final lecture exam Flashcards by Madyson pack

Compromised hosts are always suffering from a suppressed immune system T/F?

False

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A host is not considered diseased until an infection changes ones state of health T/F?

True

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Urinary tract infections are the most common forms of nosocomial infections T/F?

True

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Reservoirs of infections are always animate objects T/F?

False

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Which of the following statements is true?
A) a parasite is not in symbiosis with its host
B) Members of a symbiotic relationship cannot live without each other
C) At least one member must benefit in a symbiotic relationship

C) at least one member must benefit in a symbiotic relationship

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Which of the following diseases is not spread by droplet infection?
A) the common cold
B) botulism
C) Measles
D) diphtheria
E) tuberculosis

B) botulism

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Which of the following is NOT a communicable disease?
A) tetanus
B) tuberculosis
C) AIDS
D) malaria

A) tetanus

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Which of the following can contribute to postoperative infection?
A) normal microbiota on the operating room staff
B) antibiotic resistance
C) Using syringes more than once
D) Errors in aseptic technique
E) all of the answers are correct

E) all answers are correct

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In general the LD50 for exotoxins is much greater than the LD50 for endotoxins, T/F

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The M protein enhances the virulence of streptococcus by preventing phagocytosis T/F?

True

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Most symptoms of endotoxins can be treated with administration of anti-endotoxin antibodies, T/F?

False

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Infections with some viruses may induce chromosomal changes that alter the growth properties of host cells T/F?

True

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All of the following contribute to a pathogen's invasiveness EXCEPT...
A) capsules
B) Coagulases
C) Cell wall components
D) Hyaluronidase
E) toxins

E) toxins

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Endotoxins are ....
A) molecules that bind nerve cells
B) Part of the gram negative cell wall
C) Associated with gram-positive bacteria
D) A-B Toxins
E) Excreted from the cell

B) part of the gram negative cell wall

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Which of the following is NOT a membrane disrupting toxin?
A) Hemolysins
B) Streptolycin S
C) Leukocidin
D) A-B toxin
E) Streptolycin O

D) a-b toxin

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All of the following are examples of entry via parenteral route except
A) injection
B) bite
C) skin cut
D) Hair follicle
E) surgery

D) hair follicle

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Which of the following cytopathic effects is cytocidal?
A) antigenic changes
B) transformation
C) Giant cells
D) Release of enzymes from lysozomes
E) Inclusion bodies

D) release of enzymes from lysosomes

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Which of the following contributes to the virulence of a pathogen?
A) evasion of host defenses
B) numbers of microorganisms that gain access to a host
C) toxin production
D) Numbers of microorganisms that gain access to a host, evasion of host defenses and toxin production

D) Numbers of microorganisms that gain access to a host, evasion of host defenses and toxin production

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Microorganisms that are members of the normal microbiota are also known to cause disease T/F?

True

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The inflammatory response can only be triggered by an infection T/F?

False

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Complement proteins act as opsonins by binding to microorganisms and promoting phagocytosis T/F?

False

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An example of a TLR would be peptidoglycan found in the cell wall of gram positive bacteria T/F?

True

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Which of the following exhibits the highest phagocytic activity?
A) macrophages
B) erythrocytes
C) Neutrophils
D) Eosinophils

A) macrophages

A differential cell count is used to determine each of the following EXCEPT:
A) numbers of each type of white blood cell
B) The total number of white blood cell
C) The number of red blood cells
D) Leukopenia
E) Leukocytosis

C) the number of red blood cells

``` Each of the following is an effect of complement activation except: A) bacterial cell lysis B) interference with viral replication C) Opsonization D) Increased phagocytic activities ```

B) interference with viral replication`

``` Each of the following provides protection from phagocytic digestion EXCEPT: A) formation of phagolysosomes B) Biofilms C) Leukocidins D) M protein E) Capsules ```

A) formation of phagolysosomes

``` Innate immunity includes all of the following EXCEPT A) inflammation B) production of antibody C) Activation of compliment D) Phagocytosis E) Production of interferon ```

B) production of antibody

``` After ingesting a pathogen, lysosomal enzymes produces all of the following EXCEPT A) O2- B) H2O2 C) OH D) complement E) HOCl ```

D) complement

Granzymes kills cells by causing significant leakage of cellular contents T/F?

False

Cytokines are protein-based chemical messengers that allow for communication between cells of the immune system T/F?

True

The variable region of the antibody is responsible for the significant diversity of antigen targets T/F?

False

Memory cells do not require B cell receptors T/F?

False

When an antibody binds to a toxin, the resulting action is referred to as __________.

Neutralization

CD4+ T cells are activated by _______

Interaction between CD4+ and MHC II

Which of the following statements is false? A) the constant region of a heavy chain is the same for all antibodies B) The Fc region can attach to a host cell C) The variable region of a light chain contributes to antigen binding D) The variable region of a heavy chain contributes to antigen binding

A) the constant region of a heavy chain is the same for all antibodies

``` Which of the following WBCs are NOT lymphocytes A) NK cells B) Helper T cells C) B cells D) M cells E) Cytotoxic T cells ```

D) M cells

Cytokines released by Th1 cells-

Activate macrophages

Thymic selection -

Destroys T cells that do not recognize self molecules of MHC

An injection of “naked” DNA into muscle cells to induce an immune response against the proteins encoded by the DNA is an example of a subunit vaccine. T/F

FALSE

Blood typing tests are examples of hemagglutination reactions. T/F?

True

The home pregnancy test kit is an example of a direct ELISA. T/F?

True

Agglutination tests use particulate antigens while precipitation tests use soluble antigens. T/F?

True

``` Patient's serum, influenza virus, and red blood cells are mixed in a tube. What happens if the patient has antibodies against influenza virus? a) Agglutination b) Complement fixation c) Hemagglutination D) hemagglutination-inhibition ```

D) hemagglutination-inhibition

In an agglutination test, eight serial dilutions to determine antibody titer were set up. Tube #1 contained a 1:2 dilution; tube #2, a 1:4, etc. If tube #6 is the last tube showing agglutination, what is the antibody titer? a) 32 b) 6 c) 64 d) 1:32 e) 1:6

C) 64

A reaction between an antibody and soluble antigen-forming lattices is called a(n) a) Agglutination reaction. b) Complement fixation. c) Immunofluorescence. d) Precipitation reaction. e) Neutralization reaction.

A) agglutination reaction

A test used to detect anti-Rickettsia antibodies in a patient's serum is the a) Direct fluorescent-antibody test. b) Indirect fluorescent-antibody test. c) Southern Blotting d) Northern Blotting e) Polymerase Chain Reaction

b) Indirect fluorescent-antibody test.

A hybridoma results from the fusion of a(an) a) Antigen with an antibody. b) Antigen with a B cell. c) Myeloma cell with a virus. d) B cell with a myeloma cell. e) B cell with a T cell.

d) B cell with a myeloma cell.

An antibiotic that attacks the LPS layer would be expected to have a narrow spectrum of activity. T/F?

True

Undergrowth of fungi after antibiotic use is commonly referred to as a superinfection. T/F?

False

Penicillin and streptomycin are commonly used in synergism because they display the same mode of action. T/F?

False

Antiviral drugs target viral processes that occur during viral infection. T/F?

True

Penicillin was considered a "miracle drug" for all of the following reasons EXCEPT a) It has selective toxicity. b) It kills bacteria. c) It does not affect eukaryotic cells. d) It inhibits gram-positive cell wall synthesis e) It was the first antibiotic synthesized chemically.

e) It was the first antibiotic synthesized chemically.

Which of the following antibiotics is NOT bactericidal? a) Penicillin b) Cephalosporin’s c) Rifampin’s d) Polyenes e) Aminoglycosides

d) Polyenes

The antibiotic cycloheximide binds to the 60S subunit of the ribosome, as shown in Figure 1. The effect is to a) Prevent peptide bond formation in prokaryotes. b) Prevent ribosome formation in bacteria. c) Prevent mRNA-ribosome binding in eukaryotes. d) Prevent transcription in prokaryotes. e) Prevent polypeptide elongation in eukaryotes

E) prevent polypeptide elongation in eukaryotes

To date, most of our natural antibiotics have been found to be produced by members of what genus? a) Cephalosporium b) Streptomyces c) Bacillus d) Penicillium e) Paenibacillus

b) Streptomyces

The antimicrobial drugs with the broadest spectrum of activity are a) Chloramphenicol. b) Penicillin G. c) Aminoglycosides. d) Tetra-cyclines. e) Macrolides.

d) Tetra-cyclines.

``` Protozoan and helminthic diseases are difficult to treat because a) They do not reproduce. b) Their cells are structurally and functionally similar to human cells. c) They have more genes than bacteria. d) They replicate inside human cells. e) They do not have ribosomes. ```

b) Their cells are structurally and | functionally similar to human cells.