Final review Flashcards by Laura Kirwan

What is a normal pulse rate for a healthy adult

60-100 beats/minute

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Systolic blood pressure corresponds with the contraction of which chamber of the heart

Left ventricle contraction

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What is a normal blood pressure

120/80 or less

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Diastolic blood pressure corresponds to

Ventricular diastole or ventricular relaxation

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Initial electrical impulse in the heart is generated by the

Sinus node

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An elevated ST segment on an EKG indicates what

Myocardial infarction

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Which reasons might a patient’s pulse ox reading fall below 90%

Sleep apnea

Poorly placed oximetry sensor

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

Cardiac arrest

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Which aspect of the EKG rhythm strip represents the electrical conduction through the atria of the heart

P segment (the first little bump)

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Which aspect of the EKG rhythm strips represents the electrical activity of the ventricles during diastole e

T segment

small little bump at the end

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Normal range for BUN

7-21 mg/dL

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What factors can cause creatinine levels to fluctuate

Age

Muscle mass

Hydration

Gender

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Which tests are used for renal function

BUN

Creatinine

GFR

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Which tests are hematology tests

Hematocrit

Hemoglobin

Platelets

WBC

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What tests are coagulation tests

PT (Prothrombin time)

PTT (Partial thromboplastin time)

INR (International standardized ratio)

ACT (activated coagulation time)

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What is the normal range for creatinine

0.7-1.5mg/dL

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What is the normal GFR range

90-120

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A GFR below 90 would indicate what

Poor renal function

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A GFR below 30 would indicate

Potential renal failure

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A BUN over 50 would indicate

Potential renal failure

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A creatinine over 2 indicates what

Potential renal failure

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What factors are used to calculate a patient’s GFR

Creatinine level

Age

Gender

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What represents the amount of red blood cells in whole blood

Hematocrit

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Which lab tests may help to indicate if a patient has anemia

Hemoglobin

Hematocrit

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Which lab tests May indicate bleeding or blood loss

Hematocrit

Hemoglobin

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What lab test may indicate a patient's potential for bleeding

Platelet count PTT PT INR ACT

What is a normal hemoglobin range for males

14-17

What is a normal hemoglobin range for females

12-15

A software program that allows for digital documentation of all patient health information

EHR

This system has replaced hard copy and film storage systems in most Radiology departments

PACS

"Meaningful use" is a set of electronic medical records standards as governed by

Center for Medicare and Medicaid services (CMS)

An information-sharing system unique to the diagnostic imaging department is identified as

RIS

The acronym PACS stands for

Picture archiving and communication system

A PACS program consists of what three things

Storage device Display workstation Imaging modality

The acronym RIS stands for

Radiology information system

Definitions for appropriate sharing of personally identified health information is largely provided by

Health insurance portability and accountability Act (HIPAA)

Define embolism

Anything blocking a vessel

Define thrombus

Clotting within a vessel

Define thrombotic embolism

Condition in which the formation or movement of a thrombus occludes a vessel causing infarction of the tissues being supplied by the vessel

Define CVA

A critical condition in which a thrombus in the brain causes irreversible damage to brain cells

Define TIA

Focal cerebral ischemia not associated with permanent cerebral infarction

How long do the symptoms of a TIA typically last

Less than 1 hour

Which of the following terms are synonymous Ischemic stroke Transient ischemic attack Cerebral infarct Cerebrovascular accident

Ischemic stroke Cerebral infarct Cerebrovascular accident

Which signs/symptoms are often associated with CVA

Acute confusion Permanent brain infarction Acute dysphasia Unilateral weakness

Define cardiogenic shock

A physiologic state in which inadequate tissue perfusion results from cardiac dysfunction

Define myocardial infarction

Irreversible necrosis of heart muscle secondary to prolonged ischemia

Define congestive heart failure

A clinical syndrome in which the heart fails to pump blood at the rate required by the metabolizing tissues

Define cardiac tamponade

A clinical syndrome caused by the accumulation of fluid in the pericardial space

Which of these compensatory mechanisms are associated with CHF Increased blood volume Increased cardiac filling pressure Decreased heart rate Decreased myocardial mass

Increased blood volume Increased cardiac filling pressure

Which of the following is a critical cardiac arrhythmia Ventricular tachycardia Atrial fibrillation Ventricular fibrillation Asystole

Ventricular tachycardia Ventricular fibrillation Asystole

Which of these cardiac conditions can cause inadequate ventricular filling in the presence of a healthy myocardium Myocardial infarction Congestive heart failure Cardiogenic shock Cardiac tamponade

Cardiac tamponade

Which of these conditions typically occurs secondary to myocardial infarction Cardiogenic shock Cardiac tamponade Congestive heart failure Transient ischemic attack

Cardiogenic shock

Which of these conditions is caused by a thrombus in the coronary arteries Congestive heart failure Cardiac tamponade Myocardial infarction Cardiogenic shock

Myocardial infarction

Which of the following can cause respiratory arrest Trauma Airway obstruction Respiratory muscle weakness Decreased respiratory drive

All of them

Which of the following are clinical signs of anaphylaxis Hypertension Airway edema Vasoconstriction Mucus secretions

Airway edema Mucus secretions

Hypotension and hypertension are always secondary to other clinical conditions true or false

False

Which of the following could potentially cause a vasovagal response Anxiety Fear Medications Pain

All of them

Which of the following are considered common vasovagal responses Fainting Spontaneous arrhythmias Syncope Death

Fainting Syncope

Which of the following correctly describes the intended effect of contrast agent administration in medical imaging Enhance tissue discrimination Differentiate between normal tissues Differentiate between normal tissues and abnormalities Stimulate physiological response in abnormal tissues

Enhanced issue discrimination Differentiate between normal tissues Differentiate between normal tissues and abnormalities

Tissue differentiation in sonography imaging is based on

Tissue harmonics

Tissue differentiation in MRI imaging is based on

Variable nuclear resonance

Tissue differentiation in Interventional Imaging is based on

Differential attenuation of the radiation beam

Tissue differentiation in a computed tomography is based on

Differential attenuation of the radiation beam

Which of these materials would be correctly described as paramagnetic Iodine Air Microbubbles Iron

Iron

Differential ultrasonic imaging may be enhanced with what type of contrast

Microbubbles

Describe what effect a non-toxic contrast agent has on the body

Unless it's minimal adverse effects in the body

Describe what effect a stable contrast agent has on the body

Does not break down in the body

Describe what effect an inert contrast agent has on the body

Does not readily react with other chemicals or medications

Describe what effect contrast agent specificity has on the body

Engages only the organs or tissues it is intended to affect

A contrast material requiring a large volume injection to produce the necessary image contrast would be described as having poor

Carrier efficiency

The harmonic qualities of tissues and materials is a physical characteristic most relevant to which imaging modality

Sonography

The administration of a gadolinium nanoparticle for an MRI procedure would have the most pronounced effect on which aspect of the digital image Spatial resolution Temporal resolution Contrast resolution Digital matrix size

Contrast resolution

A patient in your department is injected with an iodonated contrast material. Which of these reactions would be described as a normal, non-idiosyncratic response to the contrast agent Sensations of warmth Persistent vomiting Pulmonary edema Scattered urticaria

Sensations of warmth

Mild palpitations, tachycardia, and bradycardia are all symptoms of which level of contrast reaction Non-idiosyncratic Moderate Mild Severe

Moderate

With which of these symptoms of a contrast reaction to the administration of contrast be stopped immediately Laryngeal edema Bronchospasm Hives Dizziness

All of them

Define diaphoresis

Sweating

Define urticaria

Hives

Define pruritus

Itching

Define rhinorrhea

Runny nose

Define retching

Dry heaving

Define laryngeal edema

Throat swelling

The imager's response to a contrast reaction should include Call for nursing and physician on staff Have contrast reaction kit and O2 mask on hand Acquire vital signs Be prepared to call a code blue if necessary

All of them

A patient presented to your department has a regular bowel incontinence and has an accident on the examination table it was later determined that patient has c-diff as a consequence of inadequate cleaning of the exam table at least one other patients can do later in the day develops the same infection this type of infection is referred to as

Nosocomial

Acquiring an infectious agent while bathing a patient is what kind of transmission

Direct contact

Influenza requires what kind of isolation precaution

Droplet isolation

Acquiring an infectious agent through the hospital ventilation system is what kind of transmission

Airborne

Another word for aseptic technique

Sterile technique

What procedure is focused on the absence of pathogenic organisms but does not require items to be sterile

Medical asepsis

Procedures including hand washing, routine equipment cleaning, and proper personal hygiene are considered

Medical asepsis

What procedures should be followed any time the patient's skin is intentionally perforated

Sterile technique

What procedures should be used during procedures involving entry into the peritoneal cavity

Sterile technique

Another term for "clean technique"

Medical asepsis

What procedure is required during IV catheter insertion

Sterile technique

Which of the following applies to a patient with standard precautions Hand hygiene Safe injection practices Use of personal protective equipment Respiratory hygiene/cough edicate

All of them

Which of the following is a transmission based infection precaution Contact isolation Droplet isolation Standard precaution Airborne isolation

Contact isolation Droplet isolation Airborne isolation

What isolation precaution is applicable to a patient with an infectious condition that may be transmitted through skin-to-skin contact

Contact isolation

Which precaution is most relevant when a patient care is an infectious agent that can be carried by sputum droplets through the air

Droplet isolation

Pneumonia requires what kind of isolation precaution

Droplet isolation

Meningitis requires what kind of isolation precaution

Droplet isolation

What type of isolation precaution is used for all patients at all times

Standard precautions

Which type of isolation precautions require special air handling units

Airborne isolation

Tuberculosis requires what kind of isolation precaution

Airborne isolation

What type of isolation precaution is most relevant when infectious agents can be suspended in air for long periods of time over long distances

Airborne isolation

MRSA requires what kind of isolation precaution

Contact isolation

C-diff requires what kind of isolation precaution

Contact isolation

Acquiring an infectious agent by touching a contaminated door handle is what kind of transmission

Indirect contact

876 year old female is brought to your department for imaging of the abdomen. The patient is in contact isolation for MRSA. To avoid transmitting this infection to other patients you should Shut down the room after the patients departure Wash your hands after the procedure Wear a fitted surgical mask during the examination Disinfect any equipment used for imaging

Wash your hands after the procedure Disinfect and equipment used for imaging

Which precaution is most relevant when infectious agents may be spread through a contaminated EKG machine

Contact isolation

VRE requires what kind of isolation precaution

Contact isolation

What type of precaution is the most relevant when a patient care is an infectious agent that may be spread through talking, sneezing, or coughing

Droplet isolation

You receive a requisition in your department to complete an imaging procedure of a patient's lower extremity. This patient has VRE. An appropriate way of minimizing potential infection to other patients in this situation is Perform the exam portably in the patient's room Wear a mask during the examination Request the patient wears a mask during the examination Perform the exam in a negative pressure room

Perform the exam portably in the patient's room

Reusing gloves between patients is most likely to result in what kind of infection transmission Influenza C-diff Meningitis Pneumonia

C-diff

What factors potentially affect the human body's response to a medication

Patient weight Patient immune status Patient gender Patient age

Define duration of action

The time during which the drug is in the body and elicits a therapeutic response

Define onset of action

The point at which a drug reaches its intended effect

Define maximum Peak

This is when a drug reaches its highest potential and begins to subside

Define antagonist

A drug or natural substance that is attracted to and blocks specific receptor sites

Define therapeutic index (TI)

A measure of the relative safety of a drug

Define drug receptors

Specific biologic sites located on a cell surface or within the cell

Define Agonist

A drug or natural substance with an attraction to a specific receptor site that produces a physiologic response

Which of the following represents the most desirable therapeutic index 10: 1 1: 1 2: 1 200: 1

200:1

Define narcotic

Opium-based or opium-like pain relievers

Define analgesic

Pain relievers

Define sedatives

A drug that calms anxiety

Define antibiotics

A soluble substance derived from a mold or bacteria that kills or inhibits the growth of other microorganisms

Define anxiolytics

An anti-anxiety medication

Define antiemetic

A drug that prevents or minimizes nausea and vomiting

Define anticoagulant

A drug that prevents or reduces the coagulation of blood

Define vasoconstrictors

A drug causing increased blood pressure

Define anti-arrhythmic

A medication that may prevent tachycardia

Define thrombolytics

A clot dissolving medication

Define vasodilators

A drug causing relaxation and opening of blood vessels

What drug classification do calcium channel blockers fall under

Anti-arrhythmic

What drug classification does epinephrine fall under

Vasoconstrictor

What drug classification does Xanax fall under

Anxiolytic

What drug classification does tPA fall under

Thrombolytic

What drug classification does Zofran fall under

Antiemetic

What drug classification does fentanyl fall under

Narcotic

What drug classification does Valium fall under

Sedative

What drug classification does tetracycline fall under

Antibiotic

What drug classification does Coumadin fall under

Anticoagulant

What drug classification does aspirin fall under

Antiplatelet Analgesic Anticoagulant

What drug classification does morphine fall under

Narcotic

Which of these drugs is known to increase heart rate, constrict blood vessels, dilate air passages, and stimulate the sympathetic nervous response Benadryl Oxygen Albuterol Epinephrine

Epinephrine

Which of these medications might be valuable to a patient having a respiratory reaction to ICM Atropine Albuterol Atenolol Oxygen

Albuterol Oxygen

Which of these medications function as an immunosuppressant to counteract hives and/or itching Epinephrine Solu-Medrol Benadryl Atropine

Benadryl Solu-Medrol

Which of these medications would be valuable to a patient experiencing hypotension or bradycardia during and medication reaction Benadryl Atropine Versed Epinephrine

Epinephrine Atropine

What medication types. The body's inflammatory response to iodinated contrast Diazepam Solu-Medrol Epinephrine Benadryl

Solu-Medrol Benadryl

Which of these medications would be useful to a patient experiencing acute dyspnea? (choose all correct) Epinephrine Albuterol Zofran Oxygen

Epinephrine Albuterol Oxygen

A patient with atrial fibrillation is prone to ischemia stroke as a result of blood thrombi formed in the heart and deposited in the cerebrum. Examples of medications that may reduce the risk of stroke for this patient are: (choose all correct) warfarin epinephrine diazepam heparin

warfarin | heparin

A patient with severe pulmonary edema is brought to your department for an examination of the lungs. A patient with this condition is likely to be on which of these medications? Atropine Lasix Normal saline Epinephrine

Lasix

CT angiography of the heart is sometimes performed prior to ablation procedures in patients with atrial fibrillation. Which of these medications may help to stabilize the rhythm of the heart during the CT angiography study? Antibiotic Antiemetic Narcotic Beta-blocker

Beta-blocker

Describe deep sedation

limited response to stimuli

Describe general anesthesia

requires significant support of vital functions

Describe anxiolysis sedation

relaxes patient and reduced anxiety

Describe conscious sedation

patient follows specific instructions

Which of these medications are likely to be used together for sedation and analgesia during a radiology procedure? (choose all correct) midazolam hydromorphone morphine fentanyl

midazolam | fentanyl

When should vital signs be assessed for a patient scheduled for an interventional procedure requiring some level of sedation? (choose all correct) after the procedure before the procedure only during deep sedation during the procedure

after the procedure before the procedure during the procedure

Final review Flashcards

(157 cards)