Final Material and Drugs Flashcards
(320 cards)
1
Q
Which molecule has two rings?
A
Serotonin
2
Q
What molecule has two HO groups?
A
Dopamine
3
Q
What molecule has the most nitrogens (3)?
A
Histamine
4
Q
What molecule does not have a monoamine group?
A
Acetylcholine
5
Q
What would a dopamine beta hydroxylase insufficiency cause?
A
Less DA in the system
6
Q
What would a tryptophan hydroxylase insufficiency cause?
A
Less 5HT in the system
7
Q
What would a Pheochromocytoma cause symptom-wise?
A
Increased blood pressure, severe headaches, tremors, paleness and shortness of breath
8
Q
What would administration of propranolol cause?
A
Decreased Beta Sympathetics
9
Q
What degrades DA, NE and 5HT?
A
MAO
10
Q
What effect would an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor have in the body?
A
ACh increase
11
Q
What effect would a muscarinic antagonist have on the body?
A
ACh decrease
12
Q
What acts upon nicotinic receptors in the adrenal medulla?
A
Sympathetic preganglionic neurons
13
Q
What type of receptors do motor neurons act on in the body?
A
Nicotinic receptors
14
Q
What neurons release DA?
A
Postganglionic Sympathetic neurons
15
Q
What do preganglionic and parasympathetic fibers release?
A
ACh
16
Q
Postganglionic sympathetics fibers release?
A
NE
17
Q
Postganglionic parasympathetic fibers release?
A
ACh
18
Q
What does Bethanechol administration cause?
A
Increased acid secretion, decreased HR, GI contraction and Increased secretions (parasympathetic agonist effects)
19
Q
What is the effect of propranolol?
A
Beta 1 and 2 antagonist
20
Q
What is the effect of prazosin?
A
Alpha 1 antagonist
21
Q
What is the effect of pilocarpine?
A
Muscarinic agonist
22
Q
What is the effect of phenylephrine?
A
Alpha 1 agonist
23
Q
What is the effect of clonidine?
A
Alpha 2 agonist
24
Q
What is the effect of isoproterenol?
A
Beta 1 and Beta 2 agonist
25
What is used to treat bronchospasm, anaphylaxis, restores function in cardiac arrest, treats open-angle glaucomas and prolongs the action of local anesthetics?
Epinephrine
26
What is the best drug to treat chronic asthma?
Albuterol
27
What drug is a non-selective alpha antagonist that is used to treat pheochromocytomas and hypertensive emergencies?
Phentolamine
28
What is the effect of atenolol?
Beta 1 blocker
29
What is the effect of albuterol?
Beta 2 agonist
30
What would an alpha 1 agonist do in the body?
Contracts radial muscles, constricts GI sphincters and constricts vasculature (decongestant)
31
What would a beta 1 agonist do in the body?
Increase HR and conduction
32
What two types of drug would a doctor use for an eye exam?
1. Alpha 1 agonist or 2. Muscarinic antagonist
33
What drug is best used for uncomplicated abscence seizures, has a long half life, and is the best treatment for abscence seizures?
Ethosuximide
34
What anti-epileptic drug is a non-competitive antagonist of AMPA receptors?
Perampanel
35
What drug is best for treating partial seizures and bipolar disorder?
Carbamazepine
36
What drug is used to treat generalized tonic-clonic seizures, uncomplicated absence seizures, atypical absence seizures and simple/complex partial seizures?
Valproic Acid
37
What seizure type is associated with localized focus, minimal spread, short duration, and maintenance of normal awareness, conciousness and memory?
Simple Partial
38
What seizure type is associated with localized focus, minimal spread, short duration, and a loss of one or more of normal awareness, conciousness and memory?
Complex Partial
39
What seizure type is associated with generalized focus, possible spread, short duration, and loss of normal awareness, conciousness and memory and has tonic-clonic cycles?
Generalized Tonic-Clonic seizure
40
What seizure type is associated with children playing baseball or in class?
Generalized Absence
41
Sedative or ethanol withdrawal, metabolic and/or electrolyte imbalance and myoclonic seizures are all what?
Seizure precipitants
42
What antiseizure drug is associated with a non-dose dependent risk of gingival hyperplasia?
Phenytoin
43
What drug is used to treat partial seizures in combination with other drugs and is an anticonvulsant?
Tigabine
44
What is least likely to cause a degenerative CNS disorder?
Enhanced GABA receptor activity
45
What is enhanced NMDA receptor activity associated with?
Huntington's Disease
46
What does does the combo of L-dopa + carbidopa treat?
Parkinson's Disease
47
What drug is used for treating Schizophrenia, blocks D2 receptors and is inexpensive?
Haloperidol
48
What drug treats Parkinson's Disease and also restless Leg syndrome?
Pramipexole
49
What disease is associated with excess DA and less GABA activity?
Huntington's Disease
50
What disease is associated with damage to myelin sheaths around nerves?
Multiple Sclerosis
51
What disease is linked to 5HT and DA release and has a high genetic component?
Bipolar disorder
52
What disease is caused by extra stimulation of the fear and anxiety centers of the brain?
Major Anxiety disorder
53
What disease is associated with abnormal amyloid precursor protein, beta amyloid plaques, and neurofibrillary tangles?
Alzheimer's Disease
54
What disease is associated with Alpha Synuclein Lewy Bodies?
Parkinson's Disease
55
What disease is a mild disease of mood swings?
Cyclothymia
56
What types of diseases are considered Axis I?
Major psychological disorders like Schizophrenia
57
What types of diseases are considered Axis II?
Personality disorders and mental retardations
58
What types of diseases are considered Axis III?
Medical problems caused by trauma, accident, etc. that interfere with a patient's mental capacity.
59
What types of diseases are considered Axis IV?
Stresses from death, loss of job, etc. changes mental state.
60
What four things make a good prognosis for Shizophrenia?
1. Female, 2. Older, 3. No family history and 4. Positive symptoms
61
What drug is used to treat Parkinson's Disease and functions through COMT inhibition?
Entacapone
62
What drug treats Shizophrenia and is an atypical D2 and 5HT2A antagonist?
Clozapine
63
What drug treats Schizophrenia and is a phenothiazine that is a D2 antagonist?
Clorpromazine
64
What drug treats Bulimia and is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor drug?
Fluoxetine
65
What drug treats Multiple Sclerosis and is an anti-inflammatory steroid?
Prednisone
66
What drug treats Bipolar mania and also functions as an antiseizure medication?
Carbamazepine
67
What drug treats Bipolar mania and functions by altering G proteins?
Lithium Carbonate
68
What drug treats severe anxiety and acts as an agonist at benzodiazepine receptors?
Alprazolam
69
What drug treats severe anxiety and is a non-addicting substitute for sedatives?
Bupropion
70
What drug treats ADHD and is a DAT and/or NET blocker but mostly a non-stimulant?
Modafinil
71
What drug treats Alzheimer's disease and is a cholinesterase inhibitor?
Donepezil
72
What drug is SSRI that treats depression, anxiety and other mood disorders?
Sertraline
73
What anti Alzheimer's drug eventually worsens the patient's memory instead of improving it?
Benztropine
74
How does an Alzheimer's drug worsen a patient's memory?
From its anticholinergic activity
75
What drug of abuse is most likely to be neurotoxic due to its ability to dramatically alter the intracellular and extracellular release patterns of DA?
Methamphetamine
76
What illegal drug functions by hijacking opioid receptors in the brain, releasing DA, and functioning as an analgesic to the body?
Heroin
77
What drug functions by releasing DA, attaches to acetylcholine receptors and mimicks the effects of ACh?
Nicotine
78
What drug treats ADHD and Narcolepsy and is a stimulant?
Methylphenidate
79
What genetic factor can predispose individuals to Cocaine addiction?
Diminished activity of D2 receptors
80
What drug treats nerve and muscle pain created by diabetes?
Pregabalin (Lyrica)
81
What NSAID is associated with stomach discomfort and bleeding?
Aspirin
82
What drug is a NSAID that is a selective COX 2 inhibitor?
Celecoxib
83
What is considered to be a modulating receptor on the free endings of sensory nerves?
Prostaglandin Receptors
84
What type of pain occurs without the activation of receptors on free endings of sensory nerve terminals?
Neuropathic Pain
85
What type of pain typically responds to NSAIDs?
Somatic Pain
86
What type of pain typically responds to Opioid narcotic analgesics?
Visceral pain
87
Where is the plexus of Rashchkow located?
Dental pulp
88
What nerve fibers are small, myelinated and are associated with sharp localized pain?
A (delta) fibers
89
What nerve fibers are small and non-myelinated and are associated with dull, diffuse pain?
C fibers
90
Which fiber, A (delta) or C, conducts pain impulses faster?
A (delta)
91
Nociceptors on the free endings of nerves are associated with which process of nociception?
Transduction
92
What type of COX is associated with prostaglandin-mediated inflammation/pain?
COX 2
93
What is the natural opioid peptides that activate kappa opioid receptors?
Dynorphins
94
What type of drug is Indomethacin?
NSAID analgesic
95
What type of drug is Diflunisal?
NSAID analgesic
96
What type of drug is Naprosyn?
NSAID analgesic
97
What type of drug is Meperidine?
Narcotic Pain reliever
98
What is the most potent narcotic analgesic?
Fentanyl
99
What are four common side effects to taking potent narcotic analgesics?
1. Constipation, 2. Reduced pulmonary reflex, 3. Additive/synergistic with CNS depressants and 4. Euphoria
100
What term describes disordered, unregulated cell proliferation without maturation?
Dysplasia
101
What term describes replacement of one cell type with another?
Metaplasia
102
When a patient experiences breathing problems associated with pulmonary edema, dyspnea while laying down and has a normal sized liver, what heat condition is the most likely cause?
Left-sided heart failure
103
What condition is associated with shortness of breath, swelling of the feet/hands, urinating, weakness, fatigue and prominent neck veins?
Right-sided heart failure
104
What is the term that describes squeezing feeling, tightness and pain in the chest?
Angina Pectoralis
105
The facts that 10-20% of patients experience no pain, the majority of these patients experience pulmonary edema, and that this symptom is often associated with a mural thrombus describe which pathology?
Myocardial Infarction
106
What term describes cardiac contraction rates above 100 bpm?
Tachy-arrhythmias
107
What is the most common ineffective cardiac contraction?
Atrial fibrillation
108
What is elevated blood pressure due to a pheochromocytoma referred to as?
Secondary hypertension
109
What four things are compensations for congestive heart failure?
1. Cardiohypertrophy, 2. Increase in stroke volume, 3. Increased catecholamine activity and 4. Tachycardia
110
Retrosternal chest pain that occurs during exertion and resolves 2-5 minutes afterwards and last for over six months describes what condition?
Fixed (stable) atherosclerotic stenosis of a coronary artery
111
What coronary pathology is usually asymptomatic until it ruptures and can cause death?
Coronary thrombosis
112
What pathology is associated with anxiety and feelings of doom, fainting, sweating, nausea, pallor, rapid weak pulse, and orthopnea (trouble breathing while laying down)?
Aortic Dissection
113
What pathology is associated with shortness of breath, sharp chest pain, rapid heart rate, rapid breathing, coughing up blood/pink foamy mucus and heart palpitations?
Pulmonary embolus
114
What pathology is associated with palpitations, weakness, reduced ability to exercise, lightheadedness and confusion and often does not have symptoms?
Atrial Fibrillation
115
What type of infection is related to valvular heart disease?
Streptococcal infections
116
What is the danger of endocarditis?
Fatal Thromboemboli
117
What type of premature beat is less dangerous?
Atrial
118
What can cause Bradycardia?
Cardiac conduction blocks
119
What causes tachy-arrhythmias?
Multiple ectopic foci
120
What is the major risk of atrial fibrillation?
Stroke-causing emboli
121
What are cardiac arrhythmias often associated with?
Congestive Heart Failure
122
What anti-arrhythmia drug is not the first choice for treatment due to having a short half-life and potential toxicity?
Procainamide
123
What is the drug of choice for ventricular arrhythmias?
Amiodarone
124
What drug treats heart failure due to its ability to reduce heart rate and block sympathetic nervous system activity?
Metoprolol
125
What drug treats heart failure and helps the heart to pump blood?
Dobutamine
126
What drug treats high blood pressure, treats heart failure, is used after heart attacks and protects the kidneys from diabetic problems?
Captopril
127
What drug treats high blood pressure, treats heart failure and is a vasodilator?
Hydralazine
128
What drug treats congestive heart failure and heart arrhythmias?
Digitalis
129
What drug is a more potent loop diuretic than hydrochlorthiazide?
Furosemide
130
What drug is known as an osmotic diuretic?
Mannitol
131
What drug is known as a Calcium channel blocker?
Diltiazem
132
What drug is known for being an ACE inhibitor?
Captopril
133
If a patient has a high cholesterol and high triglyceride level, what drug is most likely prescribed to treat this condition?
Lovastatin
134
What drug treats high cholesterol and high triglycerides with a good diet (its slow)?
Fenofibrate (Fenobrate)
135
What drug treats high cholesterol levels and relieves severe itching caused by liver disease?
Cholesteramine
136
What drug lowers high cholesterol levels in the blood and is often prescribed with statins?
Exetimibe
137
What condition is associated with smooth muscle hypertrophy and hyper-inflated lungs?
Asthma
138
What is fibrosing lung disease often associated with?
Rheumatoid arthritis
139
What is associated with the destruction of elastin and muscles of the pulmonary bronchial walls?
Cystic fibrosis
140
What drug is described as a "controller" agent and is most likely to be prescribed as the primary drug for regular use to treat long-term stable moderate to severe asthma?
Fluticasone
141
What drug is used to treat asthma and other lung problems such as emphysema and on-going bronchitis and is a bronco-dilator?
Theophylline
142
What drug prevents asthma attacks and treats allergies?
Mentelukast
143
What drug prevents asthma attacks, reduces lung inflammation and is used right before exposure to inducers of bronchospasms?
Cromolyn
144
What drug treats asthma, brochitis, other breathing problems and is a bronchodilator?
Albuterol
145
What is responsible for the majority of renal/ureter stones?
Calcium Oxalate
146
What is the most common cause of kidney stones?
Not drinking enough water
147
Flank pain, 10-20% result in kidney failure, and often results in kidney scarring are all symptoms of what pathology?
Pyelonephritis
148
What is the most frequent drug treatment of bacterial cystitis or urethritis?
Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole
149
What are the majority of renal cancers?
Renal Cell carcinomas
150
What time period of complete urinary tract obstruction by a stone typically causes permanent kidney damage?
3 weeks
151
Which gender has more trouble with bladder infections?
Females
152
Which thrombi treatment drug is a platelet aggregate inhibitor?
Clopidagrel
153
Which thrombi treatment drug dissolves an established clot?
Streptokinase
154
Which thrombi treatment drug is used to treat a heparin overdose?
Protamine
155
Which thrombi treatment drug is antagonized by vitamin K?
Warfarin
156
Which thrombi treatment drug has actions similar to heparin?
Enoxaparin
157
What type of stone is related to magnesium ammonium phosphate?
Struvite
158
The second most common kidney stone (10-15%), must acidify urine pH to treat, TMP-SMX is given as a treatment and higher commonality in females than males all describes what condition?
Struvite kidney stones
159
What disease is associated with chronic nervousness, weight loss, hot and sweaty, heart beats rapidly, thyroid enlargement and a high free T4 score?
Graves disease
160
What disease is caused by viral infection, causes hyperthyroidism first, then hypothyroidism, is self-limited and is treated with NSAIDs?
DeQuervain Disease
161
What disease is an autoimmune disease, is the number one cause of hypothyroidism in the US, and usually affects middle-aged women?
Hashimoto disease
162
What disease is associated with slow growth (over decades), is related to iodine deficiency and can be treated with radioactive iodine therapy?
Nodular goiter
163
What disease is caused by an autonomous thyroid, causes hyperthyroidism and is the 2nd most common cause of hyperthyroidism in the US?
Toxic nodule
164
What is the best treatment of Graves disease?
Beta blocker and radioactive iodine
165
If there is less Calcium in the blood than there should be, what is likely not functioning?
Parathyroid glands
166
What is the most common cause of hypercalcemia in the blood?
Parathyroid adenoma
167
What causes a patient to develop a large tongue and jaws, have space between mandibular teeth, a low voice, failing eyesight and large hands?
Anterior pituitary adenoma
168
What pathology is associated with a fractured bone and plasma cells becoming cancerous?
Multiple myeloma
169
What pathology is associated with a lowered body temperature, mental deterioration, seizures, stupor and hypoglycema?
Hypothalamic infarct
170
What pathology results in far less hormone production and is often related to brain trauma?
Posterior pituitary insufficiency
171
What disease results in weight gain around the stomach, fat loss from the arms and legs, fat deposits on the neck, and results from too much steroid use/too much cortisol?
Cushing's disease
172
What pathology is associated with severe headaches, bouts of hypertension, high 24-hour catecholamines in the urine and a growth in the adrenal cortex?
Adrenal cortical adenoma
173
What pathology is associated with darkening of the skin, reduced sex drive, stomach pain and results from the adrenal glands not producing enough hormones?
Addison's disease
174
What three things are associated with insulin activity?
1. Reduce HbA1c, 2 .Connected with C-peptide in its presursor form and prevents glucosuria
175
What type of diabetes has diuresis, severe abnormal lipid metabolism, no insulin, long-term increased risk of atherosclerosis and hypertension, and has increased risk of periodontal disease?
Type I
176
What type of diabetes has insulin receptors that are resistant to activation, diuresis, increased thirst, long-term increased risk for atherosclerosis and hypertension and increased risk of periodontal disease?
Type II
177
What type of diabetes are insulin receptors resistant, diuresis and increased thirst?
Gestational diabetes
178
What type of diabetes has diuresis and increased thirst?
Diabetes Insipidus
179
What drug is a sulfonylurea that increases the release of insulin from Beta cells?
Todbutamide
180
What drug diminishes fat absorption in intestines?
Orlistat
181
What drug helps with rapid onset and early peak action insulin?
Lispro
182
What drug reduces insulin resistance in muscle cells?
Rosiglitazone
183
What drug is a biguanide that decreases glucose production in the liver?
Metformin
184
What drug slows digestion and absorption of starch and disaccharides from intestines?
Acarbose
185
What drug is a weight-reduction drug that is thought to suppress appetite by stimulating the 5HT2c receptors in the hypothalamus?
Lorcaserin
186
What drug is used in diet plans to reduce weight?
Phentermine
187
What disease is associated with hyper-pigmentation of the skin, is associated with weight loss, is often associated with a deficiency in aldosterone, is frequently treated with prednisone and is worsened by the administration of mifepristone?
Addison's disease
188
What drug is a monoclonal antibody used to treat excessive bone loss?
Denosumab
189
What drug treats/prevents osteoporosis/Paget's disease?
Alendronate
190
What drug is used to treat motion sickness, nausea, vomiting, dizziness, allergies and to relieve stress before a surgery?
Promethazine
191
What drug treats inflammation in many medical situations and is a corticosteroid?
Dexamethasone
192
What disease is associated with slow closure of the draining canals of the aqueous humor, accounts for 90% of its cases, has a predilection in African Americans and has diabetes and high blood pressure as risk factors?
Open-angle Glaucoma
193
Being a diabetic, aging and being a construction worker all predispose you for what disease?
Cataracts
194
What disease almost never occurs before 50 years of age, has fast progression if hemorrhage and fluid buildup are associated with it, has bevacizumab as a treatment of its "wet" form and is the most common cause of severe loss of sight in patients over 60 years of age?
Age-related macular degeneration of the eye
195
What percentage of breast cancer is found with a mammograph?
85%
196
What disease is more likely to occur in women with a history of breast cysts, has no apparent racial link and has BRCA 1 and 2 as the most common genes associated with this condition?
Breast carcinoma
197
What are the survival rates of stage 0 breast cancer vs. stage IV?
92% and 13%
198
Endometrial polyps and endometrial adenocarcinomas are both linked to which pre-disposing factor?
Obesity
199
What drug is a nonsteroidal estrogen that causes increased CNS excitability, maintains skin elasticity and increases pigmentation around the eyes?
Diethylstilbesterol
200
What drug is associated with multiple birth pregnancies?
Clomiphene
201
What autoimmune disease is associated with ulcers and carditis?
Rheumatoid Arthritis
202
What disease results from pyogenic infections often caused by staph aureus?
Osteomyelitis
203
TB + Osteomyelitis is called what?
Pott disease
204
What term describes abnormal keratinization deep within the skin?
Dyskeratosis
205
What term describes elevated dome or flat topped
Papule
206
What term describes flat and circumscribed discolored area
Macule
207
What term describes fluid-filled raised area >5 mm?
Bulla
208
What term describes diffuse epidermal hyperplasia?
Acanthosis
209
What term describes elevated dome >5 mm?
Nodule
210
What term describes traumatic breakage of the skin?
Excoriation
211
What term describes hypersensitivity-related hives in response to antigens?
Uticaria
212
What disease is treated with immunosuppressant drugs, is associated with well-marked pink to salmon colored plaques and can be accompanied by increased heart attacks?
Psoriasis
213
What are four side effects to taking lots of COX 1/2 inhibitors?
1. Hypertension, 2. Altered liver function, 3. Asthma and 4. Renal insufficiency
214
What drug is a muscle relaxant that is classified as a desensitizing nicotinic ganglionic blocker?
Succinylcholine
215
What drug treats muscle spasms, brain/spinal cord injuries, and symptoms of malignant hyperthermia?
Dantrolene
216
What drug treats muscle spasms related to MS, cerebral palsy and damage to brain/spinal cord?
Baclofen
217
What medication is used to treat resistant VZV in shingles should the first drug not work and can be used to prevent CMV in HIV patients?
Foscarnet
218
What medication treats HSV, shingles and VZV, but is usually used for HSV during prodrome?
Acyclovir
219
What drug treats many viruses, but also results in quick resistance?
Famcyclovir
220
What serious side effect can isotretinoin treatment lead to?
Birth defects
221
What is an Ames test?
Determines how carcinogenic a chemical is
222
What disease is typically found in younger patients and is associated with Reed-Sternberg cells?
Hodgkin's lymphoma
223
What disease is a very aggressive non-Hodgkin's lymphoma of B lymphocytes with a poor prognosis?
Burkitt's Lymphoma
224
What disease is associated with elevated HCG?
Choriocarcinoma
225
What disease is a mesenchymal cancer typically found in AIDS patients?
Kaposi's sarcoma
226
What disease is a malignant tumor of columnar cells and is able to form glands?
Adenoid carcinoma
227
What disease is the leading cause of cancer-induced deaths in the US?
Lung cancer
228
What drug is a tyrosine hydroxylase inhibitor used to treat multiple types of cancer such as myelogenous leukemia?
Imatinib
229
What type of drugs can pass through the BBB?
Nitrosoureases
230
What drug is a folic acid analog that interferes with formation of key DNA in cancer cells such as those associated with breast cancer?
Methyltrexate
231
What drug is a natural product that interferes with tubulin polymerization and is used to treat cancer?
Vincristine
232
What secondary cancer is most likely to occur from using alkylating agents?
Myelogenous leukemia
233
What is the most common cancer in children?
Acute lymphoblast leukemia (ALL)
234
What cannot be associated with reflux esophagitis?
Barrett esophagus
235
What most often is the cause of chronic gastritis?
HSV
236
What disease is a congenital defect associated with auto-immune gastritis?
Hirschsprung disease
237
What is not associated with dental defects and delayed eruption of teeth?
Celiac disease
238
What disease is associated with a more consistent expression in the intestines?
Ulcerative colitis
239
What population is more likely to have reflux esophagitis?
Young adults
240
Where do most hepatotoxic events occur?
Near the central hepatic vein
241
Hep A and E are acute or chronic?
Acute
242
What is fibrosis of the liver most likely to cause?
Cirrhosis
243
What causes Wilson's disease?
Copper metabolic defect
244
What two drugs are OTC drugs used to treat acid reflux?
1. Cimetidine and 2. Ranitidine
245
What drug is ineffective at treating GERD?
Aluminum salts
246
What proton pump inhibitor is combined with an H2 blocker to treat peptic ucler disease?
Omeprazole
247
What is a fast acting smooth muscle stimulant used to treat constipation?
Bisacodyl
248
What drug principally treats stomach cramps?
Loperamine
249
What is an FDA-approved drug used to treat constipation associated with irritable bowel syndrome?
Linaclotide
250
What drug would be used to treat constipation in a normal individual?
Docusate
251
What three drugs could be used to treat excessive diarrhea?
1. Atropine, 2. Loperamide and 3. Bismuth subsalicylate
252
What is first order clearance?
When a drug is cleared from the body based on its concentration in the body rather than being constant
253
What term describes the idea that toxins cannot be cleared faster than it collects in an organism?
Bioaccumulation
254
What term describes the idea that toxins accumulate in higher organisms?
Biomagnification
255
What are the four dangerous heavy metals?
1. Pb, 2. Hg, 3. Arsenic and 4. Cadmium
256
What percentage of lead do adults and children absorb of lead?
10-15% for adults and 50% for children
257
What dictates the effectiveness of a chelator?
Its time to halflife - shorter = better
258
What intraoral sign is indicative of lead poisoning?
Burtonian lines
259
What chelating agent can be used for lead poisoning?
EDTA
260
What causes mercury to be poisonous?
Its interactions with Selenium
261
What intraoral symptom can indicate mercury exposure?
Gingivostomatitis
262
Should Hg be inhaled, what would be the treatment?
IV hydrocortisone
263
What is the acute chelating agent of Hg?
Dimercaprol
264
What are the two long-term Hg chelating agents?
1. Succimer and 2. unithiol
265
Why is dimercaprol avoided in chronic cases?
Causes renal toxicity
266
What causes fatigue, renal failure, anemia, hyperpigmentation, lung cancer, skin cancer, bladder cancer and is hemolytic to RBCs?
Arsenic
267
How does arsenic poisoning work?
Blocks enzymes/transduction
268
What is the treatment for acute arsenic intoxication?
Chelators for 4-6 hours if at all suspected
269
What is the treatment for chronic arsenic intoxication?
Supportive care and folates - no use for chelators
270
What is the treatment for acute arsine gas intoxication?
Hemodialysis - chelators ineffective
271
What do chelators do to work on heavy metals?
Bind ions to make them unavailable for covalent interactions
272
What makes chelators less effective?
Longer half lives
273
What is used to treat both Arsenic and Hg poisoning, but not Pb poisoning?
Dimercaprol
274
Why is dimercaprol not used as a monotherapy in chronic
It pulls Pb from the bone and travels to the brain and is toxic
275
What is a safer, FDA-approved chelator that can be used for Pb, Hg and As?
Succimer
276
What chelator is approved for Pb poisoning only?
EDTA
277
What are the four ideals of biocompatibility for dental materials?
1. Pulp safe, 2. No systemic toxins, 3. No allergies and 4. No carcinogenic potential
278
What step in amalgam restoration releases the most Hg?
Dry polishing - its hardly done these days anyways
279
What makes adequate ventilation and exhaust fans essential in the lab?
Working with Be or Ni
280
What prevents O2 use and ATP production in cells by inhibiting cytochrome C?
Cyanide
281
What is the antidote for cyanide?
Hydroxycobalamin
282
What are the major five phases of drug testing?
1. Animal testing, 2. Phase one - small healthy group, 3. Phase two - Small group with conditions to test safety, 4. Phase III extended clinical phase - large groups, double blind, etc. and 5. Marketing (phase four)
283
What are the three non-prescription drug categories?
1. I - safe and effective, 2. II - unsafe or ineffective and 3. III - not sure - needs more study
284
What two types of OTC decongestants exist?
Topical and systemic
285
What are the pros and cons of systemic decongestants?
Increase BP, but longer-acting
286
What are the pros and cons of topical decongestants?
Less systemic problems, more likely to cause dependence-tolerance, shorter acting but more effective
287
Diphenhydramine, Chlorpheniramine and Loratidine are all used to treat what?
Allergies
288
Codeine, Diphenhydramine and Dextromethorphan are all used to treat what?
Coughs
289
What is the one expectorant we need to know?
Guaifenesin
290
What is a demulcent?
Cough drops/syrupy products - they coat the throat to reduce irritation
291
What is an OTC for treating cold sores?
Docosanol
292
What are the two caffeine products we need to know?
1. Xanthine and 2. Vivarin
293
What are the three effects of caffeine?
1. Constrict cerebral vessels, 2. Gastric increased secretion and 3. mild diuretic
294
What are Diphenhydramine and Doxylamine used for?
Antihistamines - used in sleep aid
295
What drug is used for vaginal thrush?
Miconazole
296
What is the medication we learned for bug bites and itches?
Hydrocortisone
297
What is an anticholinergic for motion sickness that we learned without side effects?
Scopolamine
298
What is an anticholinergic for motion sickness that we learned with dry mouth, constipation, blurred vision and reduced urinating?
Dimenhydrinate
299
What hair growth drug also is a vasodilator that causes a rapid heart beat?
Minoxidil
300
What type of ligand is marijuana?
Anandamide
301
What marijuana analog is promoted as antiseizure, but is not as addicting has THC?
Cannabidiol
302
What herb is supposed to help with depression?
St. John's Wort
303
What herb is supposed to help treat colds?
Echinacea
304
What dietary supplement is supposed to aid in constipation?
Garlic
305
What herb slowly lowers cholesterol?
Ginko
306
What herb is supposed to promote memory?
Ginseng
307
What does a.c. mean in a prescription form?
Before meals
308
What does ad. lib. mean in a prescription form?
Use freely
309
What does aq mean in a prescription form?
Water
310
What does bis mean in a prescription form?
twice (bid means twice a day)
311
What does c.f. mean in a prescription form?
With food
312
What does dc mean in a prescription form?
Discontinue
313
What does noct mean in a prescription form?
At night
314
What does p.c. mean in a prescription form?
After meals
315
What does p.o. mean in a prescription form?
By mouth
316
What does prn mean in a prescription form?
As needed
317
What does q mean in a prescription form?
Every
318
What does s mean in a prescription form?
Without
319
What does sig mean in a prescription form?
Write on the label
320
What does stat mean in a prescription form?
Immediately
