
Protein
323
What is the myosin head? What are three functions of the myosin head?
Part of the thick myofilament made of myosin
A. Breakdown of ATP
B. Swivel or pivot
C. Attached to Actin
324
Name two proteins that are bound to actin:
A. Troponin
| B. Tropomyosin
325
What is the function of the troponin-tropomyosin complex?
Uncovers the Actin binding sites.
326
To what mineral does troponin bind?
Calcium
327
Troponin binds to:
A. Tropomyosin
B. Calcium
C. Actin
328
What triggers the release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum?
Action potential down the T-tubule (voltage gated)
329
Is ATP required for calcium release from the Sarcoplasmic reticulum? Why?
Yes, because it goes against the concentration gradient. (Active transport)
330
What is meant by a voltage-sensitive calcium channel? Explain how that works.
A change in charge in sarcolemma causes the Channel to open.
331
What is the power stroke?
The pivot/swivel motion of myosin head that shortens the sarcomere.
332
Which steps in muscle contraction require ATP?
A. Exocytosis of acetylcholine
B. Detachment of myosin head from Actin
C. Calcium and Na/K pump
333
What happens to each of these parts of the sarcomere when the sarcomere contracts?
a. A-band
b. I-band
c. H-zone
d. Z-line
a. A-band: Stays the same
b. I-band: gets shorter
c. H-zone: gets smaller disappears
d. Z-line: get closer together
334
When does muscle contraction stop? What actually stops contraction?
When acetylcholinesterase breaks down acetylcholine.
335
Can skeletal muscle contract without intracellular calcium? Why or why not?
No, because tropomyosin will still be covering actin binding sites.
336
How is a low concentration of calcium maintained in the sarcoplasm?
Calcium pump
337
```
Define and explain the function of each of the following:
A. Neuromuscular junction
B. Motor end plate
C. Synaptic cleft
D. Neurotransmitter
```
A. Neuromuscular junction: how action potential travels to muscle cell.
B. Motor end plate: contains receptors for acetylcholine and channels for Na to flow into cell and cause change in charge.
C. Synaptic cleft: where diffusion of acetylcholine occurs.
D. Neurotransmitter: in synaptic vesicles, opens chemically-gated channels
338
Explain the role of each of the following at the neuromuscular junction:
A. action potential
Opens voltage-gated channels
339
Explain the role of each of the following at the neuromuscular junction:
B. Synaptic end bulb: what is in a synaptic end bulb.
Neurotransmitters (acetylcholine)
340
Explain the role of each of the following at the neuromuscular junction:
C. Calcium
Causes exocytosis of acetylcholine and binds to troponin
341
Explain the role of each of the following at the neuromuscular junction:
D. Exocytosis: what is released from the axon terminal?
Neurotransmitter
342
Explain the role of each of the following at the neuromuscular junction:
E. What is the Neurotransmitter at the neuromuscular junction?
 acetylcholine
343
Explain the role of each of the following at the neuromuscular junction:
F. How does the neurotransmitter move across the synaptic cleft?
diffusion
344
Explain the role of each of the following at the neuromuscular junction:
G. What does the neurotransmitter do once it reaches the motor end plate?
Bind to receptors
345
Explain the role of each of the following at the neuromuscular junction:
H. What happens when acetylcholine binds to its receptors on the motor end plate?
Chemically gated channels open and Na+ rushes in
346
Explain the role of each of the following at the neuromuscular junction:
I. What is a chemically-gated channel? What does the chemically-gated channel on the
motor end plate do?
Opens when neurotransmitters bind to the receptor. Allows Na+ into the cell.
347
Explain the role of each of the following at the neuromuscular junction:
J. What initiates the action potential in a muscle cell?
Na+ in cell changes charge across sarcolemma
348
Explain the role of each of the following at the neuromuscular junction:
K. Once the action potential begins on the motor end plate, how is it transmitted across the
muscle cell?
Across sarcolemma and down into t-tubule
349
What is a motor unit?
One neuron and the muscle cells it innervates
350
Which muscles would have small motor units? Why? Which have large motor units?
Small- eyes and fingers (fine motor movements).
| Large- arm, legs, back
351
What is meant by the all-or-none principle in muscle contraction?
Action potential goes or it doesn’t. The whole muscle contracts to its full ability or it doesn’t contract at all
352
What is muscle tone?
Motor units are contracted at any given point (posture)
353
Define hypotonic in relation to muscle tone.
Decreased muscle tone.
354
Define hypertonic in relation to muscle tone.
Increased muscle tone
355
What is recruitment?
Increasing number of motor units to increase strength of contraction
356
What does atrophy?
Loss of myofibrils
357
Name two mechanisms that can lead to atrophy:
A. When they are not used
| B. Loss of nerve stimulation
358
When is atrophy irreversible?
When the muscle tissue turns to fibrous tissue
359
What is hypertrophy at the cellular level?
The muscle cell grows
360
What leads to muscle hypertrophy?
When muscles are used excessively
361
What is the role of phosphocreatine? How long can phosphocreatine stores supply ATP during vigorous exercise.
Supply P to ADP -> ATP + creatine
15 seconds
362
Write out the reaction by which phosphocreatine is broken down.
 phosphocreatine + ADP creatine + ATP + energy
363
Explain why phosphocreatine is instant energy.
Doesn’t require oxygen and phosphocreatine is stored in cell.
364
How is glycogen present in muscle cells? What is it’s purpose?
Polysaccharides break down into glucose
365
Muscle cells can "store" oxygen by binding O, to the protein, ______________________.
Myoglobin
366
Why do muscle cells need oxygen?
To create ATP through Cellular respiration
367
If oxygen is available, how do muscle cells produce ATP?
Cellular respiration
| Glucose + O2 H2O + CO2 + 38 ATP
368
Where in the muscle cell does cellular respiration occur?
Mitochondria
369
Does cellular respiration require oxygen?
Yes
370
What happens when no oxygen is present and the cell needs ATP?
Glycogen -> glucose -> 2 lactic acid + 2 ATP
371
What is oxygen debt?
No enough O2 taken in to meet the muscles needs.
372
What energy sources compounds are replaced in the cell after strenuous exercise?
A. Phosphocreatine
B.  glycogen
C. Myoglobin
373
What happens if muscles cannot generate all of the ATP it needs?
Fatigue
374
What is a muscle twitch?
Muscle’s response to an action potential.
375
Do all muscle fibers predominantly use cellular respiration for ATP production? How does a glycolic muscle fiber differ from an oxidative muscle fiber?
No
Glycolic- NO O2
Oxidative- O2
376
What is tetanus?
Contraction with no relaxation
377
What is treppe?
contraction with full relaxation + even greater contraction
378
What is an isotonic contraction? Give examples.
When the muscle shortens. Picking up a book, for example.
379
List 5 differences between cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle cells:
```
A. Intercalated discs
B. Self-excitation
C. Long refractory period
D. Involuntary
E. No tetanus
```
380
How is cardiac muscle contraction similar to skeletal muscle contraction?
Sarcomeres- thin and thick myofilaments
381
How is smooth muscle different from skeletal muscle? List 5 differences.
```
A. Involuntary
B. No striations (thin and thick myofilaments)
C. No troponin
D. Good regeneration
E. Stretch relaxation response
```
382
What is the origin of a muscle?
Proximal- less movement at Point of attachment
383
What is the insertion of a muscle?
Distal- more moveable at point of attachment
384
Is it the origin or insertion of a muscle that normally moves?
Insertion
385
Concerning elbow flexion:
a. Name the prime mover.
b. Name an antagonist.
c. Name a synergist.
a. Name the prime mover: brachialis
b. Name an antagonist: triceps brachii
c. Name a synergist: biceps brachii
386
Why are fixator muscles extremely important? What do they do?
Keep bone of origin in place (stabilize)
387
Concerning hip flexion:
a. Name the prime mover.
b. Name an antagonist.
c. Name a synergist.
a. Name the prime mover: iliopsoas
b. Name an antagonist:gluteus maximus, hamstrings
c. Name a synergist: Rectus femoris, sartorius, TFL
388
What is unique concerning the facial muscles?
Insert into the skin
389
What is the clinical term for ipsilateral paralysis of facial muscles?
Bell’s palsy
390
Name a muscle that closes the eye.
Obicularis oculi
391
Name a muscle that plays a role in whistling and holding the cheeks against the teeth.
Buccinator
392
Name a muscle that plays a role in smiling.
Zygomatic muscle
393
Which muscle dorsiflexes the ankle?
Tibialis anterior
394
Why are the gastrocnemius and the soleus together called the triceps surae?
Have 3 heads and are located at the calf. Sura means calf.
395
What does the term triceps mean?
3 heads
396
Explain why contraction of the sternocleidomastoid muscle on the right causes rotation of the head to the left.
The muscle shortens, pulling the mastoid process closer to the clavicle.
397
Are any skeletal muscles innervated by cranial nerves? Are cranial nerves part of the CNS or PNS?
Facial muscles
PNS
398
Name the three hamstrings:
a biceps femoris
b. semimembranosus
c. semitendinosus
399
Name at least six muscles that span two joints:
a. biceps femoris
b. Scmimembranosus
C. semitendinosus
d. biceps brachil
e. rectus femoris
F. gastrocnemius
400
Muscles that abduct the thigh would be located on the ______________thigh.
Lateral
| Gluteus Maximus
401
Muscles that flex the knee would be located on the ________________ knee.
Posterior
| Hamstrings, gastrocnemius
402
Name the major organs of the CNS:
A. Brain
| B. Spinal cord
403
Name the two major organs of the PNS:
Receptors and nerves
404
What can a receptor do?
Binds to Neurotransmitters to open chemically-gated channels
405
What are two types of efferent motor neurons?
A. Somatic
| B. Autonomic
406
Afferent neurons will always carry ____________
| information.
Sensory
407
How are neurons classified based on function?
Sensory, motor, mixed
408
How are neurons classified based on structure?
Multipolar, bipolar, unipolar
409
Name the four types of neuroglial cells in the CNS and the function(s) of each:
A. astrocytes- blood brain barrier, ion balance, metabolism of NT, repair, neuronal connections
B. microglia- phagocytosis of debris
C. Ependymal cells- line spaces and produce cerebrospinal fluid
D. Oligodendrocytes- make myelin sheath
410
Explain how the oligodendrocyte and the neurolemmocyte (Schwann cell) myelinate an axon.
Oligodendrocytes- many sheaths on many neurons
 Schwann cell- One sheath on one neuron
411
What is myelin?
Phospholipid, faster action potential, insulation, conserves ATP
412
What is a node of Ranvier?
spaces between myelin beads on axon where action potential occurs.
413
What is neurilemma?
 cytoplasmic nucleated layer of Schwann cell. Plays role in regeneration.
414
What is the difference between an axon and a dendrite?
Dendrites bring impulses towards cell body.
| Axons bring impulses away from the cell body.
415
What are Nissl bodies?
Rough endoplasmic reticulum of neurons
416
What is found in axon terminals?
Synaptic vesicles with Neurotransmitters
417
What is the function of the axon hillock in action potential generation?
To decide when to send the action potential (reaches threshold)
418
What are three advantages of myelin?
a. speeds up impulse
b. Conserves ATP
c. Insulation
419
What is saltatory conduction?
When action potential jumps from node to node of Ranvier
420
Are all neurons myelinated?
No
421
What is the term for a bundle of axons in the PNS? In the CNS?
PNS- nerve
| CNS- tract
422
Explain how the resting membrane potential in a neuron develops.
When there is no action potential, difference in voltage between inside and outside of cell.
423
What are the two parts of an action potential and what happens in each?
A. Depolarization- Na+ channels open (+ inside)
| B. Repolarization- K+ channels open (- inside)
424
What is the purpose of the Na+/K+ pump in an action potential?
To put Na+ back out of cell and K+ into cell
425
What is meant by an all-or-none response of a neuron?
Action potential at beginning of axon is the same as at the end
426
What is the refractory period?
Time in which the neuron cannot generate another action potential
427
Which neurons send action potentials the fastest?
Myelinated neurons (A fibers)
428
Are all receptors on postsynaptic neurons located on dendrites?
No, some are on cell body membrane
429
Where does calcium play a role in the transmission of an impulse across a synapse?
Calcium triggers exocytosis of neurotransmitters
430
Where in a synapse is a voltage-gated channel involved?
Axon terminal, nodes of Ranvier
431
Where in a synapse is a chemically-gated channel involved?
Postsynaptic neuron membrane
432
What is an excitatory neurotransmitter? What will it do to the postsynaptic membrane when it binds to its receptor?
Bring the inside of the cell closer to threshold
 depolarize the membrane. Cause an EPSP (+ in or - out)
433
What is an inhibitory neurotransmitter? What will it do to the postsynaptic membrane when it binds to its receptor?
Bring the inside of the cell further away from threshold.
Hyperpolarize membrane. Cause an IPSP (- in or + out)
434
What is an EPSP?
 excitatory post synaptic potential
435
What is an IPSP?
Inhibitory postsynaptic potential
436
Which type of neurotransmitter causes hyperpolarization? What is hyperpolarization?
Inhibitory neurotransmitter. Further away from threshold (< -70mv)
437
Explain how acetylcholine works at the neuromuscular junction when it binds to its receptor.
Allows Na+ to flow into cell EPSP (excitatory postsynaptic potential)
438
How is acetylcholine broken down?
 acetylcholinesterase
439
Is acetylcholine only located at neuromuscular junctions?
No
440
Name the neurotransmitter:
A. inhibitory, most common neurotransmitter in the brain
b. excitatory, most common neurotransmitter in the brain
C. called a neuromodulator that acts as a natural pain killer
d. plays a role in sleep and mood
A. GABA
B.  glutamate
C. Endorphins
D. Serotonin
441
Can a neurotransmitter be a gas? Give an example.
Yes - nitric oxide
442
How can a neurotransmitter be inhibitory at one synapse and excitatory at another?
Depending on the receptor and what channel it opens
443
Give examples of voltage gated channels. Name three. How do they work?
Ca+ in axon terminal,
Na+,
K+.
Open when there is a change in charge.
444
Give an example of a chemically-gated channel. How does it work?
Chemically-gated Na+ channel.
Opens when neurotransmitter binds to receptor
445
```
Give examples of each of the following levels of organization:
A. Chemicals
B. Organelles
C. Cells
D. Tissues
E. Organs
F. Systems
```
```
A. K+, Na+, O2
B. Mitochondria, rough ER
C. Osteoblast, fibroblasts
D. Epithelium, connective
E. Bone, brain, liver
F. Nervous, skeletal, endocrine
```
446
For example, what level of organization do the following represent?
A. Centriole
B. Glycogen
C. Skin
A. Organelle
B. Chemical
C. Organ
447
Understand the concept of homeostasis. How does the body control homeostasis of each of
the following?
Calcium
Parathyroid hormone and calcitonin
448
Why is it important to control homeostasis of calcium?
Bone formation and muscle contraction
449
Why is it important to control homeostasis of pH and temperature?
So proteins in our body don’t denature
450
Why is water considered an inorganic compound?
Because water does not have a carbon backbone.
451
What types of chemicals dissolve in water? Why is that significant?
 polar- determines what can dissolve in blood. Determines what can enter the cell.
452
What types of bonds are present in water?
Hydrogen bonds
453
How is water involved in dehydration synthesis?
Bonds are created by removing water
454
Write out a dehydration synthesis reaction.
 glucose + glucose —> Maltose + H2O
455
What tissue has water as its ground substance?
Blood and lymph
456
What three elements are found in all carbohydrates? What is the typical ratio of these elements!
Carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen.
| 1:2:1 ratio.
457
Do carbohydrates dissolve in water? Why?
Yes, because they are polar.
458
Name three monosaccharides.
Glucose, fructose, galactose
459
Which of the following would be an example of a mucous membrane?
Pseudostratified epithelium and connective tissue of the trachea
460
Which of the following tissue cells readily undergoes mitosis?
Neuroglia
461
In which type of tissue would you find a mast cell
Areolar connective tissue
462
Which of the following would be typical for the matrix of hyaline cartilage?
Chondroitin sulfate
463
A tissue has many layers in the cells have all kinds of shapes. They are columnar at the bottom, cuboidal in the middle, and squamous at the top. What would we call the tissue?
Stratified squamous tissue
464
Which type of muscle tissue would be characterized the striated and voluntary?
 skeletal
465
In which of the following locations is there hyaline cartilage
Trachea
466
Which type of junction would you expect to be most important between cells in a tissue which is undergoing a lot of stretch?
 desmosome
467
Which of the following would not be characterized of epithelial tissues?
Blood vessels
468
What type of tissue would you expect to find in the opening of your ear canal
Stratified squamous tissue
469
You are looking at a microscope and see a few oblong cells which are scattered with thick and thin purple lines weaving back-and-forth between them. You know this must be
Connective tissue
470
Adipose tissue, bone tissue, hyaline cartilage tissue, and blood are all derived from
Mesenchyme
471
Name the three tunics of the eyeball
Fibrous, vascular, nervous
472
What structures are part of the fibrous tunic
Sclera and cornea
473
What is the significance of the choroid
Nourish the retina and absorb scattered light
474
What are the two functions of the ciliary body
Secrete aqueous humor (ciliary process)
| Shape of lens (ciliary muscle)
475
What types of photo receptors are found in the retina
Rods and cones
476
What does each type of photo receptor detect
Rods- dim light
| Cones- color and sharpness of vision
477
What is the significance of the central fovea
Where we see things sharply, cones only
478
What is the significance of the Blindspot?
We are axons leave the eye- no rods or cones
479
Where is aqueous humor found
Anterior cavity
480
Where is vitreous humor found? What is its purpose?
Posterior cavity- holds the shape of the eye
481
 accommodation (importance of lens)
Changing shape of lens
482
Hyperopia
Eyeball too short
483
Myopia
Eyeball too long
484
Cataract
Protein in lens becomes yellow
485
Glaucoma
More aqueous humor produced than absorbed
486
AStigmatism
Irregular curvature of cornea
487
 presbyopia
Lens loses ability to change shape
488
What are the three layers of cells in the retina
Photo receptors, bipolar neurons, ganglion cells
489
The axons of which cells create the optic nerve?
Ganglion cells
490
Which retinal fibers cross in the optic chiasma? Why is the significant
The retinal fibers on the medial side.
| Shining light into the eye will stimulate The occipital lobe on both sides
491
Do visual impulses pass through the thalamus?
Yes
492
What structures are part of the external ear? What are their functions?
a. Auricle - collect sound waves
b. External Auditory canal
c. tympanic membrane
493
What structures are part of the middle ear?
Malleus, incus, stapes
494
Which passageway connects the antrum or the ear with the nasopharynx? What is its function?
Auditory tube- equalize air pressure
495
Name the three maior structures of the inner ear. What are their functions?
a. Cochlea- sense of hearing
b. semicircular canals
C. vestibule
496
What is the difference between conduction deafness and sensorineural deafness?
Conduction- damage to external/middle ear
| Sensorineural- damage to internal ear/ brain
497
Name the cranial nerve that matches the function below:
```
carries impulses for hearing
vestibulocochlear
innervates the superior oblique muscle or the eye
trochlear
Innervates the lacrimal aland
facial
pacian, sits bop hairgin gea1, vagus
innervates the trapezius muscle
accessory
carries impulses for eveball abduction
abducens
carries parasympathetic impulses to the heart
vagus
carries Impulses for smell
olFactor
carries action potentials during a toothache
trigeminal
innervates the muscle that closes the eye (winking)
facial
innervates the muscles needed for swallowing
glossopharyngear
carries impulses for vision
optiC
carries impulses for the pupillary reflex
oculomotor
```
498
Name the four cranial nerves that carry parasympathetic impulses.
Ocular motor, facial, glossopharyngeal, Vagus
499
Is there a cranial nerve that carries sympathetic impulses?
Bo
500
Which cranial nerve allows Anatomy and Physiology students to smile?
Facial
501
What four elements are found in all amino acids?
carbon, Hydrogen, oxygen, Nitrogen
502
Describe the primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structure of proteins.
Primary- sequence of amino acids
 secondary- shape resulting from hydrogen
 tertiary- unique folding
Quaternary- more than one amino acid chain
503
Name important functions of proteins
catalyze reactions in the cell(enzyme), transport substances In blood, Support
504
Do proteins generally dissolve in water?
Yes, polar
505
What is an enzyme
A protein that catalyzes reactions in the cell
506
How does an enzyme function
Lock and key- substrate binds into a very specific pocket in the enzymes structure
507
List at least four characteristics of an enzyme
Speed up reactions, only one reaction, can be used over and over, work at specific pH and temperature
508
What are the two basic parts of a triglyceride?
 glycerol (3-carbon backbone) and three long chains (C-H fatty acid chains)
509
What is the function of triglycerides
Store unused calories. Provide the body with energy
510
Name three types of fat
Triglycerides, phospholipids, steroids
511
Name functions of phospholipids
Barrier for cell membrane
512
Nucleic acids consist of phosphate, sugar, and _____________
Nitrogenous bases
513
What is the significance of the nitrogenous bases in DNA?
Three nitrogenous bases codes for one amino acid in an amino acid chain
514
What is the function of DNA
Contains the code for proteins
515
What is the function of mRNA?
Builds proteins using info from DNA
516
Catabolism of proteins, carbohydrates, and fats occurs by a process called __________
Hydrolysis
517
Identify the
type of organic compound represented by each of the followina (fat, protein, carbohydrate. or
nucleic acid):
```
Identify the
type of organic compound represented by each of the followina (fat, protein, carbohydrate. or
nucleic acid):
glycogen- carb
cholesterol-fat
cellulose-carb
keratin- Protein
myelin-fat
lactose- carb
myosin-protein
starch- carbohydrate
actin- Pro Tien
DNA- nucleic acid
phospholipids- fat
sucrose- carbohydrate
glucose- carb
triglycerides- fat
Tropomyosin- protein
troponin- protein
collagen- protein
```
518
What is the normal pH range of the body?
7.35-7.45
519
What is a buffer?
Resist changes in pH when acid or bases are added
520
Write out the reaction for the carbonic acid/bicarbonate buffer system.
H2CO3 H+ + HCO3-
521
What is the danger if the pH of the body drastically changes?
Proteins made denature
522
What is the role of ATP in the body
Usable form of energy in the body
523
Write out the reaction in which ATP Is formed from P and ADP
Does that process occur by dehydration synthesis or hydrolysis?
ADP + P + energy ATP + H2O
Dehydration synthesis
524
Transport processes that do not require ATP are called ___________ transport
Passive
525
Looking at the processes below, identify those that require AlP and those that do not.
```
facilitated diffusion- NO ATP
Na/K* pump- ATP
exocytosis- ATP
osmosis- NO A TP
calcium pump -ATP
```
526
Name three chemical components of the plasma membrane
Phospholipid bilayer, protein, cholesterol glycolipid + glycoprotein
527
What types of substances can diffuse easily across the membrane! Give an example
 Nonpolar- oxygen, carbon dioxide
528
What is the difference between active and passive transport?
The use of ATP and concentration gradient
529
Give examples of active and passive transport
Active- exocytosis, endocytosis, pumps
 passive- diffusion, osmosis
530
What is osmosis
Movement of water across A semi permeable membrane
531
What is meant by the terms hypotonic, isotonic, hypertonic?
Hypotonic- Low amount of solute
Hyper- high amount of solute
Isotonic- same amount of solute
532
What percent NaCl solution is isotonic to red blood cells
0.9%
533
Does water move from a hypertonic to hypotonic solution or vice versa?
Water moves hypotonic to hypertonic
534
What is hemolysis?
| What is Crenation?
Hemolysis is when a cell is placed into a hypotonic solution and the cell bursts.
Crenation is when a cell is placed into a Hypertonic solution in the cell shrinks
535
How do the following move across the cell membrane?
```
 glucose- facilitated diffusion
Na+\K+ - sodium potassium pump
Carbon dioxide- diffusion
Acetylcholine- exocytosis
Water soluble amino acids- facilitated diffusion
Triglycerides- diffusion
```
536
What is the function and purpose of the following organelles
Golgi apparatus packages secretions for export.
Ribosomes make proteins.
Mitochondria uses O2 to break down glucose to make ATP.
Rough endoplasmic reticulum- protein synthesis
Nucleus is the control center of the cell.
Lysosomes destroy bacteria, remove damaged organelles, and digest proteins fats and carbs.
537
What happens in mitosiS!
Nuclear division, Making two identical daughter cells
538
Do all cells undergo mitosis
No
539
What important steps occur in interphase to prepare the cell for mitosis?
Growth, DNA and centrioles duplication, makes enzymes for division
540
What happens in each of the following phases?
| Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
Prophase- nuclear membrane disintegrates, centrioles separate, chromatin turn into chromosomes
Metaphase- chromosomes lineup in the middle, muscle fibers attached to centromere
Anaphase- chromosome splits, chromatids move to opposite ends of the cell
Telophase- chromosomes uncoil, nuclear membrane reforms
541
If a cell with 40 chromosomes undergoes mitosis, the daughter cells will have ___________.
40 chromosomes
542
Distinguish the following: chromatin, chromosomes, centromere, cytokinesis, and mitotic spindle
Chromatin is DNA when it’s not dividing.
 chromosomes are DNA while dividing.

The centromere is in the middle of The chromosome.
Cytokinesis is the division of the cytoplasm.
543
During which phase does chromatin condense to chromosomes?
Prophase
544
In which phase of mitosis does cytokinesis (primarily) occur?
 telophase
545
In which phase of mitosis do the centromeres split?
Anaphase
546
Name the four major types of tissue in the body and their basic characteristics:
Epithelial- tightly packed cells, avascular, free surface, basement membrane.
Connective-blood supply, scattered cells in a matrix, no free surface
Nervous - conduct nerve impulses
Muscle - can shorten + stretch
