Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

EMT > Final Exam study guide pt 2 > Flashcards

Final Exam study guide pt 2 Flashcards

Lets finish strong

1
Q

Fluid buildup in the lungs

A

Pulmonary Edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

When one or more arteries in the lungs become blocked by a blood clot

A

Pulmonary Embolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

inflammation of the liver

A

hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Types of Hep

A

Hep A: leads to jaundice
Hep B: different from A because it is more serious
Hep C: similar to B but jaundice is less common, no vaccine and you can get infected without showing symptoms
Hep D: no vaccine and more sudden onset than b can’t get if immunized with HBV
Hep E: similar to A but not common in the U.S. spreads through contaminated drinking water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What to look for with gunshot wounds

A

Entry and exit wounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A state of physical and/or psychological arousal to a stimulus

A

Stress
types:
Distress: negative stress
Eustress: Positive stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Positive methods to deal with stress

A

Develop a healthy dieat
Exercise
Devote time to relaxing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When to administer oxygen

A

When the patients show signs of hypoxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A viral infection that’s serious for small children

A

Measels also known as rubeola
s/s fever, dry cough and red rashes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A highly contagious respiratory tract infection

A

pertussis also known as whooping cough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

a Highly poisonous, odorless and tasteless poison

A

Carbon monoxide
S/S of carbon monoxide poisoning
Headache, Dizziness, breathing difficulty, Nausea, cyanosis, Altered mental status, in severe cases unconsciousness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

treating a sucking chest wound

A
  1. Scene safety
  2. consider ALS
  3. maintain open air way
  4. identify and seal open chest wound using occlusive dressing
  5. if possible, allow patient to be in position of comfort
  6. High concentration oxygen
  7. Treat for shock and transport
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

inflammation of gallbladder s/s RUQ abdominal pain radiates to right shoulder

A

cholecystitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

infection within the peritoneal cavity

A

peritonitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A finding that there was a failure to act properly, in a situation in which there was a duty to act that needed care as reasonably be expected by the EMT was not provided, and harm was caused to the patient as a result

A

Negligence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Leaving a patient after care has been initiated and before the patient has been transferred to someone with equal or greater medical training.

A

Abandonment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When one person or team gives up the responsibility for a patient’s care to another person or team.

A

Transfer of care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Blood vessels that supply the muscle of the heart. (Myocardium)

A

Coronary arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Damage or disease in the heart’s major blood vessels.

A

Coronary artery disease (CAD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The buildup of fats, cholesterol and other substances in and on the artery walls.

A

Atherosclerosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A blockage of blood flow to the heart muscle

A

MI or myocardial infarction
S/S: Pain in the shoulder blades, arm chest, jaw left arm, or upper abdomen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Chest discomfort that occurs when your heart isn’t receiving enough blood. Usually due to a blockage in a coronary artery.

A

Angina pectoris, it’s different from a myocardial infarction because in a myocardial infarction, blood flow is severely reduced, cut off causing heart tissue damage or death.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A means of correcting blockage of the airway by moving the jaw forward without tilting the head or neck used when trauma or injury is suspected to the open airway without causing further injury to the spinal cord in the neck.

A

Jaw thrust maneuver.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A means of correcting blockage of the airway by tilting the head back and lifting the chin used when no trauma or injury is suspected to the spine

A

Head tilt chin lift.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

A curve device inserted through the patient’s mouth into the pharynx to help maintain an open airway.

A

OPA
Indications: When the patient is unconsciousness and doesn’t have a gag reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

A flexible breathing tube inserted through the patient’s nostril into the pharynx to help maintain an open airway.

A

NPA
Indications: When the patient has an intact gag reflex, when teeth are clinched, and oral injuries
Indications: Basilar skull fracture and epistaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What happens in emphysema vs chronic bronchitis

A

In emphysema the walls of the alveoli breakdown decreasing surface area. In chronic bronchitis the bronchiole lining in the alveoli are inflamed and mucus is formed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The process of sweating

A

perspiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Person responsible for communicating with sector officers and hospitals to manage transportation of patients through hospitals from a MCI.

A

Transportation supervisor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The person or persons who assume overall direction of a large-scale incident.

A

Incident command officer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Person responsible for overseeing treatment of patients who have been triaged at a multiple casualty incident.

A

treatment supervisor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Personal responsible for opening ambulances and ambulance personnel at a multiple casualty incident.

A

staging supervisor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Different priority tags in MCI

A

P1. red tag (treatable life-threatening illness or injuries)
P2. yellow tag (serious but not life-threatening injuries)
P3. green tag (Walking wounded)
P4 (priority 0). black tag (dead or fatally injured)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Carrying away of heat by currents of air, water or other gasses or other liquids.

A

Convection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Sending out energy such as heat waves into space

A

Radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The change from liquid to gas when the body perspires or gets wet.

A

Evaporation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

As the body loses salts bringing on painful muscle cramps.

A

Heat cramps.

38
Q

Prolonged exposure to excessive heat can create an emergency in which the Patient presents with moist pale skin that feels normal or cool to the touch.

A

Heat exhaustion.

39
Q

When a person’s temperature regulated, mechanisms fail and the body cannot rid itself of excessive heat, you will see a patient with hot skin that is either dry or moist.

A

heat stroke

40
Q

Generalized cooling that reduces body temperature below normal, which is a life-threatening condition in its extreme.

A

hypothermia. They are at risk of ventricular fibrillation because rough handling can set off fatal dysrhythmias.

41
Q

How to treat a water rescue patient?

A
  1. do a primary assessment protecting the spine
  2. provide rescue breathing, no pulse start CPR
  3. Look for and control profuse bleeding
    4.conserve heat, signs of hypoxia administer oxygen
  4. continue Resuscitative measures throughout transport, initial and periodic suctioning may be needed.
42
Q

Simple triage and rapid treatment.

A

Start triage. relies on RPM as physiologic parameters
RPM: Respiration, Pulse, Mental status

43
Q

Sort, assess, lifesaving inventions, treatment/transport.

A

SALT triage

44
Q

A force that may have caused an injury

A

Mechanism of injury

45
Q

What is medically wrong with a patient?

A

Nature of illness.

46
Q

How is anaphylaxis different from a mild allergic reaction?

A

Anaphylaxis is different from a mild allergic reaction because to be considered anaphylaxis, the person has to have signs of Respiratory distress and shock.

47
Q

When someone is exposed to organ or phosphates for too long or at high levels, Organophosphates are a class of compounds that are commonly used in pesticides, herbicides and nerve agents.

A

Organophosphate exposure.
s/s: Increased saliva production. increase urination diarrhea, small pupils, diaphoresis.

48
Q

When the fetus and placenta deliver before the 20th week of pregnancy, commonly called a miscarriage,

A

Spontaneous abortion.

49
Q

When implantation of the fertilized egg is not in the body of the uterus, occurring instead in the fallopian tube, cervix or abdominal pelvic cavity

A

Ectopic pregnancy.

50
Q

A condition in which the placenta is formed in an abnormal location that will not allow fora normal delivery of the fetus. The cause of excessive pre-birth bleeding.

A

Placenta Previa.

51
Q

A condition in which the placenta separates from the uterine wall A cause of pre birth bleeding.

A

Abruptio Placentae.

52
Q

What is APGAR

A

It is a scoring system used to assess the neonate one minute after birth and again 5 minutes after birth.
Appearance
Pulse
Grimace
Activity
Respiratory Effort

53
Q

When the baby’s buttocks are both legs appear first doing birth.

A

breech presentation

54
Q

When an infant’s limb patrols from the vagina before the appearance of any other body part.

A

limb presentation

55
Q

Amniotic fluid that is greenish or brownish yellow rather than clear as a result of fetal defecation, an indication of possible maternal or fetal distress during labor.

A

Meconium staining

56
Q

When the umbilical cord wraps around the babys neck, either once or multiple times.

A

nuchal umbilical chord
treatment: cut chord immediately during birth

57
Q

When the umbilical cord presents first and exclusives between the Vaginal Wall and the baby’s head

A

Prolapse umbilical cord.
treatment:
1. position the mother head down, and pelvis raised with pillows and blanket
2. provide oxygen via nonrebreather
3. check cord for pulses
4. Insert several fingers into the vagina to push up baby’s head or buttocks
5.keep mother, child and EMT as a unit and transport rapidly and take vitals en route

58
Q

The process by which toxins and excess fluid are removed from the body by medical system independent of the kidneys.

A

Dialysis

59
Q

An abnormal connection between two body parts.

A

fistula

60
Q

How is BP affected by dialysis?

A

It can cause a drop in systolic blood pressure.

61
Q

Beta 1 vs Beta 2

A

Beta 1 are mostly found in the heart while Beta 2 are found in the lungs Gi tract and vascular
both help with signaling in the sympathetic nervous system

62
Q

when blood accumulates between skull and dura-mater

A

Epidural hematoma

63
Q

accumulation of blood between brain and dura-mater

A

subdural hematoma

64
Q

What scale is used to measure a person’s level of consciousness after a brain injury

A

GCS
1. Eye opening
2. Verbal response
3. Motor response

65
Q

A prehospital scale to access stroke probability

A

Cincinati stroke scale
1. Facial droop
2. Arm drift
3. Slurred speech

66
Q

A close head injury without detectible damage to the brain, complete recovery usually expected, but effects may linger for weeks, months, even years.

A

concussion

67
Q

When would an EMT use an Emergency Move?

A
  1. Scene is Hazardous
  2. Care of life-threatening conditions need repositioning
  3. You must reach other patients
68
Q

When should an EMT use a urgent move

A

Treatment can only be performed if the patient is moved
Factors at the scene cause patient decline

69
Q

When should an EMT use a non-urgent move

A

When there is no immediate threat to life

70
Q

Signs of adequate breathing

A

Rhythm: regular
Breath sounds: Present and equal
chest expansion: adequate and equal
effort of breathing: unlabored, normal
Depth: Adequate

71
Q

Signs of inadequate breathing

A

Rate: Above or below normal per age group
Rhythm: irregular
Quality of breath sounds: Diminished, unequal, or absent
Chest expansion: Inadequate or Unequal
Effort of breathing: Labored
Depth: shallow

72
Q

What does sunken and bulging fontanelle indicate

A

bulging=increased pressure inside the skull
Sunken=dehydration

73
Q

An upper airway infection that blocks breathing and has a distinctive barking cough (think of a seal barking)

A

Croup (laryngotracheobronchitis)

74
Q

A condition that happens when the small flap that covers the windpipe, swells and blocks air flow into the lungs.
If a kid is drooling and in respiratory distress.

A

Epiglottitis.

75
Q

Painless swelling under your skin, triggered by an allergy to animal dander, pollen, drugs, venom, food or medication.

A

Angioedema.

76
Q

Rules of suctioning

A
  1. Always use appropriate infection control procedures while suctioning
  2. Suction no more than 10 seconds at a time
  3. Place tip of catheter where you want to begin suctioning and suction on the way out
77
Q

When someone gets hit in the center of the chest, just when the heart is electrically vulnerable.

A

commotio cordis

78
Q

Parts of primary assessment

A

ABC’S and transport decision

79
Q

Parts of secondary assessment

A

Physical exam, patient history, vitals

80
Q

types of physical exam and when to use each

A

Rapid head to toe: use this for trauma assessment
Focused assessment (OPQRST): use this for trauma and medical assessment

81
Q

A handheld aerosol device that uses a propellant to deliver the therapeutic agent.

A

Metered dose inhaler (MDI)

82
Q

Treatment for asthma

A
  1. Ensure 5 rights
  2. Make sure the inhaler is not expired (prime MDI if needed)
  3. Make sure patient is alert
    4.Make sure patient exhales deeply first
  4. Insert inhaler (inhaled)
  5. After patient inhales instruct to hold breath for 5-10 seconds
  6. if medical control ordered more than 1 puff wait between 15-30 seconds per administration
83
Q

Oral glucose: route, dosage, indications and contraindications

A

Route: Oral
Dosage: 1 tube (24mg)
contra: Altered mental status, unable to swallow, unknown history of diabetes, unconscious
Inda: Known history of diabetes, able to swallow, conscious

84
Q

Aspirin route, dosage, indications, contraindications

A

Route: Oral chewed or swallowed
Dosage: 324mg or 4:81mg pills
Ind: Chest pain associated with acute coronary syndrome, patient is not allergic, able to swallow, isn’t on blood thinners.
Contra: Patient is on blood thinners, unable to swallow is allergic, Gi bleed, is allergic.

85
Q

Nitroglycerin dosage, route, indications contraindications

A

Route: Sublingual
Dosage: 0.4mg
Inda: Acute angina, ischemic chest discomfort, hypertension, heart failure, pulmonary edema
Contra: hypotension, hypovolemia, any erectile dysfunction medication

86
Q

Naloxone: dosage, route, indications contraindications

A

Dose:2-4 mg, peds 0.1mg max 2
route: intranasal, intramuscular
IND: Narcotic overdose, respiratory depression, coma of unknown origin
contra: hypersensitivity

87
Q

Epinephrine dose, route, ind, contra

A

Dose: adults 0.30mg of 1:1,000 Peds 0.15mg of 1:1,000
route: intramuscular
Indications: Anaphylaxis, Anaphylactic shock
Contraindications: Super ventricular tachycardia, Glaucoma

88
Q

zofran dose, route ind contra

A

Dose: 4mg
route: Oral
ind: Nausea, vomiting treatment or prevention
Contra: sensitivity to drug, , hypotension, and tachycardia

89
Q

Steps to extricate patient from MVC

A
  1. Prep for rescue
  2. Scene size up
  3. Recognizing and maintaining hazards
  4. Stabilizing vehicle prior to entering
  5. Gaining access to patient
  6. providing primary and rapid trauma assessment to patient
  7. Disentangling patient
  8. Immobilizing and extracting patient from vehicle
  9. Providing assessment, care and transport to most appropriate hospital
  10. Terminating the rescue
90
Q

Landing zone size for helicopter when do we use

A

LZ: 100 by 100 feet (30 large steps on each side) on ground that has a slope of less than 8 degrees
We use air rescue for:
Operational reasons: to speed transport to a distant trauma center, when extrication of a patient is prolonged, when a patient must be rescued from a remote location
Clinical reasons: high priority transport: Shock, chest trauma and respiratory distress, extensive burns, amputations to hand or foot, serious mechanism of injury

EMT (30 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions