Final Practice Quiz Questions Lectures Flashcards by NiksT 11

According to the Introduction Lecture and the syllabus, there are four student performance outcomes, which of the following is NOT one of the four outcomes?
Analyze current and historical crime trends in the U.S.
Analyze the constitutional principles relevant to the administration of justice.
Diagnose how multicultural diversity presents challenges and opportunities for solving problems within administration of justice.
Identify and analyze the three components of the administration of justice system.
Compare and contrast various types of traffic collisions.

Compare and contrast various types of traffic collisions.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

According to the Introduction Lecture and the syllabus, acceptable online behavior is referred to as _________________?
Cybernauts
Dilemmas
Netiquette
Golden Rule

Netiquette

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

According to the Introduction Lecture and the syllabus, _____________ is the use of distinctive ideas or works belonging to another person without providing adequate acknowledgement of the person’s contribution?
Cybernauts
Plagiarism
Dilemma
Ethical

Plagiarism

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

According to the Introduction Lecture about the “Criminal Justice System Funnel,” how many adults are incarcerated out of a 1,000 serious crimes committed?
20
475
90
255

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

According to the Introduction Lecture, it discussed the different component parts of the Criminal Justice System. Which of the following is NOT one of the components?
Crime in America
Adjudication (Courts, Sentencing)
Juvenile Justice System
International Espionage (Undercover Activities, Intelligence)
Corrections (Jails, Prisons, Probation, Parole)
Policing

International Espionage (Undercover Activities, Intelligence)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which model assumes that the system’s subcomponents work together harmoniously to achieve the social product we call justice?
due-process model
consensus model
conflict model
crime-control model

consensus model

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which model emphasizes the efficient arrest and conviction of criminal offenders?
conflict model
consensus model
crime-control model
due-process model

crime-control model

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following advocates would support the protection of personal freedoms and civil rights?
crime-control advocates
states’-rights advocates
individual-rights advocates
public order advocates

individual-rights advocates

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following terms means procedural fairness?
adversarial process
due process
case process
justice process

due process

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

. ________ refers to crime-fighting strategies that have been scientifically tested and are based on social science research.
Evidence-based practice
Social justice
Individual control
Consensus model

Evidence-based practice

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

One purpose of ________ is to provide an opportunity for bail.
an arrest
the preliminary hearing
a first appearance (Arraignment)
an indictment

a first appearance (Arraignment)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

During arrest and before questioning, defendants are usually advised of their ________.
civil rights
individual rights
Miranda rights
political rights

Miranda rights

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following advocates would support the interests of society over those of an individual?
public-order advocates
consensus model advocates
due-process advocates
individual-rights advocates

public-order advocates

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

An offender who has served a portion of a prison sentence may be freed on ________
correction
parole
probation
bail

parole

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In the criminal justice process, a(n) ________ has to occur before a(n) ________ can take place.
sentence; trial
arrest; booking
warrant; arraignment
appearance; investigation

arrest; booking

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following terms is defined as the criminal (penal) law, the law of criminal procedure, and the array of procedures and activities having to do with the enforcement of this body of law.
Social Justice
Criminal Justice
Civil Justice
Administration of Justice

Criminal Justice

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which model of criminal justice assumes that the efforts of the component parts of the system are fragmented, the criminal justice system components work independently to serve own self-interest, and leading to a criminal justice nonsystem?
conflict model
crime-control model
consensus model
due-process model

conflict model

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following terms is defined as an ideal that embraces all aspects of civilized life and that is linked to fundamental notions of fairness and to cultural beliefs about right and wrong.
Administrative justice
Social justice
Civil justice
Corporate justice

Social justice

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The first ten amendments of the United States Constitution are collectively known as?
Fair Treatment Rights
Bill of Rights
Individual Rights
Political Rights

Bill of Rights

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following terms is defined as concerning itself with fairness in relationships among citizens, government agencies, and businesses in private matters. Other words, fairness in relationships between citizens (private rights) and seek remedies sought by legal action.
Moral Justice
Vigilante Justice
Conflict Justice
Civil Justice

Civil Justice

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which major crime has the highest clearance rate?
robbery
rape
murder
arson

murder

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Each of the following are UCR Part I offenses, EXCEPT ________?
robbery
fraud
rape
murder

fraud

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A criminal offense committed against a person, property, or society that is motivated, in whole or in part, by the offender’s bias against a race, religion, disability, sexual orientation, or ethnicity/national origin is called ________?
organized crime
stalking
hate crime
cyberterrorism

hate crime

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following agencies is responsible for compiling the NCVS?
Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI)
Office of Juvenile Justice and Delinquency Prevention (OJJDP)
International Association of Chiefs of Police (IACP)
Bureau of Justice Statistics (BJS)

Bureau of Justice Statistics (BJS)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Most hate crimes are motivated by ________? mational origin racial hatred sexual orientation religious bias

racial hatred

What term describes a classification of crimes along a particular dimension, such as legal categories, offender motivation, victim behavior, or the characteristics of individual offenders? crime analysis crime profiling crime mapping crime typology

crime typology

The following are UCR/NIBRS violent crime offenses, EXCEPT ________? forcible rape aggravated assault murder burglary

burglary

Approximately how many law enforcement agencies provide crime data to the FBI for the UCR? 18,000 50,000 100,000 30,000

18,000

The ________ is based on victims’ reports rather than on police reports? Uniform Crime Report National Incident-Based Reporting System National Crime Victimization Survey Bureau of Justice Statistics

National Crime Victimization Survey

___________ runs the Uniform Crime Reporting Program? Federal Bureau of Investigation Office of Juvenile Justice and Delinquency Prevention Bureau of Justice Statistics International Association of Chiefs of Police

Federal Bureau of Investigation

The unlawful taking or attempted taking of property that is in the immediate possession of another, by force or the threat of force, is known as ________. aggravated assault larceny-theft robbery burglary

robbery

National Crime Victimization Survey is intended to show what side of crime? Degrees of Crime Dark Figure of Crime Statistical Analysis of Crime Numerical Count of Crime

Dark Figure of Crime

The National Crime Victimization Survey measures reported and unreported crime. True False

True

The National Crime Victimization Survey does NOT contain data about murder. True False

True

Forcible rape is the least reported violent crime. True False

True

The assumption that criminal acts injure not just individuals, but society as a whole is fundamental to which of the following laws? procedural law criminal law civil law administrative law

criminal law

Which type of law refers to the body of regulations that the government creates to control the activities of industries, businesses, and individuals? criminal law administrative law case law procedural law

administrative law

Which of the following is NOT an element of crime? concurrence of act and intent culpable mental state motive for the crime criminal act

motive for the crime

Our legal system generally recognizes all of the following broad categories of defenses except ________? excuses justifications alibis opportunity

opportunity

Which of the following terms mean “guilty act”? collateral estoppel actus reus mens rea corpus delicti

actus reus

Which of the following elements of crime means “guilty mind”? corpus delicti mens rea actus reus stare decisis

mens rea

What term describes an offense not yet completed? espionage treason misdemeanor inchoate

inchoate

The main objective of a civil lawsuit is to ________? solicit motive seek punishment seek compensation gather evidence

seek compensation

Which Supreme Court case states that prisoners who become insane while incarcerated cannot be executed? Ake v. Oklahoma Jones v. U.S. Ford v. Wainwright U.S. v. Brawner

Ford v. Wainwright

The legal principle that ensures that previous judicial decisions are authoritatively considered and incorporated into future cases is called ________? precedent jurisprudence ex post facto justification

precedent

Which of the following refers to a traditional body of unwritten historical precedents created from everyday social customs, rules, and practices? statutory law law of the land common law case law

common law

The principle of recognizing previous decisions as precedents to guide future deliberations is called ________. corpus delicti mens rea stare decisis actus reus

stare decisis

An activity that increases the risk of harm is called _______ behavior. purposeful knowing unreasonable reckless

reckless

A woman is accused of murdering her brother. She claims that she stabbed her brother to release the evil spirits within his body. The excuse defense that would most likely be used at her trial is ________. duress insanity coercion provocation

insanity

The M’Naghten Rule is a rule for determining insanity that asks whether the defendant knew what he or she was doing or whether the defendant knew that what he or she was doing was wrong. True False

True

In what year did the FBI begin as the Bureau of Investigation? 1929 1933 1964 1908

1908

Which agency would NOT be encompassed by the term local police? sheriff's office city police department state highway patrol municipal department

state highway patrol

Which of the following is NOT a historical Era of policing? Proactive Era Homeland-Security Era Reform Era Political Era Community-Policing Era

Proactive Era

Whch of the following is NOT one of the three Policing Styles? Watchman Style Community Style Service Style Legalistic Style

Community Style

Community policing is best characterized by which of the following? providing strict law enforcement to the community providing service to citizens providing assistance to federal agencies providing strict law enforcement to the community

providing service to citizens

Police–community relations (PCR) as a police practice ________. has been used exclusively in metropolitan areas recognizes that the police derive their legitimacy from the community they serve emerged during the 1930s emphasizes the need for less citizen participation in law enforcement

recognizes that the police derive their legitimacy from the community they serve

Quality-of-life offenses are? crimes involving homeland-security incidents minor violations of the law that demoralizes community residents and businesspeople organized activities such as gangs, auto theft rings, or drug dealers major violations of law such as robbery, arson, or murder

minor violations of the law that demoralizes community residents and

The political era of American policing was characterized by ________. police officers running for political office police, citizens, and politicians developing a close working relationship politicians funding police research police serving the interests of politicians

police serving the interests of politicians

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the reform era of American policing Police focused most of their resources on fighting “traditional” crimes. Police stressed their role of service to the community. Police prided themselves on being professional crime fighters. It lasted from the 1930s to the 1970s

Police stressed their role of service to the community.

The legalistic style of policing ________. requires police action in disruptive situations even if no law is broken enforces the letter of the law seeks to legalize controversial forms of deviant behavior is marked by the order-maintenance function of the police

enforces the letter of the law

Which era is said to have grown out of national concerns with terrorism prevention? reform era community policing era new era political era

new era

A style of policing marked by a concern for order maintenance. This style of policing is characteristic of lower-class communities where informal police intervention into the lives of residents is employed in the service of keeping the peace. This policing style was in use when the Rodney King beating occurred in Los Angeles? Watchman style Legalistic style Service style Reform style

Watchman style

A style of policing marked by a concern with helping rather than strict enforcement. Service-oriented police agencies are more likely to refer citizens to community resources, such as drug-treatment programs, than are other types of agencies. Watchman style Reform style Service style Legalistic style

Service style

Police use their discretion to exercise choice in their daily activities. True False

True

The key to community policing is a partnership between the police and the community. The key to community policing is a partnership between the police and the community. Correct! True False False

True

. ________ holds that evidence of an offense that is collected or obtained by law enforcement officers in violation of a defendant’s constitutional rights is inadmissible for use in a criminal prosecution in a court of law. Exclusionary rule Probable cause Plain view Inherently coercive

Exclusionary rule

A legal principle that excludes from introduction at trial any evidence later developed as a result of an illegal search or seizure is called ________. latent evidence compelling interest fruit of the poisonous tree doctrine good-faith exception

fruit of the poisonous tree doctrine

Which Supreme Court case has become the basis for “stop and frisk”? Brady v. U.S. Terry v. Ohio Argesinger v. Hamlin Miranda v. Arizona

Terry v. Ohio

The plain-view doctrine was set out in ________. the good-faith exception warrantless searches the exclusionary rule the plain-view doctrine

the plain-view doctrine

Which Supreme Court ruling applied the principles developed in Weeks v. U.S. regarding the exclusionary rule to trials in state courts? U.S. v. Leon Horton v. California Illinois v. Gates Mapp v. Ohio

Mapp v. Ohio

Probable cause is ________. a set of facts that cause a reasonable person to believe that a person committed a specific crime a police procedural issue concerned with the use of deadly force a legal explanation for the use of interrogation as a means to elicit a confession a precedent-setting term concerned with the use of undercover operations

a set of facts that cause a reasonable person to believe that a person committed a specific crime

Which U.S. Supreme Court case allows an Officer during Terry Stop Frisk Search to retrieve other than weapons contraband immediately apparent to an Officer (known as the “Plain-Feel Exception”)? Brady v. U.S. Miranda v. Arizona Argersinger v. Hamlin Minnesota v. Dickerson

Minnesota v. Dickerson

A “knowing waiver” of rights requires that the defendant be able to understand the consequences of not invoking the Miranda rights. True False

True

Probable cause is the minimum standard necessary for an arrest under any circumstance. True False

True

Officers are usually required to submit an affidavit demonstrating probable cause to a magistrate or prosecutor in order to obtain an arrest warrant. True False

True

Officers need to provide Miranda warnings only in situations involving both arrest and custodial interrogation. True False

True

Unreasonable searches and seizures are prohibited by the Sixth Amendment. True False

False- Prohibited by the Fourth Amendment

A writ of certiorari ________. allows officers to search a suspect’s home asks the court to free somebody who has been wrongfully convicted is Latin for an affidavit allows appellate courts to review the record of a lower court case

allows appellate courts to review the record of a lower court case

The 1984 U.S. Supreme Court case U.S. v. Leon established ________. the plain-view doctrine warrantless searches the exclusionary rule the good-faith exception

the good-faith exception

During which Supreme Court Justice’s tenure did the rights of individuals expand dramatically? John Ashcroft William Rehnquis Warren Burger Earl Warren

Earl Warren

The special responsibility to adhere to moral duty and obligation that is inherent in police work is known as ________. intelligence-led policing police ethics police working personality police subculture

police ethics

The application of an amount or frequency of force greater than that required to compel compliance from a willing or unwilling subject is known as ________. unreasonable force threat of force deadly force excessive force

excessive force

In which of the following cases did the Court establish the standard of “objective reasonableness” under which an officer’s use of deadly force could be assessed in terms of “reasonableness at the moment”? Tennessee v. Garner Graham v. Connor Patrick v. Murphy Davis v. Dallas

Graham v. Connor

Which of the following U.S. Supreme Court cases specified the conditions under which deadly force could be used to apprehend a suspected felon? Saucier v. Katz Hunter v. Bryant Tennessee v. Garner Bivens v. Six Unknown Federal Agents

Tennessee v. Garner

What is the meaning of the term grass eater as a form of police corruption? officers who serve as informers for the commission officers who accept small bribes and minor services from citizens officers who seek illicit moneymaking opportunities officers who solicit bribes through threat or intimidation

officers who accept small bribes and minor services from citizens

Which type of police corruption identified by the Knapp Commission involves the active seeking of illicit money-making opportunities by officers? meat eating grass eating occupational deviance profiling

meat eating

According to the Status of Women in Policing Survey, about what percentage of women fill all sworn law enforcement positions nationwide? 25 62 50 13

__________ is known as all aspects of the traditional values and patterns of behavior evidenced by police officers who have been effectively socialized in the police subculture. Police working personality Police integrity Police corruption Police ethics

Police working personality

Which of the following is a civil suit brought against anyone who denies others their constitutional rights to life, liberty, or property without due process of law, misuse of power, subject sustain damages. Davis Action 1983 lawsuit Federal Rehabilitation Act Federal Tort Claims Statute

1983 lawsuit

Which of the following branches of a police organization is tasked with investigating charges of wrongdoing involving members of the department? ethics unit background investigations internal affairs civil rights

internal affairs

Less-lethal weapons are those that are designed to disable, capture, or immobilize a suspect rather than kill him or her. True False

True

Police Working Personality consist of all aspects of the traditional values and patterns of behavior evidenced by police officers who have been effectively socialized in the police subculture. Officers who have adopted the police working personality are often all of the following, EXCEPT ________. secure suspicious cynical authoritarian

secure

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of educated police officers? fewer citizen complaints better written reports wiser use of discretion reduced sensitivity to racial issues

reduced sensitivity to racial issues

The official program of a state or legislative jurisdiction that sets standards for the training of law enforcement officers is known as the ________. Peace Officer Standards and Training (POST) program Federal Law Enforcement Training Center (FLETC) American Society for Law Enforcement Training (ASLET) Commission on Accreditation for Law Enforcement Agencies (CALEA)

Peace Officer Standards and Training (POST) program

The abuse of police authority for personal or organizational gain is called police ________. subculture integrity personality corruption

corruption

The two types of courts that function in the American criminal justice system are the state courts and the federal courts. True False

True

In some instances, state courts will hear cases involving alleged violations of federal law? True False

False

Courts that have the authority to review a decision made by a lower court are said to have ________. appellate jurisdiction limited jurisdiction special jurisdiction orginal jurisdiction

appellate jurisdiction

A formal written accusation submitted to the court by a grand jury, alleging that a specified person has committed a specified offense, usually a felony, is known as an ________. arraignment enforcement indictment assessment

indictment

At which stage of the hearing are defendants brought before a judge to possibly be afforded the opportunity for bail? pretrial review preliminary hearing first appearance (Arraignment) grand jury hearing

first appearance (Arraignment)

There are ________ federal judicial districts (trial courts)? 94 14 64 34

McNabb v. U.S. formally established that a defendant has to appear at a first appearance within how many hours after arrest? 12 84 24 48

In which U.S. Supreme Court case was the Court’s authority as the final interpreter of the U.S. Constitution established? Sells v. Jefferson U.S. v. Montalvo-Murillo Mapp v. Ohio Marbury v. Madison

Marbury v. Madison

One purpose of ________ is to help ensure the reappearance of the accused at trial. adjudication plea bail arraignment

bail

What type of plea is most similar to a guilty plea? no-contest plea (Nolo contendere ) bargained plea negotiated plea no fault plea

no-contest plea (Nolo contendere )

Federal Court System consist of a three-tiered courts. Which of the following is NOT one of the three-tiered courts: Superior Courts Supreme Court Courts of Appeals (Circuit courts) District Courts (trial courts)

Superior Courts

State Court Systems (including California) consist of a three-tiered courts. Which of the following is NOT one of the three-tiered courts: Circuit Courts State Supreme Court Appellate Courts (Court of Appeal) Trial Courts (Superior Courts)

Circuit Courts

All of the following are true statements about the United States Supreme Court EXCEPT: the Supreme Court is the highest court in the federal court system A justice serves an eight-year term nine justices serve on the Court the U.S. Supreme Court hears approximately 200 cases a year out of some 5,000 requests

A justice serves an eight-year term

How many U.S. Supreme Court justices must vote in favor to hear a case in the Supreme Court? 3 6 4 9

The territory, subject matter, or people over which a court may exercise lawful authority is known as: Ex post facto Diversion Jurisdiction Trial de novo

Jurisdiction

All of the following are considered professionals in the courtroom work group, EXCEPT the________. defense attorney judge victim prosecuting attorney

victim

Which of the following statements is false regarding the role of the judge in the courtroom work group? The judge is responsible for presenting the state’s case against the defendant. The primary duty of a judge is to ensure justice. The judge holds ultimate authority in ruling on matters of law. If a guilty verdict has been returned, the judge is responsible for imposing a sentence.

The judge is responsible for presenting the state’s case against the defendant.

What is the primary purpose of any criminal trial? determination of the defendant’s guilt or innocence cooperation and communication with the police recognition of informal rules of civility instruction to meet the needs of trial judges

determination of the defendant’s guilt or innocence

Criminal trials under the American system of justice are built around ________. a public defender system an adversarial system the court system the grand jury system

an adversarial system

Which of the following is NOT a type of juror challenge? challenges to the array peremptory challenges challenges for cause challenges for knowledge

challenges for knowledge

Weapons, tire tracks, and fingerprints are examples of ________. exculpatory evidence circumstantial evidence testimonial evidence real evidence

real evidence

The most important form of prosecutorial discretion lies in the power to ________. handle certain matters relating to individuals declared mentally incompetent test the credibility and the memory of the witness charge, or not to charge, a person with an offense serve as a judge of probate to oversee wills and the administration of estates

charge, or not to charge, a person with an offense

What is the single most important criterion for determining the level of proof necessary for conviction in criminal trials? ethical and procedural standards standards for criminal justice reasonable doubt standard standards of professional responsibility

reasonable doubt standard

What percentage of state inmates represent themselves at trial? 3% 6% 9% 12%

A jury that is isolated from the public has been ________. sequestered preempted subpoenaed challenged

sequestered

Evidence that requires interpretation or that requires a judge or jury to reach a conclusion based on what the evidence indicates is called ________. real evidence circumstantial evidence direct evidence exculpatory evidence

circumstantial evidence

Which court case in 1963 extended right to counsel (public defender) to all indigent defendants? Tennessee vs. Garner Mapp vs. Ohio Gideon vs. Wainwright Leon vs. U.S.

Gideon vs. Wainwright

What term refers to the process of questioning prospective jurors, as known as “To Speak the Truth”? Certiorari Habeas Corpus Mens Rea Voir Dire

Voir Dire

A judicial nominating commission presents a list of candidates to the governor, who decides on a candidate. After a period of time usually a year in office, voters decide on whether to retain the judge. Judges must run for such re-election each term. Also called the merit selection. This process is referred to as: Stare Decisis Plan Venire Plan Missouri Bar Plan Parens Patriae Plan

Missouri Bar Plan

Who keeps order in the courtroom and maintains physical custody of the Jury? court recorder court administrator baliffs prosecutor

baliffs

Which of the following is NOT one of the goals of contemporary sentencing? incapacitation mitigation restoration rehabilitation

mitigation

Which of the following is a just deserts perspective that emphasizes taking revenge on a criminal perpetrator or group of offenders? retribution deterrence rehabilitation restoration

retribution

Which of the following refers to the use of imprisonment or other means to reduce the likelihood that a particular offender will commit more crime? rehabilitation retribution incapacitation deterrence

incapacitation

Which of the following sentencing goals is closely associated with the phrase “an eye for an eye”? retribution rehabilitation deterrence incapacitation

retribution

. ________ is the earliest known rationale for punishment. Incapacitation Retribution Rehabilitation Restoration

Retribution

Which of the following refers to the goal of criminal sentencing that attempts to make the victim “whole again”? incapacitation restoration retribution deterrence

restoration

A sentence of 8 to 25 years under the supervision of the state department of correction is an example of ________ sentencing. structured consecutive concurrent indeterminate

indeterminate

Proportionality holds that ________. the severity of sanctions should bear a direct relationship to the seriousness of the crime caseloads should be equally divided among the available prosecutors similar crimes should be punished with the same degree of severity caseloads should be equally divided among the available

the severity of sanctions should bear a direct relationship to the seriousness of the crime

A model of criminal punishment in which an offender is given a fixed term that may be reduced by good time or gain time is called ________ sentencing. determinate indeterminate mandatory quasi-independent

determinate

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of restorative justice? There is direct involvement by both the offender and the victim. Pain is imposed to punish, deter, and prevent. Victims are central to the process of resolving a crime. The emphasis is on dialogue and negotiation.

Pain is imposed to punish, deter, and prevent.

Which the following is the primary sentencing tool of the just deserts model? fine probation restitution imprisonment

imprisonment

The U.S. Supreme Court has ruled that ________ must decide the facts that lead to a death sentence. judges, not juries appellate courts juries, not judges high courts

juries, not judges

What goal of sentencing is sometimes referred to as the “lock ’em up approach”? deterrence incapacitation retribution rehabilitation

incapacitation

Approximately what percentage of federal cases are the result of guilty pleas? 20% 90% 50% 10%

90%

Which of the following sentencing principles objectively holds that an offender’s criminal history should be taken into account in sentencing decisions? proportionality good time equity social debt

social debt

Which of the following is considered a disadvantage of probation and parole? relative lack of punishment increased use of community services reduced risk of criminal socialization increased employment

relative lack of punishment

Which of the following statements about probation is false? It is the most common form of criminal sentencing. Probation is a court-ordered sanction. Probation is significantly less expensive than imprisonment. Convicted murderers and rapists cannot be sentenced to probation.

Convicted murderers and rapists cannot be sentenced to probation.

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of using probation instead of imprisonment? lowers cost provides the offender with many opportunities to interact with other convicted offenders increases employment opportunities for offenders increases the likelihood that restitution will be paid

provides the offender with many opportunities to interact with other convicted offenders

Which model emphasizes probation and parole officers’ service role and views probationers and parolees as clients? social work model correctional model supervisory model service model

social work model

Which type of sentence requires that offenders serve weekends in jail and receive probation supervision during the week? shared sentence split sentence mixed sentence diverse sentence

mixed sentence

Revocation of probation or parole ________. can be enacted merely on a decision made by the probationer’s or parolee’s probation or parole officer requires a hearing to determine if the conditions of probation or parole were violated is not governed by any particular due process requirement requires the concurrence of an appellate court judge

requires a hearing to determine if the conditions of probation or parole were violated

A sentencing alternative that requires offenders to spend at least part of their time working for a community agency is known as ________. home confinement community service mixed sentence intensive probation supervision

community service

Probation is sanctioned by the ________. court parole board investigating officer victim

court

What is the most common form of criminal sentencing in the United States? shock incarceration house arrest probation imprisonment

probation

Nationwide, approximately what percentage of inmates successfully complete parole? 23% - 36% 49% - 52% 9% - 17% 35% - 41%

49% - 52%

Which type of sentence requires that offenders serve time in a local jail before a period of supervised probation? mixed sentence shock probation split sentence shock incarceration

split sentence

Which of the following intermediate sanctions exposes offenders to a highly regimented environment involving strict discipline, physical training, and hard labor? mixed sentencing Split probation intensive probation shock incarceration

shock incarceration

Which of the following is NOT a general condition for probations? remain within the jurisdiction of the court surrender the driver’s license maintain employment possess no firearms

surrender the driver’s license

Relative lack of punishment is one of the major advantages of probation and parole. True False

False

In both shock probation and split sentencing, the offender serves a relatively short period of time in custody and is released on probation by court order. True False

True

Women account for about what percentage of the country’s jail population? 12% - 13% 25% - 27% 44% - 46% 30% - 32%

12% - 13%

Which Supreme Court case held that overcrowding in prisons is not by itself cruel and unusual punishment? Holt v. Sarver Rhodes v. Chapman Schall v. Martin Bell v. Wolfish

Rhodes v. Chapman

________ capacity refers to the inmate population the institution was originally built to handle. Construction Design Operational Rated

Design

Inmates are generally housed in dormitory-like settings, has recreation, and education and skills training are in ________-security institutions. medium maximum ADMAX minimum

minimum

________ capacity is the number of inmates that a facility can effectively accommodate based on an appraisal of the institution’s staff, programs, and services. Rated Design Prison Operational

Operational

Most people sentenced to federal prisons have been convicted of ________ crimes. white-collar violent property drug

drug

How many security levels are there in the federal prison system according to the Bureau of Prisons classification? 4 5 3 2

A confinement facility administered by an agency of local government, typically a law enforcement agency, intended for adults but sometimes also containing juveniles, which holds persons detained pending adjudication or committed after adjudication, usually those sentenced for a year or less, describes which type of confinement facility. Rehabilitation Operatonal ADMAX Jail

Jail

Which term refers to the size of the inmate population a facility can handle according to the judgment of experts? rated capacity operational capacity prison capacity design capacity

rated capacity

Operational capacity is ________. the size of the inmate population that a facility can handle according to the judgment of experts the inmate population that the institution was originally built to handle the number of inmates a prison can effectively accommodate based on management considerations the number of program opportunities an institution can effectively make available to inmates

the number of inmates a prison can effectively accommodate based on management considerations

Which of the following statements regarding private prisons is INCORRECT? The growth rate of the private prison industry has been around 35% annually Private prisons hold 6.8% of all state prisoners and 16.5% of federal prisoners Private prison is a correctional institution operated by a private firm on behalf of a local or state government Private prisons only house minimum security prisoners

Private prisons only house minimum security prisoners

Which of the following would not be considered a barrier to privatization of prisons? Prisoners objections to private corrections Old state laws that prohibit private involvement in correctional management State’s liability will not transfer to private corrections Strikes by correctional officers

Prisoners objections to private corrections

Prison is a state or federal confinement facility that has custodial authority over adults sentenced to confinement. True False

True

Which of the following would not be considered a factor in contributing to overcrowding in U.S. jails? Overcrowded court system Confinement of non-violent offenders Court delays Ability to post Bail

Ability to post Bail

Which of the following is not a characteristic of prison population? Mental Health problems Drug dependence Unemployed Functionally literate Parents of young children

Functionally literate

Government agencies that function to investigate, supervise, adjudicate, care for, or confine youthful offenders and other children subject to the jurisdiction of the juvenile court make up the ________ system. juvenile disposition juvenile justice juvenile status juvenile petition

juvenile justice

The juvenile system is more likely to maximize the use of discretion and ________ than the adult system. circumvent the offender’s due process rights apply the death penalty for first-degree murder employ diversion from further formal processing focus on legal issues of guilt or innocence

employ diversion from further formal processing

A child who has no parents or whose parents are unable to care for him or her is called a(n) ________. neglected child dependent child abused child undisciplined child

dependent child

Children who purchase cigarettes, buy alcohol, and are truant are ________. neglected children juvenile delinquents status offenders dependent children

status offenders

Most states consider a child who is forced into delinquent activity by a parent or guardian to be a(n) ________ child. undisciplined abused neglected dependent

abused

A child who has not been receiving the proper level of physical or psychological care from his or her parents or guardians is a(n) ________ child. neglected undisciplined delinquent dependent

neglected

Mary, a juvenile, breaks into Bob’s apartment and steals his TV. Mary is a(n) _______ child. dependent abused delinquent neglected

delinquent

A common law principle that allows the state to assume a parental role and to take custody of a child when he or she is in need of care the natural parents are unwilling or unable to provide, is called ________. In re Gault parens patriae stare decisis status offense

parens patriae

The fact-finding process wherein the juvenile court determines whether there is sufficient evidence to sustain the allegations in a petition is called (a)n ________ hearing. adjudicatory transfer dispositional intake

adjudicatory

Teen court is an alternative approach to juvenile justice in which alleged offenders are judged and/or sentenced by a ________. specially appointed judge jury of their peers jury of teachers and social workers juvenile court judge

jury of their peers

The final stage in the processing of adjudicated juveniles, in which a decision is made on the form of treatment or penalty that should be imposed on the child is known as? intake the petition transfer hearing dispositional hearing

dispositional hearing

A reading of the Supreme Court’s decision in New Jersey v. T.L.O. leads to the conclusion that a school employee’s search of a student could be considered reasonable if it does all of the following, EXCEPT which? obtain permission from the student's legal guardian is based on a logical suspicion of rule-breaking actions The search does not exceed the scope of the original suspicion The search is required to maintain order, discipline, and safety among students

obtain permission from the student's legal guardian

Most chronic juvenile offenders begin their delinquency careers before age 12; some start as early as age 10. True False

True

A recent report on institutionalized youth by the Bureau of Justice Statistics found more than 40% of juveniles in confinement were charged with homicide. True False

False

Final Practice Quiz Questions Lectures Flashcards

(184 cards)