Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

cbe 235 > FINAL PRACTICE QUESTIONS > Flashcards

FINAL PRACTICE QUESTIONS Flashcards

1
Q

The formation of disulfide bonds depends on which chemical environment?

A

Oxidizing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the four descriptors of a plasmid?

A

Small DNA, Extrachromosomal, Autonomously-replicating, Circular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the melting temperature of a primer with the sequence 5’-GATAGCACCATCGTCAG-3’

A

52 degrees C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Antibiotics are added to solid culture medium for plating bacteria transformed with recombinant plasmids to

A

prevent nontransformed bacteria from yielding colonies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What components are needed for the synthesis of cDNA?

A

Reverse transcriptase, Deoxynucleoside triphosphates, a poly-thymidine phosphate synthetic oligonucleotide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is NOT a feature that is shared by both prokaryotes and eukaryotes?

A

Endoplasmic Reticulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which properties of tRNA contribute to the degeneracy of the code

A

-Structure of the anticodon loop
-Incorporation of inosine in tRNA
-Attachment of the same amino acid to different tRNAs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is NOT an important element of an expression vector to be used in yeast cells following gene cloning by ligation?

A

A promoter compatible with E.Coli

(A selectable marker that is compatible with E.Coli, a promoter compatible with yeast, and an origin of replication compatible with yeast are needed)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

In Mendel’s experiment, he demonstrated that a daughter plant could pass on either parent’s allele to its offspring (but not both parents) lends support to which principle?

A

Discrete particle model

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The synonym for the + strand of DNA is

A

coding strand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is a post-translational modification that might occur to a protein secreted from a eukaryotic cell?

A

Glycosylation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A major advantage of translation-level control of gene expression compared to transcription-level control is

A

Faster response is possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is an advantage of solid phase synthesis over solution phase synthesis?

A

Easy removal of reactants between steps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In prokaryotic cells, the small ribosomal subunit is positioned at the start codon largely due to

A

base pairing between the Shine-Dalgarno sequence and rRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

In experiments performed by Avery. Macleod, and McCarty, depletion of which component in extracts from “smooth type” pneumonia-causing bacteria prevented the transformation of ‘rough-type’ bacteria?

A

Deoxyribonucleic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

If the lac repressor binds to lactose with an equilibrium constant Ka = 1 x 10^7 (M^-1), the transcriptional state of the lac operon will most likely be ________________ when the lactose concentration is 1 x 10^-5

A

High transcription

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Why would Asn-Val-Thr be a sequence that might signal N-linked carbohydrate attachment to a protein expressed in a eukaryote?

A

Must be Asparagine - ____________ - Serine or Threonine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Energy required for ribosomal translocation is supplied by

A

GTP bound to an elongation factor protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the most likely phenotypic effect to be observed in response to a random mutation in the amino acid sequence of a protein?

A

function unaffected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which of the following statements about the regulatory gene is NOT true? The regulatory gene…

A. encodes the repressor
B. is always transcribed
C. is always located adjacent to the promoter
D. All of the above are untrue

A

C. Is always located adjacent to the promoter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A restriction endonuclease recognizing the sequence 5’-ATGCAT-3’ cleaves to yield a 4 base sticky end with a 3’ overhang. What would a product look like?

A

A terminal phosphate group would be left on the 6th nucleotide 5’-ATGCA *T-3’)

22
Q

Unequal sharing of electrons by two atoms sharing a covalent bond is important to…

A

Hydrogen bonds, Dipole-Diploe bonds, and Hydrophobic effect

23
Q

One method to transfrom bacterial cells with plasmid DNA is

A

electroporation

24
Q

Most amino acids are chiral because

A

they have an atomic center of asymmetry

25
Q

The side chain of which amino acid will most likely engage in covalent bonds

A

C

26
Q

A bacterial gene is cloned into an expression vector for use in mammalian cells, and the vector is used to express the protein product in a mammalian cell line. No product is found in the culture medium, instead the product is found to have accumulated in the cytoplasm of the expression host cells. What is a likely explanation for this?

A

The gene product did not include a secretory signal peptide.

27
Q

An open reading frame is…

A

the codon sequence bounded by the first ATG and the first subsequent stop codon

28
Q

What is one way that chemical synthesis of DNA differs from natural synthesis?

A

Chemical synthesis proceeds in the 3’ —> 5’ direction

29
Q

What are inclusion bodies?

A

Dense particles of protein sometimes found in the cytoplasm of cells that have been engineered for recombinant expression.

30
Q

Which of the following is NOT true of secondary structures in proteins?

A. Van der Waals attractions between side chains are important to their stability

B. Formation depends on H-bonds between the backbone groups

C. The primary types are A-helices and B-sheets

D. They usually form rapidly after the creation of the polypeptide by the ribosome

E. All of the above (i.e, none of the above are true)

A

A. Van der Waals attractions between side chains are important to their stability

31
Q

What property of Taq polymerase is highly useful for PCR?

A

Thermostability

32
Q

What is a short peptide sequence added to a protein in order to facilitate convenient detection and purification by monoclonal antibodies?

A

Epitope Tag

33
Q

What is used as a protecting group for the 5’ -OH group of nucleotides during artificial DNA synthesis?

A

Dimethoxytrityl groups

34
Q

Elements of structured proteins that can be isolated from the whole molecule but retain their structure are…

A

Domains

35
Q

What is a motivation for performing cDNA synthesis?

A

To clone eukaryotic genes that contain introns

36
Q

An operator is a

A

Repressor binding site

37
Q

Gene regulatory regions in DNA found >1000 bp up- or downstream of the gene are called

A

Enhancers

38
Q

A eukaryotic gene contains 1500 bp b/w ATG and the first stop codon. The protein encoded by this gene only contains 200 amino acids. The most likely explanation for this observation is…

A

the gene contains one or more introns

39
Q

Which of the following is not a eukaryotic proximal promoter element

A

Operator

40
Q

The ribosomal site where the tRNA with the attached protein chain is bound following the translocation step is the

A

P site

41
Q

The following complex of macromolecules is found within a cell: DNA attached to RNA polymerase, attached to a growing chain of RNA, attached to a ribosome, attached to a growing chain of amino acids. This cell is…

A

Prokaryotic

42
Q

Which of the following is a nucleotide?

A. adenosine triphosphate
B. Deoxythyidine phosphate
C. Deoxyguanosine monophosphate
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

A

D. all of the above

43
Q

What isotopes were used to label cellular DNA

A

P32

44
Q

The sequence within the 3’ UTR of mRNA can affect its…

A

Stability

45
Q

Which of the following forms of DNA could serve as a suitable template for DNA polymerase in the absence of any other nucleic acid polymers or enzymes

A. Partially double-stranded, linear DNA
B. Circular single-stranded DNA
C. Circular double-stranded DNA
D. fully double-stranded, linear DNA

A

A. Partially double-stranded, linear DNA

46
Q

What is a biological catalyst primarily of protein

A

An Enzyme

47
Q

True or False
The trp repressor protein must be bound to the co-repressor tryptophan in order to inhibit translation

A

False (i think it should be transcription to be true)

48
Q

True or False
G and C are pyrimidines, and A and T are purines

A

False

49
Q

Replication of the ____________ strand of DNA is discontinuous

A

lagging

50
Q

What is the experimental technique that enabled the observation that the structure of DNA involved a helix

A

x-ray crystallography

cbe 235 (27 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions