Final exam student-made qs Flashcards

(58 cards)

1
Q

A 60-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes presents for routine follow-up. Her blood pressure is 158/92 mmHg. Lifestyle modifications have been insufficient in controlling her blood pressure. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial pharmacologic treatment? Using AHA guidelines (ie, BP goals and compelling indications), what are the best two drugs to start at a low dose for treatment of this patient?

A. Beta-blocker (e.g., metoprolol)
B. Thiazide diuretic (e.g., hydrochlorothiazide)
C. ACE inhibitor (e.g., lisinopril)
D. Alpha-blocker (e.g., prazosin)

A

B. Thiazide diuretic (e.g., hydrochlorothiazide)
C. ACE inhibitor (e.g., lisinopril)

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2
Q

A 30-year-old woman, G1P0, at 32 weeks gestation presents to the ER with complaints of a persistent headache and blurry vision for the past 12 hours. Her blood pressure average is 162/108 mm Hg on two different readings. She has no history of hypertension. Urinalysis shows +1 protein, and labs show thrombocytopenia and elevated liver transaminases. There is no history of seizures or loss of consciousness. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A) Begin oral methyldopa therapy and monitor outpatient
B) Administer IV hydralazine and prepare for delivery
C) Prescribe ACE inhibitor for blood pressure control
D) Monitor blood pressure and repeat labs in 24 hours
E) Administer oral labetalol and discharge home

A

B) Administer IV hydralazine and prepare for delivery

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3
Q

Which monitoring parameter is most critical within the first month of starting an ACE inhibitor or ARB?

a) Blood glucose levels
b) Liver function tests
c) Serum potassium and creatinine and blood pressure 
d) Thyroid panel
A

c) Serum potassium and creatinine and blood pressure

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4
Q

Morgan Wallen returns to your family medicine practice with complaints that you ruined his singing career. He says, “ever since you put me on this blood pressure medication, I have a cough that interrupts my singing voice.” What medication can cause this symptom, and what can you prescribe instead to lower Morgan’s blood pressure without interrupting his singing?

A) Spironolactone is causing the cough; give him losartan instead since ARBs do not have this symptom and can lower his BP.
B) Lisinopril is causing the cough; give him atorvastatin instead since statins do not have this symptom and can lower his BP.
C) Spironolactone is causing the cough; give him losartan instead since ACEi do not have this symptom and can lower his BP.
D) Lisinopril is causing the cough; give him losartan instead since ARBs do not have this symptom and can lower his BP.

A

D) Lisinopril is causing the cough; give him losartan instead since ARBs do not have this symptom and can lower his BP.

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5
Q

Which of the following medications has an adverse effect of tendon rupture?

a) Niacin
b) Gemifibrozil
c) Bempedoic Acid (Nexletol)
d) Omega-3 polyunsaturated fatty acids
A

c) Bempedoic Acid (Nexletol)

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6
Q

Which of the following is not recommended by the FDA to be initiated at 80mg/day due to increased risk of myopathy and rarely rhabdomyolysis?

A. Simvastatin
B. Atorvastatin
C. Rosuvastatin
D. Pravastatin

A

A. Simvastatin

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7
Q

A 60 yo pt, has hx of ASCVD and LDL 125 mg /dL despite being on atorvastatin (Lipitor) 80mg qd & lifestyle changes. What is the next best step in management for this pt?
a. Add rosuvastatin (Crestor) 20mg PO qd
b. Add alirocumab (Praluent) 75 mg SUBQ q 2 weeks
c. Nothing, this is target level of LDL
d. Add lomitapide (Juxtapid) 5 mg PO qd

A

b. Add alirocumab (Praluent) 75 mg SUBQ q 2 weeks

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8
Q

A 64-year-old man with a history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus presents with stable exertional chest pain relieved by rest. His medications include metformin and lisinopril. His blood pressure is well controlled, and his LDL-C is 80 mg/dL despite being on a high-intensity statin. He reports 2–3 episodes of angina per week, which limit his ability to perform moderate physical activity. What is the most appropriate initial pharmacologic strategy to control his anginal symptoms?

A. Initiate sublingual nitroglycerin daily
B. Add a beta-blocker to his current regimen
C. Discontinue statin therapy and start ezetimibe
D. Add a calcium channel blocker as first-line monotherapy

A

B. Add a beta-blocker to his current regimen

What’s the patient’s HR and BP? What are the contraindications for beta-blockers? What warning do you give a patient with DM taking beta-blockers? Does the patient still need adjunct Zetia and PRN nitroglycerin?

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9
Q

Glorilla, a 25-year-old female, with a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia presents with chronic stable angina diagnosed as stable ischemic heart disease (SIHD). She reports experiencing chest discomfort while she performs and runs around on stage (being her baddie self), but states that it resolves with rest. Her current medications include lisinopril, atorvastatin, and low-dose aspirin. Her blood pressure is 135/80 mmHg, and heart rate is 83 bpm.
Which of the following would be most appropriate to add to reduce these symptoms and improve exercise tolerance so she can perform pain free?

a) Metoprolol succinate
b) Amlodipine
c) Digoxin
d) Ranolazine

A

a) Metoprolol succinate

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10
Q

A 65-year-old male with a BMI of 34 comes into the ER w chest pain. Patient received SL NTG 0.4 mg in the ambulance. His past medical history includes a stroke 3 months ago and chronic GERD. Current medications include ramipril 10 mg PO QD, chlorthalidone 25 mg PO QAM, lovastatin 20 mg PO QHS, ASA 81 mg PO daily, and omeprazole 20 mg PO Qday one hour before other drugs or food. He smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 20 years but quit smoking seven years ago. Findings on EKG show ST segment elevation. You perform a PCI at your facility. This patient requires dual platelet antiplatelet therapy.

Which is the best option for this patient?
a. Clopidogrel
b. Prasugrel
c. Ticagrelor
d. Cangrelor

A

c. Ticagrelor

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11
Q

68-year-old Sam Sung has a history of Afib, HTN, DM, and coronary artery disease with prior drug-eluting stent placement (2 months ago). Patient is taking clopidogrel 75 mg daily, ezetimibe 10 mg PO daily, ASA 81 mg PO qday, metoprolol succinate 50 mg daily, Farxiga 10 mg PO qday, and candesartan 32 mg daily. Mr. Sung is scheduled for elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy due to symptomatic cholelithiasis. How many days before his surgery should he stop his clopidogrel?

A. 7 days
B. Continue up until surgery
C. 5 days
D. 2 days

A

C. 5 days

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12
Q

A 70-year-old woman is admitted for ST-elevation myocardial infarction and undergoes successful PCI with a drug-eluting stent. She is started on aspirin, atorvastatin, carvedilol, and lisinopril. Her past medical history includes hypertension and GERD. Which of the following is the most appropriate additional medication to prescribe at discharge to reduce the risk of stent thrombosis?

a) Omeprazole 
b) Rivaroxaban 
c) Clopidogrel 
d) Dabigatran 
e) Nitroglycerin patch
A

c) Clopidogrel

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13
Q

Dr. Lewis notes:
1) After STEMI treated with PCI, DAPT with aspirin and a P2Y12 inhibitor is standard for at least 12 months to prevent stent thrombosis and recurrent ischemia.
2) Rivaroxaban and dabigatran are anticoagulants, not routinely used post STEMI unless AFIB or other thromboembolic risks exist.
3) Nitroglycerin patch helps with angina but doesn’t prevent stent thrombosis.
4) Use pantoprazole if GI protection is needed (omeprazole may inhibit clopidogrel metabolism)

A
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14
Q

Match the Alteplase dose for a patient with ACS & a patient with a stroke. Select 2 of the following.
a) ACS - 15 mg IVP over 1-2 minutes, then 0.75mg/kg (max 50 mg) IV over 30 minutes, then 0.5 mg/kg (max 35 mg) IV over 60 minutes, total dose not exceed 100 mg
b) ACS - 0.9 mg/kg IV (max 90 mg) total dose given as a 10% bolus over 1 minute, remaining given over 60 mins
c) Stroke - 15 IVP over 1-2 minutes, then 0.75mg/kg (max 50 mg) IV over 30 minutes, then 0.5 mg/kg (max 35 mg) IV over 60 minutes, total dose not exceed 100 mg
d) Stroke - 0.9 mg/kg IV (max 90 mg) total dose given as a 10% bolus over 1 minute, remaining given over 60 mins

A

a) ACS - 15 mg IVP over 1-2 minutes, then 0.75mg/kg (max 50 mg) IV over 30 minutes, then 0.5 mg/kg (max 35 mg) IV over 60 minutes, total dose not exceed 100 mg
d) Stroke - 0.9 mg/kg IV (max 90 mg) total dose given as a 10% bolus over 1 minute, remaining given over 60 mins

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15
Q

DK is a 67-year-old male who has just been diagnosed stable ischemic heart disease. He was prescribed sublingual nitroglycerin to use PRN for chest pain. Before he goes to pick it up, what are some patient counseling points that would be beneficial? Select all that apply.
a) Sit down when taking this prescription
b) Take with food
c) Take with orange juice (it increases absorption)
d) Store in its original dark glass container and avoid keeping it in humid areas like the bathroom
e) Avoid use with drugs like sildenafil or Levitra

A

a) Sit down when taking this prescription
d) Store in its original dark glass container and avoid keeping it in humid areas like the bathroom
e) Avoid use with drugs like sildenafil or Levitra

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16
Q

A 58-year-old man presents to your family medicine clinic for follow-up after a recent hospitalization for an ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). His past medical history includes type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and heart failure with reduced ejection fraction.
He appears visibly distressed and blurts out: “Doc, I think I’m turning into a woman! I swear I need to start shopping for a bra!”
He reports that over the past few weeks he has developed painful swelling beneath both nipples. On physical exam, he has bilateral tender gynecomastia.
His current medications include:
Metformin
Lisinopril
Atorvastatin
Metoprolol
Aspirin
Clopidogrel
Spironolactone
Laboratory values today are within normal limits. You review his medications and decide to make a substitution to address his new symptoms while maintaining cardioprotective benefits.
Which of the following is the most appropriate change to his medication regimen?
A. Discontinue spironolactone and do not replace it
B. Switch spironolactone to furosemide
C. Switch spironolactone to eplerenone
D. Switch spironolactone to hydrochlorothiazide
E. Continue spironolactone and initiate tamoxifen

A

C. Switch spironolactone to eplerenone

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17
Q

Dr Lewis notes: This patient developed gynecomastia, a known side effect of spironolactone, due to its antiandrogenic effects. Spironolactone blocks androgen receptors and increases peripheral conversion of testosterone to estradiol, leading to breast tissue development in males.
Additionally, epocrates drug interactions had a warning with spironolactone because of its interaction with lisinopril on kidney function, potassium, sodium and BP.
I usually ignore that last drug interaction warning. You’ll commonly see patients on spironolactone with an ACEi, ARB, ARNI, or potassium chloride. You’ll monitor their potassium and they will have lower potassium levels (especially if they are on thiazides and loops).

A
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18
Q

A 72-year-old man with a history of ischemic cardiomyopathy is brought to the emergency department after being found lethargic and short of breath at home. He is oriented but slow to respond, with cool extremities and poor capillary refill. He’s mumbling something about his girlfriend, Jenna Tolls, who broke his heart.
Vitals:
BP: 95/75 mmHg
HR: 108 bpm
RR: 22/min
O2 sat: 94% on 2L nasal cannula
Temp: 97.9°F
A right heart catheterization is performed and reveals:
Cardiac index: 1.8 L/min/m²
Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP): 17 mmHg
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Start IV fluids and recheck cardiac index in one hour
B. Initiate IV furosemide and IV nitroglycerin
C. Begin IV dobutamine and consider adding norepinephrine
D. Optimize chronic beta-blocker and ACE inhibitor therapy

A

C. Begin IV dobutamine and consider adding norepinephrine

This patient is showing signs of hypoperfusion (cold)with a low cardiac index (1.8)and low PCWP (17 mmHg). The diastolic BP is low. Clinically, he is cold and borderline wet/dry, suggesting he is in Subset III (cold and dry).

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19
Q

Match the stroke etiology to the treatment recommendation for secondary prevention:
a) Non-cardioembolic; antiplatelet therapy
b) Non-cardioembolic; anticoagulant therapy
c) Cardioembolic; antiplatelet therapy
d) Cardioembolic; insulin

A

a) Non-cardioembolic; antiplatelet therapy
Patients who had a stroke caused by a non-cardioembolic event are recommended to start antiplatelet therapy as a secondary preventative measure. These treatments can include Aspirin 50-325 mg qd, Aspirin 25 mg + ER dipyridamole 200 bid, or clopidogrel 75 mg qd.
b) Non-cardioembolic; anticoagulant therapy
Patients who had a stroke caused by a non-cardioembolic event are recommended to start antiplatelet therapy as a secondary preventative measure, not anticoagulant therapy.
c) Cardioembolic; antiplatelet therapy
Patients who had a stroke caused by a cardioembolic event are recommended to start anticoagulant therapy as a secondary preventative measure, not antiplatelet therapy.
d) Cardioembolic; insulin
Patients who had a stroke caused by a cardioembolic event are recommended to start anticoagulant therapy as a secondary preventative measure. Insulin is used to treat DM with an A1c >10.

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20
Q

Betty White, a 75-year-old woman is brought to the ER by EMS complaining that her heart has been “ racing and feeling kinda funny for a while” The paramedic reports states that a 12 lead EKG revealed she was in a fib and while on route she began to exhibit difficulties with her speech. Being the rockstar that you are, you get some STAT labs and a CT and diagnose her with ischemic stroke. It has been 3 hours since symptom onset, her BP is 200/116, and her INR is 1.0. Her daughter, when reached, says she’s already on some “a-statin med” for her cholesterol. What is your initial treatment and what other medications might you prescribe for secondary prevention. Select all that apply

A. Labetalol 10-20mg IV given over 1-2 min
B. Edoxaban 120 mg BID. This drug is the best.
C. Aspirin 25mg extended-release tablet
D. Alteplase 0.9 mg/kg IV with first 10% in a bolus and a max of 90 mg given over 60 minutes
E. Apixaban 5 mg BID
F. None of the above. The patient says to give her a shot of whiskey and some BC powder and let her go home. She’s got a hot date.

A

A. Labetalol 10-20mg IV given over 1-2 min
D. Alteplase 0.9 mg/kg IV with first 10% in a bolus and a max of 90 mg given over 60 minutes
E. Apixaban 5 mg BID

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21
Q

Which of the following is not a contraindication to tPA?
A) Previous stroke 1 year ago
B) Infective endocarditis
C) Active internal bleeding
D) GI malignancy

A

A) Previous stroke 1 year ago

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22
Q

Waldo is an 85-year-old male with a past medical history of atrial fibrillation. He had a cardioembolic stroke 7 days ago and was placed on apixaban (Eliquis) 5 mg PO BID. Given his weight of 83 kg and serum creatinine 2.0 mg/dL, should his apixaban be reduced, and if so what should the dosage be reduced to?
A. No, the patient should continue at the same dose.
B. Yes, it should be reduced to 5 mg PO QD.
C. Yes, it should be reduced to 2.5 mg PO BID.
D. Yes, it should be reduced to 2.5 mg PO QD

A

C. Yes, it should be reduced to 2.5 mg PO BID.

The patient’s apixaban should be reduced to 2.5 mg BID if two or more of the following:
○ Age ≥ 80 years old
○ Weight ≤ 60 kg
○ Serum creatinine ≥ 1.5 mg/dL

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23
Q

While on her clinical rotation, PA student Judith McSpanky emails Dr. Lewis (on break at Kroger, daydreaming about target doses) about a new ER admission:
Mr. Pickle T. Mamacita, 70 y/o male with HFrEF (EF 30%) and AFib, presents with dyspnea, 2+ edema, and HR 118 bpm.
Cardiac index is 2.5 and PCWP is 22; CrCl = 88 mL /min
Current medications include: Metoprolol succinate 25 mg Qday, furosemide 40 mg BID, lisinopril 10 mg Qday, digoxin 0.25 mg Qday, potassium chloride 20 MEQ daily
Judith McSpanky’s email states: “should I continue the furosemide or will my preceptor yell at me for that?’

What’s the most appropriate next step?
A. Add diltiazem for better rate control
B. Change to furosemide IV and consider adding HCTZ for loop resistance
C. Increase metoprolol dose and monitor response
D. Stop digoxin and start amiodarone

A

B. Change to furosemide IV and consider adding HCTZ for loop resistance

Is the patient taking the target dose of lisinopril and metoprolol?
Assume the patient is NHYA II, does the patient need spironolactone, Entresto, or Farxiga?

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24
Q

You’re tending a medieval herb garden as part of a very unconventional cardiology elective. While pulling weeds, your attending physician hands you a bouquet of purple flowers and says, “This one killed many cats.”
Suddenly, a messenger runs in from the castle infirmary:
“Your Majesty’s knight is weak and weary! His heart beats slow and his breath comes short! He’s been diagnosed with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) and remains symptomatic despite standard treatment!”
You rush to the royal medicine chest and spot several options. Remembering your floral studies, you choose the one derived from purple foxglove—a medication known to reduce hospitalizations, but not mortality, and which requires careful dose monitoring due to its narrow therapeutic window.
Which medication do you choose for this knightly patient?
A. Carvedilol
B. Sacubitril/valsartan
C. Digoxin
D. Furosemide
E. Spironolactone

25
A 76-year-old man comes to the clinic due to insomnia. He reports he has been unable to sleep at night due to a persistent cough every time he lies flat, which has been ongoing for months. Additionally, he notes new exercise intolerance, reporting he can only walk two to three city blocks before catching his breath. His medical hx is significant for HTN, type 2 DM, and osteoarthritis. His temperature is 37.2 Celsius (98.9 Fahrenheit), pulse is 75/min, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 142/82 mmHg. Physical examination shows 1+ pitting edema of the lower extremities, and prominent jugular veins. Faint bibasilar crackles are heard on auscultation of the lungs. Which of the following medications is associated with an increased survival benefit for patients with this disease process? a) Lisinopril b) Furosemide c) Verapamil d) All of the above
a) Lisinopril
26
Which of the following are indicated for cardioversion in a patient with LVH and atrial fibrillation? a) Flecainide b) Dronedarone c) Amiodarone d) Sotalol e) Verapamil
c) Amiodarone
27
A 68-year-old woman with persistent atrial fibrillation presents for follow-up after a recent cardioversion attempt. Due to failed rhythm control with beta-blockers and diltiazem, her cardiologist started her on amiodarone 200 mg daily one week ago. She has been on warfarin 5 mg daily for stroke prevention for the past 3 months, with stable INR values between 2.0 and 2.5. What should you change regarding her warfarin dose? a) Make no changes to warfarin b) Change warfarin to 2.5 mg c) Decrease warfarin by 50% d) Decrease warfarin dose by 30%
d) Decrease warfarin dose by 30%
28
A 70-year-old man with atrial fibrillation on warfarin develops CA-MRSA cellulitis. Which indicated antibiotic could cause an increase in INR? Select all that apply. A.Cephalexin B.Bactrim C.Gentamicin D.Doxycycline
B.Bactrim D.Doxycycline
29
You are on your Women’s Health rotation and are treating a patient that has experienced an acute VTE during their pregnancy. The patient has no previous history of VTEs or any other cardiac history. Your preceptor asks you what is the appropriate medication and duration of treatment. Since you are an awesome PA student, what do you respond with? A.Warfarin for a minimum of 3 months and continued at least 4 weeks postpartum B.LMWH for a minimum of 3 months and continued at least 6 weeks postpartum C.LMWH for a minimum of 6 months and continued at least 3 weeks postpartum D.Apixaban for a minimum of 6 months and continued at least 4 weeks postpartum
B.LMWH for a minimum of 3 months and continued at least 6 weeks postpartum
30
Which of the following is an appropriate counseling point for Warfarin? a) Warfarin does not have to be taken at the same time every day. b) If you need to have surgery or a procedure, you can stop taking this medication without talking to your provider. c) This injection should be administered at 90° to the skin d) Foods rich in vitamin K should be consistent within the patient's diet.
d) Foods rich in vitamin K should be consistent within the patient's diet.
31
Dabigatran is a direct thrombin inhibitor that must be taken with food. What is required of this direct oral anticoagulant prior to initiation for DVT treatment and why?  A. 6 weeks of anti platelet use like aspirin for additional blood thinning B. 5 days of LMWH (enoxaparin) before initiation of dabigatran C. 1 month of lifestyle modifications D. Titration of dose starting at 50 mg BID to 150 mg BID allowing for the pt to adjust
B. 5 days of LMWH (enoxaparin) before initiation of dabigatran
32
What is an appropriate prophylactic treatment for a dental procedure for a patient w/ a prior dx of IE and a type 1 PCN allergy? a) Amoxicillin 2000mg b) Clindamycin 2000mg c) Clindamycin 600mg d) Cephalexin 600mg e) Cephalexin 2000mg
c) Clindamycin 600mg
33
A 35-year-old patient with no known drug allergies presents with native valve infective endocarditis caused by methicillin-susceptible Staphylococcus aureus (MSSA) affecting the mitral valve. What is the most appropriate first-line antibiotic treatment and duration? A) Vancomycin IV for 4 weeks B) Nafcillin or oxacillin IV for 6 weeks C) Ceftriaxone IV for 2 weeks D) Daptomycin IV for 4 weeks E) Ampicillin + gentamicin IV for 6 weeks
B) Nafcillin or oxacillin IV for 6 weeks
34
Count Chocula, a 65 year-old spooky vampire with sepsis is started on amphotericin B for a suspected fungal infection. Which of the following medications should be administered prior to amphotericin B to minimize infusion-related reactions? a) Acetaminophen and diphenhydramine b) Ibuprofen and loratadine c) Ondansetron and famotidine d) Hydrocortisone and promethazine
a) Acetaminophen and diphenhydramine
35
A 30-year-old primigravida woman at 20 weeks of gestation comes to the clinic for evaluation of itching under her skin folds at the waist. Her past medical history includes hypothyroidism and allergic rhinitis. Current medications include levothyroxine and over-the-counter nasal decongestants. The patient’s temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F), pulse is 80/min, respirations are 20/min, and blood pressure is 135/85 mmHg. Physical examination reveals circular, erythematous, scaling plaques with central clearing about her waist and underneath her breasts. Skin scrapings are obtained and reveal segmented hyphae under KOH prep. Which of the following pharmacological agents would be contraindicated for treatment of this patient's condition? a) Topical clotrimazole b) Oral griseofulvin c) Topical miconazole d) Topical terbinafine
b) Oral griseofulvin
36
Identify the appropriate counseling points for griseofulvin. Select all that apply. A: Take with fatty meal to increase absorption B: Potential for cross-reactivity with sulfa drugs C: Do not use while pregnant D: Avoid use in patients with porphyria
A: Take with fatty meal to increase absorption C: Do not use while pregnant D: Avoid use in patients with porphyria
37
A 48-year-old woman presents with thickened, discolored toenail diagnosed as onychomycosis and is being treated with oral terbinafine (Lamisil). She reports taking a daily antihistamine for seasonal allergies, but denies any other medications. After 4 weeks of treatment, she reports a slight loss of taste in her mouth and says that food doesn’t taste the same. She denies any fever, sore throat, or other signs of illness. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her symptoms? A. Side effect of terbinafine B. She has developed an acute viral infection C. Poor dental hygiene D. Drug interaction with antihistamines
A. Side effect of terbinafine
38
Which of the following corticosteroids is used in chemotherapy-induced nausea or for brain tumors? A. Methylprednisolone B. Dexamethasone C. Fludrocortisone D. Betamethasone
B. Dexamethasone
39
Your pt came into the hospital with thyroid storm after surgery. You remember, as the astute PA you are, that you must prescribe propranolol in the long list of medications for this diagnosis. If you want to give this medication, what should you look for in the chart to make sure you do not worsen the pt’s condition? a) Heart Failure b) Anxiety c) Infective Endocarditis d) Stroke
a) Heart Failure
40
Cathy, a 54 year old female, regularly takes 2 grains of Armour Thyroid daily for her hypothyroidism. She has recently decided to become vegan and is searching for a new medication that better fits her lifestyle choices. What dose of levothyroxine would you recommend? a) 75 mcg levothyroxine PO BID AC b) 200 mcg levothyroxine PO qday QHS c) 200 mcg levothyroxine PO qday AC breakfast d) 100 mcg levothyroxine PO qday AC breakfast
c) 200 mcg levothyroxine PO qday AC breakfast
41
What is a severe adverse effect seen with thionamides that requires discontinuation of the medication? a) Leukopenia b) Agranulocytosis c) Skin Rash d) Arthralgia
b) Agranulocytosis
42
A 26-year-old female JM is 7 weeks gestational age, she presents with palpitations, unintended weight loss, and heat intolerance. Her medical history includes type 2 diabetes managed with metformin. Lab work shows low TSH and elevated free T4. She is diagnosed with Graves’ disease. What is the most appropriate initial treatment plan? A. Methimazole; discontinue metformin due to thyroid interaction B. Propylthiouracil (PTU); continue metformin as usual C. Radioactive iodine (RAI); taper off metformin pre-treatment D. Surgical thyroidectomy; hold metformin 48 hours pre-op
B. Propylthiouracil (PTU); continue metformin as usual
43
A 42-year-old presents with central obesity, hypertension, and glucose intolerance. Labs show elevated ACTH and elevated 24 hr cortisol and MRI reveals a pituitary adenoma. Surgical resection is not an option at this time. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacologic treatment to rapidly suppress cortisol production, while minimizing androgen-related side effects? A. Metyrapone B. Ketoconazole C. Mitotane D. Mifepristone
B. Ketoconazole D. Mifepristone (I think)
44
A 65-yo women comes into your family care clinic for her annual physical and mentions that she's been feeling extra tired lately and that for some reason, she is always cold. You notice that she has gained a significant amount of weight since her last annual physical when looking over her chart. You decide to do some blood work, and the results show: Increased TSH Low T3/T4 What is the most likely endocrine disorder? A) Hashimoto’s Disease B) Graves C) Addisons D) Honkytonkitis
A) Hashimoto’s Disease
45
A 45-year-old female with Addison’s Disease has been treated with prednisone 30 mg/day for the past 3 weeks. Her disease has stabilized, and her physician is considering stopping the glucocorticoid therapy. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management? a) Discontinue prednisone b) Continue prednisone at the same dose indefinitely to avoid adrenal insufficiency c) Begin a gradual taper of prednisone to prevent secondary adrenal insufficiency d) Switch from prednisone to hydrocortisone without tapering e) Administer a high-dose ACTH stimulation test to rule out primary adrenal insufficiency
c) Begin a gradual taper of prednisone to prevent secondary adrenal insufficiency
46
A 32-year-old woman presents with chronic fatigue, weight loss, salt cravings and abdominal pain. Laboratory testing shows low morning serum cortisol with elevated ACTH. She is diagnosed with primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison's disease). Which of the following best describes why you would prescribe the patient hydrocortisone. A. To stimulate adrenal gland growth and restore endogenous cortisol production B. To provide mineralocorticoid replacement necessary for electrolyte balance C. To suppress ACTH levels and prevent adrenal gland hyperplasia D. To replace deficient glucocorticoids and mimic diurnal cortisol secretion E. To enhance insulin sensitivity and reduce glucose variability
D. To replace deficient glucocorticoids and mimic diurnal cortisol secretion
47
A 29-year-old woman with Cushing’s syndrome is being treated with metyrapone. She returns with complaints of worsening acne and facial hair growth. What is the most likely cause of her symptoms? A. Increased glucocorticoid activity B. Inhibition of androgen synthesis C. Compensatory increase in ACTH stimulating androgen production D. Decreased adrenal androgen clearance
C. Compensatory increase in ACTH stimulating androgen production
48
ED is a 52 yo F who presents with concerns of weight gain. Pt has been consistently gaining weight over past few months. On PE, striae noted over the abdomen. Upon reviewing labs and imaging results we are suspecting adrenal carcinoma. Which one is the most appropriate pharmacological treatment to proceed with? A. Ketoconazole B. Metyrapone C. Mitotane D. Mifepristone
C. Mitotane
49
For a patient on Methotrexate, how often should you be checking their DMARDs labs if they have been on the medication for 5 months? a) Q 2-4 weeks b) Q 12 weeks c) Q 6-8 weeks d) Q 8-12 weeks
d) Q 8-12 weeks
50
A patient presents to your clinic with a Crohn's diagnosis. You decide to prescribe methotrexate with infliximab. Which concomitant therapies have warnings with methotrexate + inflixamab. Choose ALL that apply. A. MMR vaccine B. Bactrim DS C. Tylenol D. Flu shot
A. MMR vaccine B. Bactrim DS
51
A 68-year-old male with diabetes presents with painful burning in both feet at night. He is on gabapentin 300 mg TID. He also reports symptoms of depression. What’s the best pharmacologic strategy? Select all that apply. A. Increase gabapentin to 600 mg TID B. Add duloxetine C. Add pregabalin D. Add nortriptyline
A. Increase gabapentin to 600 mg TID B. Add duloxetine
52
What is the key difference in insulin management between type 1 and type 2 diabetic patients. A) Type 1 pts require higher total daily doses than type 2 pts B) Type 1 pts use carb counting and correction factors, while type 2 pts typically use fixed doses. C) Type 1 pts only use long-acting insulin while type 2 pts use rapid-acting D) Type 1 pts take insulin orally while type 2 pts use injections
B) Type 1 pts use carb counting and correction factors, while type 2 pts typically use fixed doses.
53
Dee Snuts, age 70, has diabetes type 2 and heart failure. You prescribe them metformin to reduce the risk of macrovascular and microvascular complications. What warning should you give your Mr. Snuts? a) Potential renal failure risk with metformin b) Potential lactic acidosis with metformin c) Metformin is on the BEERS list d) Increased risk of bladder cancer with metformin
b) Potential lactic acidosis with metformin
54
A 72-year-old male with HFrEF (EF 35%, NYHA class II) and type 2 diabetes is currently taking metoprolol succinate, lisinopril, and furosemide. Which of the following medications would provide both a mortality benefit and improve heart failure outcomes, while also helping manage his diabetes? A) Amlodipine B) Sitagliptin C) Dapagliflozin D) Glipizide
C) Dapagliflozin
55
A 55-year-old man is following up with his PCP for his Type II diabetes. His A1c is currently 8.9 while taking metformin 1000 mg bid. He also reports that he smokes a pack a day, but says he’s been smoking more in the last few months since his wife left him and took their dog with her. He has been feeling depressed because of this, more so because he misses his furry friend. He also states that he wants to lose weight and get his “revenge body” post-divorce. His BMI is 32.2. He has no other known medical conditions. What medications can be added to his current regimen to address his concerns? a) Nothing. Tell him to get over it, buy a new dog, and hit the gym b) Mounjaro 2.5 mg sq weekly and bupropion 150 mg bid c) Pioglitazone 15 mg qday and bupropion 150 mg bid d) Ozempic 0.25 mg sq weekly
b) Mounjaro 2.5 mg sq weekly and bupropion 150 mg bid
56
A 52-year-old man presents for a routine physical. He has no complaints. His medical history includes type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. He does not smoke. BP is well controlled. Labs show: Total cholesterol: 230 mg/dL LDL: 146 mg/dL HDL: 39 mg/dL Triglycerides: 180 mg/dL A1c: 7.2% ASCVD 10-year risk is calculated at 14%. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient’s lipid profile? A. Lifestyle modification only B. Start a high-intensity statin C. Start a moderate-intensity statin D. Add ezetimibe to lifestyle therapy E. Start a PCSK9 inhibitor
B. Start a high-intensity statin
57
XL is a 55-year-old male pt that frequents your family clinic. They have DMt2(last A1c 6.8%), HTN, and hyperlipidemia that you have been managing with metformin 1000mg PO BID, pioglitazone 30mg Qday, atorvastatin 40mg Qday, and lisinopril 20mg Qday. On Mon, you find out that XL was seen in the ER over the weekend due to suffering from an MI caused by an occlusion of his left circumflex artery. After an extensive work up, he is found to now have left sided HF w/ rEF. Of the medications he is currently on, which will be the most important to discontinue due to his new condition, and what is appropriate replacement. a) Metformin - Insulin b) Pioglitazone - Jardiance c) Atorvastatin - Zetia d) Lisinopril - Losartan
b) Pioglitazone - Jardiance
58
John Doe, a 54 year old male with type two diabetes, comes to his PCP for his annual check of his blood glucose and HbA1c levels. He asks which medication would lower his A1c the most. As his PCP, what would you tell John? a) Jardiance b) Ozempic c) Insulin d) Glimepiride
c) Insulin