Final (lectures 19-30) Flashcards

(53 cards)

1
Q

what is the number one risk factor for acute septic arthritis involving Genococcus?

A

sexually active young adult

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is the key way to identify organisms with septic arthritis? what about GC?

A

The key way to identify is through joint fluid aspiration and identification. Note: some reactions like GC will not have organisms (but can) and therefore you will end up with a negative culture because its an immune reaction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are the first 2 steps in the management of septic arthritis?

A

1) drain the joint

2) start antibiotics as needed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

which organism is the #1 cause of osteomyelitis?

A

Staph. aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

how do you treat acute osteomyelitis? chronic osteomylitis?

A
acute= IV antibiotics for 4-6 weeks
chronic= surgical debridement + antibiotics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is the key feature the distinguishes spondyloarthritis for RA?

A

Enthesitis (inflammation where tendon attaches to the bone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

which disease group has the classic sausage fingers? Which 2 diseases within this grouping?

A

1) spondyloarthritis. It is called dactylitis and it forms beacuse of enthesitis.
2) Reactive arthritis and Psoriatic arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

4 major finding will be in the P.E. for ankylosing spondylitis which are?

A

1) tenderness to direct palpation of the joint
2) pain with movement of the hips
3) loss of ROM in the spine
4) abnormal schober test (spinal flexion less than 5cm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

vertebral squaring, bamboo spine, syndesmophyte formation, and sacroilitis (required for DX) are all describing the X ray images from which disease?

A

ankylosing spondylitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is 1st line treatment for ankylosing spondylitis?

A

NSAIDS. They alter the course of the disease.

steroid injections and Anti-TNF treatements would follow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

In lupus, which two antibody tests are the most specific? what happens to C3 and C4 levels?

A

1) most specific = Anti-dsDNA and Anti-Smith

2) C3 and C4 levels drop because they are being used up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

which 4 main drugs are used for lupus?

A

1) NSAIDS (symptoms)
2) Hydroxychloroquin (prevent flares)
3) Cyclophosphamide (for renal glomerulonephritis)
4) Corticosteroids (decrease inflammation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

T/F Patients with SLE should all receive coriticosteroids?

A

False. Many do but there are different levels depending on the severity.
FYI: [low dose (cutaneous), moderate dose (pleurisy or pericaditis), and high dose (glomerulonephritis and cerebritis)]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is podagra?

A

gout in the 1st MTP joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the 3 drugs given to treat acute gout?

A

1) NSAID
2) corticosteroids
3) colchicine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are the 4 criteria for treating hyperuricemia?

A

1) 1 gout attack with kidney disease
2) 2 or more gout attacks in a year
3) Tophi
4) history of urolithiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A patient comes in with symmetrical joint enlargement but NO redness and complains about stiffness worse in the morning…what should be your first thought for diagnosis?

A

R.A.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the best test for ruling in R.A. in a patient?

A

CCP antibody is the best test because it is so specific

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is first line treatment for R.A?

A

1) NSAIDS to help with the pain/inflammation followed by disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs) such as methotrexate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A patient is seen in clinic with 1) splenomegly 2) granulocytopenia 3) a + R.A factor for many years. What is now going on with this patient? What are they at an increased risk for?

A

1) the patient now has felty syndrome

2) increased risk for lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

If you see a red swollen joint in someone with R.A., what should you be thinking?

A

secondary infection because joints are never red in pure R.A.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

You give a TNF alpha inhibitor to a patient with R.A. What is a major risk factor for this treatment?

A

reactivation of T.B. or histoplasmosis

23
Q

what is first line treatment for the overall dryness associated with shogrens disease?

A

Pro cholinegrics: specifically pilocarpine

24
Q

You have a patient with PULMONARY HYPERTENSION presenting as progressive dyspnea. You also have the same patient with INCREASED RENIN levels because of decreased blood flow to the kidneys. These are both a DO NOT MISS for which disease?

A

systemic sclerosis

25
which disease presents with calcinosis, raynauds, esophageal dysmotility, sclerodactyly, and telangiectasias?
systemic sclerosis (this is the CREST syndrome)
26
what is the main symptom for idiopathic inflammatory myositis?
symmetrical proximal muscle weakness (mainly shoulder, hip and neck)
27
what are the 3 ways in which WBC's increase in the blood, and how fast does each happen?
1) demargination ( 2x increase in minutes) 2) mobilization (2x increase in hours) 3) proliferation (takes days to make in marrow)
28
what do you do if you have a patient with neutoropenia and a fever?
This is an emergency! (culture first then give antibiotics)
29
How quickly does the hematocrit drop if no new RBC's are being made?
1g/dl per week (1% daily)
30
what do you do if the history of a patient suggests iron deficiency?
Always first confirm with testing before treating
31
what disease do you have if both methlmalonate and homocysteine levels are elevated? high homocysteine levels only?
Both= B12 deficient | Homocysteine only= folate deficiency
32
what specific anti CD 20 drug is used to treat B cell lymphoma and CLL?
Rituximab
33
which drug specifically binds to the HER 2 receptor and is very useful in breast cancer?
Trastuzumab
34
which drug is used as anti-VEGF and for diabetic retinopathy?
Bevacizumab
35
which drugs end in "nib" such as Imatinib? which drugs end in "olimus"? which drugs end in "mid"?
Tyrosine kinase inhibitors=nib mTOR inhibitor=olimus immunomodulatory=mids
36
Cisplatin is known for causing severe nausea and vomiting with chemotherapy treatments. Which drug (that we should know) is very helpful for treating the nausea and vomiting associated with chemo?
Ondansetron
37
If you have a platelet problem, what type of bleeding is usually present?
mucocutaneous bleeding such as at the gums
38
what type of bleeding do you get when there is a problem with one of the essential clotting factors?
deep bleeding such as into the joints
39
The first test you do for a person with a clotting problem is a CBC, what do you do next?
PFA-100 (platelet function analyzer)
40
If you have a patient with very low platelets but a ton of active megakaryocytes and normal RBC's, which disease are we talking about?
Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura. (it is due to antibodies against the platelets with megakaryocytes trying to compensate)
41
Which disease has an adamts deficiency?
TTP (ADAMTS 13 cleaves VWF normally)
42
what is the most common cause of renal failure in kids? what is first line treatment?
1) HUS | 2) Dialysis and supportive care
43
How do you treat Hemophilia A?
``` #1) give DESMOPRESSIN which increased VWF. An increase in VWF results in an increase in factor 8. #2) give factor 8 concentrate. ```
44
What is first line treatment for Hemophilia B?
Give factor 9 concentrate
45
what are the 3 types of VWD?
type 1= low quantity type 2= low quality type 3= absent VWF
46
what is the most common cause of inherited thrombophilia?
factor V leiden (Its a point mutation that doesn't allow protein C to stop factor 5a)
47
Do anti phospholipid antibodies prolong or shorten clotting times?
Clotting cascade is lengthened, but in reality is causes more clotting.
48
what are the 4 major acquired risk factors for hyper-coagulability?
estrogen therapy pregnancy cancer antiphospholipid antibodies
49
If you have a blood clot, what is the first and second steps of treatment?
1) heparin or low molecular heparin for 5 days | 2) warfarin for 3-6 months
50
when do you order tests for thrombophilia? (3)
1) when the results could change the management of the disease. (young age, unprovoked, unusual site) 2) unexplained pregnancy loss 3) strong family history
51
when should you biopsy a lymph node?
any lymph node larger than 1cm that is not associated with infection and has persisted for at least 4 weeks.
52
where does Hodgkins lymphoma usually present? is it a B cell of T cell lyphoma?
1) it usually presents in the neck of the medistinum | 2) The reed sternberg cells are B cells (the malignant ones) and the rest are a bunch of benign T cells.
53
for lymphomas, what is key to making the correct diagnosis?
A biopsy of the node