Quiz Three Material Flashcards

(62 cards)

1
Q

What is Metaplasia?

A

Replacement of one cell type with another

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2
Q

What is Dysplasia?

A

Disordered hyperplasia without maturation

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3
Q

What term describes the enhanced odds of getting a tumor from hyperplasia?

A

Preneoplastic

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4
Q

What is ischemia?

A

Inadequate circulation

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5
Q

What causes swelling in injured cells?

A

Loss of the Na pump

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6
Q

What two cellular signals can result in apoptosis?

A
  1. Fas or 2. TNF
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7
Q

What is the word for necrosis that causes the nucleus to become shriveled and dark?

A

Nuclear pyknosis

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8
Q

What is the word for necrosis that causes the nucleus to become digested and light?

A

Karyolysis

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9
Q

What is the word for necrosis that causes the nucleus to become fragmented?

A

Karyorrhexis

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10
Q

What sort of change in the liver would correspond to alcoholism, obesity, starvation and toxins?

A

Fatty changes

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11
Q

What sort of change in the liver would correspond to diabetes, glycogen storage disease and certain tumors?

A

Glycogen accumulation

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12
Q

What two diseases are linked to lipid storage in the liver?

A

Fabry’s and Gaucher’s

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13
Q

What are the three brown storage products?

A
  1. Lipofuscin, 2. Bilirubin and 3. Hemosiderin
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14
Q

What term describes too much fluid in the peritoneal space?

A

Ascites

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15
Q

What disease is associated with an increased end diastolic volume resulting in an increased stroke volume?

A

Frank Starling

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16
Q

What are the four causes of left sided heart failure?

A
  1. Ischemic heart disease, 2. Hypertension, 3. Aortic/mitral valve disease and 4. myocardial disease (cardiomyopathy or myocarditis)
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17
Q

What is the word for breathlessness?

A

Dyspnea

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18
Q

What describes Orthopnea (3)?

A
  1. Dyspnea while lying down, 2. reflection of vascular congestion and 3. develops quickly
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19
Q

What is paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea?

A

Extreme dyspnea caused from heart failure while lying down

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20
Q

What effect does left-sided heart failure have on the kidneys?

A

Prerenal azotemia (high BUN with normalish creatinine) and ischemic tubular necrosis

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21
Q

What is Prinzmetal’s angina?

A

Angina that occurs at rest, is brief/reversible and has ST-segment elevation/depression

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22
Q

What drugs target the proximal convoluted tubules?

A

Acetazolamides (carbonic anhydrase inhibitors)

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23
Q

What two drugs are loop diuretics?

A
  1. Furosemide and 2. Bumetanide
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24
Q

What are two side effects of loop diuretics?

A

Hypokalemia and inhibit NSAIDs

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25
What are the two Thiazide diuretics?
1. Hydrochlorothiaide and 2. Chlorthalindone
26
What are the two side effects of Thiazide diuretics?
1. Hypokalemia and 2. inhibit NSAIDs
27
Where do Potassium-sparing diuretics effect?
Collecting tubule
28
Where do Thiazides effect?
Proximal convoluted tubule
29
What are the two Potassium-sparing drugs that we need to know?
1. Spironolactone and 2. Amiloride
30
Why is Mecamylamine rarely used?
It shuts down Nicotinic receptors - irrespective of their location
31
What is the MOA for Guanethidine?
Inhibits release of NE
32
What are the two B1 blockers?
1. Atenolol and 2. Metoprolol
33
What are the two non-selective B blockers?
1. Propanolol and 2. Nadolol
34
What are the two beta + alpha 1 blockers?
1. Labetalol and 2. Carvedilol
35
What are the two alpha one blockers?
1. Prozosin and 2. Terazosin
36
What are the two non-selective A blockers?
1. Phentolamine and 2. Phenoxybenzamine
37
What are two side effects to using Alpha one blockers?
1. Orthostatic hypotension and 2. Nasal congestion
38
What drug releases NO from the drug into the endothelium?
Hydralazine
39
What three drugs reduce Ca influx?
1. Verapamil, 2. Diltiazem and 3. Nifedipine
40
What drug causes the hyperpolization of smooth muscles by opening K channels (and causes hair growth)?
Minoxidil
41
What are the five vasodilators?
1. Hydralazine, 2. Verapamil, 3. Diltiazem, 4. Nefidipine and 5. Minoxidil
42
What is the name of the ACE inhibitor that we need to know?
Captopril
43
What is the Angiotensin II Inhibitor we need to know?
Losartan
44
What should be used as a short-acting treatment of angina?
Amyl Nitrate
45
What three drugs are Ca channel blockers?
1. Verapamil, 2. Nifedipine and 3. Diltiazem
46
What are the three statins we need to know?
1. Lovastatin, 2. Atorvastin and 3. Simvastatin
47
What drug is a Fibrate?
Fenobrate
48
What anti-cholesterol drug has toxicity and mild flushing as side effects?
Niacin
49
What drug is associated with the bile acid-binding agents and is used to treat high cholesterol?
Cholesteramine
50
What drug may aid in weight loss, is used to treat high cholesterol, and blocks the intestine from absorbing cholesterol?
Ezetimibe
51
What drug can be used to treat heart disease?
Digitalis
52
What drug acts like foxglove?
Bipyridines (Milrinone)
53
What B1 adrenoceptor agonist helps counter heart attacks?
Dobutamine
54
Which diuretic can be used to treat heart attacks?
Furosemide
55
What ACE inhibitor is a prototype drug for the treatment of heart attacks?
Captopril
56
Which vasodilator is used to treat heart attacks?
Hydralazine
57
Which B-adrenoceptor blocker can help with heart attacks?
Metoprolol
58
What antiarrhythmic drug functions by blocking Na channels (Class 1)?
Procainamide
59
What antiarrhythmic drug functions by similar functions to a class 1 drug (Class 2)?
Quinidine
60
What antiarrhythmic drug is the first choice for ventricular arrhythmias (Class 3)?
Lidocaine
61
What antiarrhythmic drug functions by prolonging refractory periods (Class 3)?
Amiodarone
62
What two antiarrhythmic drugs function by blocking Ca channels (Class 4)?
1. Verapamil and 2. Diltiazem