final review Flashcards

(93 cards)

1
Q

. A star test pattern is used to measure which of the following

FSS
Screen resolution
SID resolution
Timing

A

FSS

focal spot size

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2
Q

How can off focus radiation be minimized?

A

Restrict the beam at the source

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3
Q

The filtering effect of the tube’s glass envelope and oil are referred to As

A

inharent filtration

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4
Q

. Congruence of the x-ray beam with the light field is tested using _____

A

wisconsin test tool

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5
Q

Which of the following will not increase the average energy of the beam ( pick 2)

More filtration
Increase in kVp
Increase in mA
Grids

A

MA & grids

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6
Q

A backup timer on an AEC will do all of the following except pick 2

  • Protect the patient from overexposure
  • Protect the x-ray tube from excessive heat
  • Increase or decrease the master density
  • Harden the beam
A
  • Increase or decrease the master density

* Harden the beam

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7
Q

. Star and wye configurations are related to

  • Autotransformers
  • 3 phase transformers
  • Rectification systems
  • AEC
A

3 phase transformers

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8
Q

. Which is not a characteristic of the x-ray tube?

  • Target material should have a low atomic number and a low melting point
  • The useful beam emerges from the port window
  • The cathode assembly receives both high and low voltage
  • The rotor & stator is an induction motor
A

*Target material should have a low atomic number and a low melting point

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9
Q
How many half value layers will it take to reduce a beam with intensity of 105 R/min to an intensity of less than 20 R/min
2
3
4
8
A

3

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10
Q

Vaporized tungsten deposited on the window of the glass envelope may do all of the following EXCEPT

*Act as an additional filter
*Reduce tube output
*Result in arcing
*Decrease the time of the exposure

A

*Decrease the time of the exposure

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11
Q

The absorption of useful radiation by a grid is called

A

grid cut off

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12
Q

. A wire mesh test is performed to diagnose screen ____

A

contact

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13
Q

Slow speed screens are used to :

  • Minimize pt. dose
  • Use short exp. time
  • Image detail
  • Image pediatric patients
A

image detail

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14
Q
Which of the following terms is used to describe unsharp edges of the image?

Diffusion
Mottle
Blur
Umbra
A

Blur

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15
Q
Boxes of film stored in too warm of an area may be subject to 


Static marks
Fog
Hi contrast
Loss of density
A

fog

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16
Q
Which of the following is the correct order of radiographic film processing? 

1. Developer, wash, fixer, dry
2. Developer, fixer, dry, wash
3.Fixer, developer wash, dry
4.Developer ,fixer, wash, dry
A
4. 
Developer
Fixer
Wash 
Dry
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17
Q
Which of the following is an abnormal intensifying screen action? 

Fluorescence 
Luminescence 
Speed
Lag
A

lag

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18
Q
. A film emulsion having wide latitude is likely to exhibit 


High density
Low density
High contrast
Low contrast
A

low contast

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19
Q
In which of the following examinations should 70 kVp not be exceeded? 


UGI
BE
IVP (IVU)
Chest 
A

IVP

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20
Q
. Distortion is caused by all of the following except 


T*ube angle
*Position of  part in body
*Anode heel effect
*kVp
A

kvp

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21
Q

Treelike, branching black marks on a radiograph are usually the result of

Acutely bending the film

Improper
development

Improper film storage

Static electricity

A

static

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22
Q
In classifying IV contrasts, the total number of dissolved particles in solution per kg of water defines?


 Toxicity
  Miscibility
  Osmolality
  Viscosity
A

osmolality

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23
Q
. Misalignment of the tube-part-film relationship results in: 

Shape distortion
Size distortion
Magnification
Blur
A

shape distortion

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24
Q

. Using 48” SID, how much OID must be introduced to magnify an object 2 times

8” OID
12” OID
16” OID
24” OID

A

24” OID

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25
``` Geometric blur can be evaluated using all the following devices except   Star pattern Slit camera Penetrometer Pinhole camera ```
penetrometer
26
``` If you can’t reduce OID, what do you do to compensate?   Use a small FSS Increase SID Use faster screens Use a lower grid ratio   ```
increase SID
27
If films are damp out of the dryer, what might be the cause?   High air velocity Uneven dev. temp Not enough hardener Under replenishment  
not enough hardner
28
Greater latitude is available in which of the following circumstances? ``` Low kVp Fast speed systems High grid ratio Low grid ratio   ```
low grid ratio
29
The line-focus principle expresses the relationship between 1. Actual & effective focal spot 2. Exposure & resulting OD 3,SID & resulting OD 4.Grid ratio & line per inch
1.
30
``` That portion of a CR cassette that records the image is the   Emulsion Helium-neon laser PSP Scanner reader ```
PSP
31
Which of the following statements is false regarding DEXA scans? * Radiation dose is low * Only low energy is used * Photon attenuation by bone is calculated
2. *Only low energy is used
32
``` . A 15% increase in kVp & a 50% decrease in mAs will result in   *Short scale contrast *Increased exposure latitude *Increased OD *Decreased recorded detail ```
*Increased exposure latitude
33
Using AEC, how is mAs adjusted as the film-screen combination speed is decreased? mAs increases mAs decreases It is not changed
not changed
34
``` .The manubrial notch is at approximately the same level as the     1.T-5 2.T2-3 interspace 3.T4-5 interspace 4.Costal margin ```
2
35
Which Projection of the vertebral column best demonstrates kyphosis?     1.AP projection of the lumbar vertebral column 2. AP projection of the thoracic vertebral column 3. Lateral projection of the cervical vertebral column 4.Lateral projection of the thoracic vertebral column  
4.Lateral projection of the thoracic vertebral column
36
How many degrees and in which direction should the central ray be directed if it is necessary to have the patient prone for a PA projection of the coccyx? 1. 10 degrees caudad 2. 10 degrees cephalad 3. 15 degrees caudad 4. 15 degrees cephalad
2.10 degrees cephalad
37
Which duct is formed by the union of the cystic duct with the common hepatic duct? Pancreatic Left hepatic Right hepatic Common bile
common bile duct
38
``` When visualized on a small bowel series radiograph, which structure usually indicates adequate demonstration of the entire small intestine?   Cecum Jejunum Duodenum Transverse colon ```
cecum
39
Which suture joins a parietal bone with both a sphenoid bone and a temporal bone? Sagittal Coronal Squamosal Lambdiodal
squamosal
40
Where should the petrous ridges be seen in the image of the parietoacanthial projection of the facial bones? 1. Superior to the orbits 2. Lower third of the orbits 3. Through the maxillary sinuses 4. Below the maxillary sinuses
blow the maxillary sinus
41
. Which joint is an ellipsoid joint? ``` Interphalangeal Scapulohumeral Carpometacarpal Metacarpophalengeal   ```
Metacarpophalengeal
42
name 3 examples of a hinge joint
1. elbow 2. knee 3. ankle ****only permit flexion and extension
43
Which joint classification is the elbow? Diarthrodial Synarthrodial Amphiarthrodial Sutura
diarthrodial | freely movable
44
``` Which joint is a ball and socket joint?   Radiocarpal Humeroulnar Scapulohumeral SC ```
scapulohumeral
45
How many degrees and in which direction should the central ray be directed for the PA axial projection of the clavicle?      1. 15 to 30 degrees caudad 2. 15 to 30 degrees cephalad 3. 25 to 35 degrees caudad 4. 25 to 35 degrees cephalad 
1
46
. For the lateral projection of the knee, how many degrees should the knee be flexed? 1. 10 to 20 degrees 2. 20 to 30 degrees 3. 30 to 40 degrees 4. 40 to 50 degrees
2
47
``` Which position factor determines the number of degrees the central ray should be angled for the tangential projection (Settegast method) to demonstrate the patella?   Part thickness Degree of knee flexion Object-to-image distance SID ```
degree of knee flexion
48
The legal doctrine res ipsa loquitur means:   A matter settled by precedent Matter settled by justice The thing speaks for itself Let the master answer
3 . The thing speaks for itself
49
Legal documents that are formulated by a competent person that provide written information concerning the patient’s desires if the patient is unable to make the decision on his or her own is defined as: A Living Will Advanced Directive DNR Durable Power Of Attorney For Health Care
advanced directive
50
Immature cells are referred to as all of the following except? Undifferentiated Cells Stem Cells Genetic Cells Young Cells
genetic cells
51
Medical and dental radiation accounts for what percentage of the general public’s exposure to human made radiation? 10% 50 % 75% 90%
90%
52
``` The Law of Bergonie and Tribondeau states that cells are more radiosensitive if they are all of the following except?   Highly Proliferative Highly Undifferentiated Oxygen Deprived Immature ```
oxygen deprived
53
``` An increase in total filtration of the x-ray beam will increase?   Beam HVL Patient Skin Dose Image Contrast Mr Output ```
Beam HVL
54
``` In fluoroscopy, the AEC adjusts the   kVp and mA backup timer ma and time kvp and time ```
1. kvp and mA
55
The voltage ripple associated with a 3-phase 6-pulse rectified generator is about 100 Percent 32 Percent 13 Percent 3 Percent
3. 13%
56
Which of the following devices is used to control voltage by varying resistance? Autotransofrmer High-voltage Transformer Rheostat Fuse
Rheostat
57
Which of the following is used in digital fluoroscopy, replacing the image intensifier’s television tube? * Solid-state Diode * Charge-coupled Device * Photostimulable Phosphor * Vidicon
CCD
58
The device used to test the accuracy of the x-ray timer is Densitometer Sensitometer Penetrometer Spinning Top
Spinning top
59
Light-sensitive AEC devices are known as Phototimers Ionization Chambers Sensors Backup Timers
phototimers
60
The total number of x-ray photons produced at the target is contingent on all of the following except: Tube current Target material Square of the kV The size of the window opening
the size of the window opening
61
Which portions of the hip bone join to form the obturator foramen? 1. Illium and pubis only 2. Illium and ischium only 3. Pubis and ischium only 4. Pubis, ischium, and illuim
pubis and ishium only
62
Which vertebral structures are best demonstrated with the AP oblique projection of the lumbar vertebral column with the patient LPO? 1. Intervertebral foramina 2. Lumbar vertebral bodies in profile 3. Zygapophyseal joints of the left side 4. Zygapophyseal joints of the right side
#3 z-joints on the left side
63
When performing the transthoracic lateral projection (Lawrence method) of the humerus, which breathing technique should be used to best improve the image contrast and decrease the exposure necessary to penetrate the body? 1. Rapid breathing 2. Shallow breathing 3. Suspended full expiration 4. Suspended full inspiration
4
64
Factors that can increase the potential for nosocomial infections include all of the following except? Age Inadequate rest and exercise Health status Gender
gender
65
What is the correct treatment for extravasation of contrast media during an IV injection? 1.Apply a hot compress 2. Apply a cold compress 3. Apply pressure to the vein until bleeding stops 4. Remove the needle and locate a sturdier vein immediately
3
66
Where on the femur is the lesser trochanter located? 1.Lateral and anterior 2. Lateral and posterior 3. Medial and anterior 4. Medial and posterior
medial and posterior
67
For the AP axial projection of the bladder, how many degrees and in which direction should the central ray be directed? 15 degrees caudal 15 degrees cephalic 25 degrees caudal 25 degrees cephalic
1. 15 degrees caudal
68
Which two structures of the large intestine are demonstrated primarily with the PA oblique projection, LAO position? 1. Left colic flexure and ascending colon 2. Left colic flexure and descending colon 3. Right colic flexure and ascending colon 4. Right colic flexure and descending colon
2. left colic flexure and descending colon ***** pt. is prone , side down will be seen
69
Which procedure should be performed to help demonstrated a diaphragmatic herniation (hiatal hernia)? 1. Tilt the table to Fowler’s angulation 2. Place the patient in the upright position 3. Tilt the table to the Trendelenburg angulation 4. Place the patient in the right lateral recumbent position
3 trendelenbug
70
How many degrees and in which direction should the central ray be directed for the lateral projection of the lumbar vertebral column when the lumbar vertebral column is not parallel with the table?   1.Perpendicular for males, 8 degrees caudad for females 2. Perpendicular for females, 5 degrees caudad for males 3. 5 degrees caudad for males, 8 degrees caudad for females 4. 5 degrees caudad for females, 8 degrees caudad for males
3
71
Which of the following cell types has the least radiosensitivity in adult humans? Nerve cells Muscle cells Speramtids Lymphocytes
nerve cells
72
The interaction between ionizing radiation and the target molecule that is most likely to occur is the direct effect indirect effect Target effect random effect
Indirect | 2
73
A Bucky slot cover must be at least: 1. 0 .5 mm aluminum equivalent 2. 0.25 mm aluminum equivalent 3. 0 .5 mm lead equivalent 4. 0 .25 mm lead equivalent
40 .25 mm lead equivalent
74
The ability of the incident photon to be transmitted depends on the 1. Scatter 2. Spatial resolution 3. Atomic number and material 4. Contrast resolution
3. Atomic number and material
75
The skin response to radiation exposure that appears as hair loss is known as Dry desquamation Moist desquamation Erythemia Epilation
#4 Epilation
76
Which of the following would most likely result in the greatest skin dose? Short SID High kVp Increased filtration Increased mA
short SID
77
The SSD in mobile radiography must be: 1.Minimum of 12” 2. Maximum of 12” 3. Minimum of 15” 4. Maximum of 15”
1. min. of 12"
78
``` The dose that will cause a noticeable skin reaction is referred to as the LET SSD SED SID ```
3 = SED skin erythema dose
79
The process of “leveling and windowing” of digital images determines the image Spatial resolution Contrast Pixel size Matrix size
contrast
80
For the same FOV, spatial resolution will be improved using Smaller matrix Larger matrix Fewer pixels Faster screens
larger matrix - smaller pixel size = better resolution
81
Which of the following pathologic conditions would require a decrease in exposure factors? CHF Pneumonia Emphysema Pleural effusion
emphysema
82
Materials that emit light when stimulated by x-ray photons are called Ions Electrodes Crystals Phosphors
phosphors
83
The continued emission of light by a phosphor after the activation source has ceased is termed 1. Fluorescence 2. Phosphorescence 3. Image Intensification 4. Quantum mottle
2. Phosphorescence
84
Which of the following possess the widest dynamic range? CR high speed screens slow speed screens AEC
1. CR
85
Changes in mA can affect all of the following except 1. Quantity of x-ray photons produced 2. Exposure rate 3. Optical density 4. Recorded detail
4. Recorded detail
86
Which of the following has the greatest effect on radiographic density? 1. Aluminum filtration 2. kVp 3. SID 4. scattered radiation
3. SID
87
To demonstrate the glenoid fossa in profile, the patient is positioned? 1. 45 degrees oblique, affected side up 2. 45 degrees oblique, affected side down 3. 25 degrees oblique, affected side up 4. 25 degrees oblique, affected side down
2. 45 degrees oblique, affected side down
88
``` What percentage of x-ray attenuation does a 0.5 mm Pb equivalent apron at 75 kVp provide? 51% 66% 75% 88% ```
4. 88%
89
Esophageal varices are best demonstrated in which position
recumbent
90
Which of the following vessel does not carry oxygenated blood? Pulmonary vein Pulmonary artery Coronary artery Chordae tendineae
pulmonary artery
91
The medical term used to describe the vomiting of blood is Hematemesis Hemopytsis Hematuria Epistaxis
1 Hematemesis
92
A blowout fracture usually occurs in which aspect of the orbital wall? Inferior Lateral Superior Medial
1. Inferior
93
The annual occupational dose limit for medical imaging personnel includes radiation from: ``` Medical x-rays Occupational exposure Background radiation   1 only 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2, and 3 ```
2 only