Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

physical exam II > final pt 1 > Flashcards

final pt 1 Flashcards

(86 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

what does BP difference of 10-15 in each arm indicate

A
  • subclavian steal sydrome

- aortic dissection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what does HTN in UE and low BP in LE indicate

A
  • coarctation of the aorta

- occlusive aortic disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is a normal difference in BP in the UE

A
  • 5-10 mmhg
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what effect does a cuff that is too narrow have

A
  • BP that is too high
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what effect does a cuff have that is too wide

A
  • BP low in small arm

- BP high in a large arm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

hyperopia

A
  • farsightedness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

myopia

A
  • nearsightedness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

presbyopia

A
  • aging vision
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

pinguecula

A
  • harmless yellowish triangular nodule in conjunctiva next to iris
  • d/t aging
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

xanthelasma

A
  • slightly raised, yellow well demarcated plaque
  • on nasal portion of eyelid
  • common with lipid disorders
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

chalazion

A
  • blocked meibomian gland

- points inside eyelid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

episcleritis

A
  • inflammation of episcleral vessels
  • RA
  • Sjorgen’s
  • herpes zoster
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

dacryocystitis

A
  • inflammation of lacrimal sac
  • swelling btwn lower eyelid and nose
  • tearing prominent
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

arcus senilus

A
  • corneal acrus
  • thin grey circle close to edge of cornea
  • normal aging
  • hyperlipoproteinemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

kayser- fleischer ring

A
  • Cu deposition
  • golden brown ring in periphery of cornea
  • mutation in chromosome 13 (wilsons)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

corneal scar

A
  • greyish white opacity in cornea

- secondary to injury or inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

cataracts

A
  • opacity of lens through pupil
  • old age
  • smoking
  • DM
  • steroids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

pterygium

A
  • triangular thickening of bulbar conjunctiva

- grows inwards towards cornea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

peripheral cataract

A
  • spoke like shadows
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

CN III paralysis

A
  • dilated pupil fixed
  • ptosis if eyelid
  • lat deviation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

horner’s syndrome

A
  • affected pupil is small but reactive to light
  • usu with ptosis of eyelid
  • iris may be lighter
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

argyll robertson pupil

A
  • small irreg pupils
  • accommodate but dont react to light
  • CNS syphilis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

hyphema

A
  • blood in ant chamber
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

hypopyon

A

pus in ant chamber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
lagopthalmos
- inability to fully close eyelid | - CN VII
26
coloboma
- cat eye
27
keratoconus
- thinning disorder of cornea
28
iritis
- inflamm of iris | - marked photosensitivity
29
mydriasis
- dilation of pupil
30
sensorineural hearing loss
- problem in inner ear, nerve or connection to brain | - trouble understanding speech
31
conductive hearing loss
- problem in middle/ external hear | - noise may help hearing
32
emergent eye complaint
- requires care in one hour - chem splash/ burn - sudden painless vision loss - acute ocular trauma - penetrating eye injury - severe pain with n/v and/or halos
33
urgent eye complaint
- requires care within 4-6 hours - FB - corneal abrasion - sudden onset double vision - acute onset flashes/ floaters - sudden onset red eye +/- pain or change in vision
34
semi-urgent eye complaint
- requires care within 24 hours - painful bump on eyelid - itchy eyes - mild eye pain with no change in vision over 2-3 days
35
what is the normal pH of the eye
- 7.0-7.3
36
what type of chemical burns are worse to the eye
- alkali burns | - irrigate for at LEAST 30 min
37
why do you not repeatedly use anesthetic in the eye
- can cause cornea to melt | - permanent damage
38
differential for acute onset flashes and floaters
- retinal detachment - posterior vitreous detachment - migraine
39
retinal detachment
- flashes and floaters -> veil or shade pulled over visual field - high risk if assoc with trauma, high myopia, younger pt, recent surgery - requires same day consult
40
posterior vitreous detachment
- flashes -> floaters -> no loss of vision and no peripheral field loss - usu in pts > 50 - normal in aging d/t vitreous fluid shrinking
41
what is the most common cause of conjunctivitis
- viral
42
viral conjunctivitis
- bilat - mild photophobia - tearing - injection - often assoc with recent URTI - self limited 7-10 days - no abx needed
43
epidemic keratoconjunctivitis
- highly contagious viral conjunctivitis - photophobia - tearing - severe red eye - pseudomembrane - subepithelial infiltrates
44
bacterial conjunctivitis
- injection - purulent d/c - matting of lashes - photophobia - blurred vision - tx with broad spectrum abx 7-10 d
45
CN I
- olfactory - determine patency - occlude one nostril - with eyes close ID smell
46
CN II
- optic n - visual acuity - visual fields - fundoscopy
47
CN III, IV, VI
- PERRL - RAPD - EOM - cover/ uncover - convergence - ptosis - near reaction - nystagmus
48
CN V
- trigeminal - motor -> muscles of mastication - sensory to face - corneal reflex
49
CN VII
- facial symmetry - facial expressions - sensory to anterior 2/3 of tongue
50
CN VIII
- gross hearing | - weber and rinne
51
CN IX and X
- glossopharygneal and vagus - symmetric rise of uvula - gag reflex - hoarseness - check swallowing - taste posterior 1/3 of tongue
52
CN XI
- spinal accessory - shoulder shrug - head turned against resistance
53
CN XII
- hypoglossal - observe tongue for atrophy or fasciculations - stick tongue out - push tongue into cheek
54
tests for discriminative sensations
- stereognosis - graphesthesia - 2 point discrimination - point localization - extinction
55
stereognosis
- ID common object in hand
56
graphesthesia
- recognize number drawn on palm
57
2 point discrimination
- pt touched with 2 points - distance btwn 2 points measured when the pt can feel them - normal in fingers: 2-5 mm - normal on palm: 8-15 mm
58
point localization
- touch pt on skin | - have them open eyes and ID area touched
59
extinction
- touch same point on each side of body at same time | - ask pt to ID both spots
60
upper motor neuron lesions
- hypertonia - hyperreflexia - no fasciculations - no atrophy - + babinski
61
lower motor neuron lesions
- hypotonia - hyporeflexia - fasciculations - atrophy - normal plantar reflex
62
guiding questions of the neuro exam
- is mental status intact - findings symmetric - where is lesion- central, peripheral, or both
63
nociceptive pain
- somatic pain - tissue damage to skin, MSK system, or viscera - sensory NS in tact - acute or chronic - mediated by a-delta and c- fibers - sensitized by inflam mediators, psych processes, and neurotransmitters
64
neuropathic pain
- lesion or disease affecting somatosensory system - becomes indep of inciting injury - burning, shock like - induce neuronal plasticity -> pain that persists beyond yealing
65
central sensitization
- CNS processes sensation -> amplification of pain signals | - lower pain threshold to non-painful stimulus
66
psychogenic pain
- based on psych cond, personality, cultural norms, social support
67
idiopathic pain
- pain without identifiable cause
68
pain assessment tools
- numeric rating 0-10 | - wong baker faces: kids, language barrier, cognitive impairment
69
anatomic landmarks for LP
- from out to in - spinous process - supraspinal ligament - interspinal ligament - ligamentum flavum -> "pop" - epidural space - dura mater - arachnoid mater
70
location of LP
- L3-L4 - L4- L5 - can be in lat recumbent or upright
71
normal opening pressure
- 18- 20 mm H2O
72
WBCs on LP
- > 5 cells - possible infection - bacterial infx: increased neutrophils - viral infx: increased lymphocytes
73
RBCs on LP
- < 10 cells is normal | - traumatic tap can be r/o by xanthochromia
74
glucose on LP
- 50-80 is normal - low: bacterial meningitis, sarcoid, syphilis, SAH - viral: variable - serum hyperglycemia may mask depressed CSF glucose
75
protein on LP
- 15-45 is normal | - elevated with infections
76
common GN diplococci on LP
- n meningitidis
77
common GN bacilli on LP
- h flu
78
common GP oraganisms on LP
- s pneumo - other strep spp - staph
79
xanthochromia on LP
- prod of RBC lysis - yellow orange discoloration - helps differentiate from traumatic tap
80
diagnostic indications for LP
- CNS infx - inflam process - suspected spont SAH - unexplained seizure - certain malignancy or paraneoplastic syndrome
81
therapeutic indications for LP
- relieve sx from increased ICP | - deliver meds
82
absolute C/I to LP
- local skin infx - intracranial or SC mass lesion - raising ICP - uncontrolled bleeding diathesis or coagulopathy - coumadin
83
relative C/I to LP
- raised ICP with known cerebral herniation - SC deformities - body deformities at puncture site - suspected lumbar epidural abscess - thrombocytopenia - elevated INR
84
tube sequencing for LP
- 1: cell count and diff - 2: glucose and protein - 3: culture and stain - 4: cell count and dif
85
most common complication s/p LP
- HA - d/t leak in dural layer - appears 1-3 days after procedure - can last up to months - put in recumbent position for 1 hour and hydrate to prevent
86
grading of DTR
- 0: no reflex - 1+: diminished - 2+: normal - 3+: brisk (can be normal) - 4+: hyperactive, brisk with clonus - if hyperreflexia present do babinski

physical exam II (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions