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1
Q

How is Squamous Papilloma caused:

A

HPV 6 and 11 infection

2
Q

From which other disease is difficult to distinguish Squamous Papilloma from?

A

verruca vulgaris, condyloma acuminatum, verruciform xanthoma, or multifocal epithelial hyperplasia

3
Q

Verruca Vulgaris (Common Wart):

caused by:
most often in which people:

A
  • HPV 2
  • Is contagious and can spread to other parts of a person’s skin or mucosa
  • Most often arises in children
4
Q

SOS

Condyloma Acuminatum (Veneral Wart):

=
caused by:
how is transmitted?
which people?

A

=is an HPV virus of stratisfied squamous epithelium

  • HPV 6 and 11
  • sexually transmitted disease
  • anogenital region, mouth, and larynx
  • anogenital condylomata infected with HPV 16 or 18
  • Is usually seen in immunocompromised patients
5
Q

SOS

Histopathologic Features of Condyloma Acuminatum (Veneral Wart):

A
  • multiple pieces of soft tissue composed of papillary surface epithelium with an underlying fibrous CT core
  • the spinous layer has cells with empty looking cytoplasm and small nuclei consistent with koilocytes
6
Q

Keratoacanthoma is caused by:

A

sun damage, tar exposure, HPV, immunosuppression, certain drugs, tattooing, and burns or trauma

7
Q

Inflammatory Papillary Hyperplasia:

=
caused by?

A
  • reactive tissue growth
  • in maxilla

Due to:
• Ill-fitting denture
• Poor denture hygiene
• Wearing the denture 24 hours a day

8
Q

Inflammatory Papillary Hyperplasia - Clinical Features:

where does it occur?
symptomatic or not

A
  • early lesions may involve only the PALATAL VAULT, although advanced cases cover most of the palate
  • asymptomatic
9
Q

Verruciform Xanthoma probably represents an:

A

unusual reaction or immune response to localized epithelial trauma or damage

10
Q

Clinical Features of Verruciform Xanthoma:

A
  • on the gingiva and alveolar mucosa

- well-demarcated lesion

11
Q

SOS

What is the most common benign salivary neoplasm?

a. mucocele
b. ranula
c. warhin’s tumor
d. none of the above

A

d. none of the above

answer: pleomorphic adenoma

12
Q

SOS

What is the most common malignant neoplasm?

A

mucoepidermoid carcinoma

13
Q

SOS

What is the most common side for major salivary gland tumors? (in general)

A

parotid

14
Q

SOS

What is the most common intraoral side for minor salivary gland tumor?

A

palate

15
Q

SOS

Bilateral parotid glands are most likely in what type of benign tumors?

A

warthin tumors

16
Q

SOS

Older females and salivary gland in upper lip most likely will be?
What benign neoplasm is most likely to appear in the upper lip?

A

canalicular adenoma

  • is most often in OLDER females
  • may also be a basal cell adenoma
17
Q

SOS

Association pain due to perineural invasion what is the first malignant neoplasm that comes in mind?

A

adenoid cystic carcinoma (ACC)

18
Q

SOS

If the tumor is ulcerated or is in palate/parotid gland and we have facial nerve paralysis or weakness this tumor is always: benign or malignant?

A

Malignant until proven otherwise

19
Q

SOS

What is the most common malignancy in children? (salivary gland)
Where?

A

mucoepidermoid carcinoma

-in parotid gland most common

20
Q

SOS

Which malignant salivary neoplasm is almost exclusively a tumor of the minor salivary glands?
/ Minor salivary gland, only seen on palate, painless, or can erode the underlying bone - we are talking about:

A

Polymorphous low grade adenocarcinoma (plga)

-exclusively on minor salivary gland

21
Q

SOS

Differential diagnosis depends/based on:

A

the SITE of the tumor and the clinical FEATURES

22
Q

SOS

If there is a tumor in the palate and overlying mucosa is ulcerated and the ulceration is not related to trauma or biopsy the mass is malignant or benign?

A

malignant until proven otherwise

23
Q

SOS

If there is a tumor in the parotid gland WITHOUT any facial nerve paralysis or weakness the first in mind will be:

If there is a tumor in the parotid gland WITH facial nerve paralysis or weakness the first in mind will be:

Which malignant tumor is not in parotid gland:

A

benign neoplasms (ex: pleomorphic adenoma, warthin tumor or basal cell adenoma) and secondly: malignant tumor such as neuroepidermoid carcinoma low graded

mucoepidermoid carcinoma high graded (1st) b/c of its propercity to appear in parotid gland and (2ndly) carcinoma ex pleomorphic adenoma, acinic cell carcinoma, MASC of coarse

polymorphous low grade adenocarcinoma

24
Q

SOS

If the tumor appears in the upper lip you can have in mind which types of tumors?

A
canalicular adenoma
basal cell adenoma (can occur in upper lip but most commonly in parotid gland)
plga
acinic cell carcinoma
MASC

=>pleomorphic adenoma(uncommon in upper lip)

25
Q

SOS

A tumor in the parotid gland is most likely to be benign or malignant?

A

benign

26
Q

SOS

A tumor in submandibular and sublingual gland is most likely to be benign or malignant?

A

malignant

27
Q

SOS

Which type of tumor is most likely for older smoking males with bilateral parotid gland to have?

A

warthin tumors

28
Q

SOS

If the tumor is in palate and has an intact mucosa, what type of tumor is it?

A

benign salivary gland neoplasm
-> pleomorphic adenoma

low grade b/c of intact mucosa
you can also consider acinic cell carcinoma and plga and also non-salivary gland tumors like non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma and other benign neural tissue tumors like neurofibroma

29
Q

Warthin tumor:

A
  • exclusivelly in parotid gland
  • occurs billaterally
  • most common in: older men who smoke
  • painless
  • will not be present in the deep lobe of the parotid gland or in an oral site
30
Q

What imaging test would be most appropriate for a woman presented with a firm, expanding mass of one of her parotid glands?

A

ultrasound, but computed tomography is an

alternative first-line imaging to ultrasound

31
Q

For what type of salivary gland disease is MRI particularly effective?

A
  • Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) distinguishes the water content of tissue, so is effective in diagnosing soft-tissue lesions
  • MRI is especially good at differentiating between cystic and solid masses
32
Q

Which is the most common location of the the most common benign salivary neoplasm??

A

parotid

33
Q

When benign salivary neoplasms arise in the oral mucosa, which is the site of predilection?

A

palate and also upper lip

34
Q

Which is the 2nd most common benign salivary neoplasm?

A

warthin

35
Q

what is a leiomyoma?

A

= benign tumor of smooth muscle

36
Q

what are the types of leiomyomas:

A

2 common types in oral cavity - solid or vascular

37
Q

From which side of the lesion you will take a sample for incisional biopsy?

A

center of the tissue b/c maybe there is an information that you may lose it so include both a bit of ulcer and a bit of border

38
Q

Why mucoepidermoid carcinoma sometimes appears bluish? What a blue colored MEC can be mistaken clinically for?

A

Mucocele

39
Q

SOS

Which is the most common location of the the most common malignant salivary neoplasm??

2nd most common?

A

parotid gland

palate

40
Q

SOS

Cheilitis Glandularis occurs on:

A

lower lip vermilion

41
Q

SOS

Cheilitis Glandularis types:

A

based on the severity of the disease

  1. Simple
  2. Superficial suppurative (Baelz disease) !!!!!!!!!!!!
  3. Deep suppurative
42
Q

SOS

Acute form of Sarcoidosis:

A
  1. Heerfordt-Waldenstrom Syndrome = Uveoparotid fever !!!!!

2. Lofgren Syndrome

43
Q

SOS

Ocular involvement is noted in sarcoidosis cases and most often appears as:

A

Anterior uveitis

44
Q

SOS

Intraosseous lesions cases in Sarcoidosis, most appeared as:

A

ill-defined radiolucencies eroding the cortex but never create an expansion

45
Q

SOS

Sarcoidosis - histopathological features:

A

Schaumann bodies - are degenerated

lysosomes/lesions

46
Q

SOS

Scleroderma - other name called as?

A

or Systemic sclerosis

47
Q

SOS

Scleroderma clinical feature:

A

microstomia

48
Q

SOS

Salivary Benign Lymphoepithelial Lesion:

according to Sjogren and lymphoma

A

lymphocyte hyperplasia of the salivary gland is not contributed to Sjogren b/c a 50% of pt with that disease do not have Sjogren, but Sjogren pts have a high possibilty of developing lymphoma

-take biopsy and other laboratory tests to rule out lymphoma

49
Q

SOS

Salivary Benign Lymphoepithelial Lesion - histopathological features:

A

epimyoepithelial islands show infiltration by the lymphocytic infiltrate

50
Q

SOS

The most important disease to differentiate from Salivary Benign Lymphoepithelial Lesion is:

A

Malignant lymphoma

51
Q

What is the most common type of peripheral nerve neoplasm?

A

Neurofibroma

52
Q

Most important clinical risk factor of Sjogren syndrome is:

A

Salivary gland enlargement

53
Q

What is Keratoacanthoma?

A

self-limiting, epithelial proliferation with a strong clinical and histopathologic similarity to well- differentiated squamous cell carcinoma

54
Q

Squamous Papilloma - extensive coalescing papillary lesions (papillomatosis) of the oral mucosa may be seen in:

A

nevus unius lateris, acanthosis nigricans, focal dermal
hypoplasia (Goltz-Gorlin) syndrome, and Down
syndrome

55
Q

Mucus Retention Cyst - Salivary Duct Cyst =

A

true developmental cyst that arises from salivary gland tissue and is lined by epithelium

56
Q

Are mucoceles true cysts?

A

no b/c it is not lined by epithelium

  • difference with the mucus retention cyst
  • by the histopathologic identification of an epithelial lining rather than a lining of granulation tissue
57
Q

Why is Mucus Retention Cyst a true cyst?

A

b/c it is lined by epithelium

58
Q

What is the most common location of Necrotizing Sialometaplasia?

A

minor salivary glands- palate

59
Q

Necrotizing Sialometaplasia can be misdiagnosed with:

A

squamous cell carcinoma
or
mucoepidermoid carcinoma

60
Q

The most common salivary gland in Sialolithiasis is:

a. sublingual gland
b. parotid gland
c. submandibular gland
d. both a and b

A

c. submandibular gland

61
Q

Sialolithiasis causes:

A

swelling of the affected gland, especially at meal- time

62
Q

Sialadenitis - most common viral infection is:

A

mumps

63
Q

Obstruction caused by:

A

sialolithiasis and ductal strictures

64
Q

Which tests do you use for stones?

A

Sialography, ultrasound, and CT scanning

65
Q

What other diseases cause parotid gland enlargement?

A

diabetes, bulimia, alcohol use

+sialolithiasis

66
Q

Which most common bacteria cause sialadenitis?

A

Staphylococcus aureus or streptococcal species

67
Q

Which are the most common characteristics of Melkersson-Rosenthal syndrome?

A

Fissured tongue, swollen lip(s), recurrent episodes of

orofacial edema and unilateral facial paralysis

68
Q

What is Epulis Fissuratum?

A

= hyperplasia of the soft fibrous tissue caused from ill fitting denture
-forms single or multiple folds

69
Q

What is the treatment of Epulis Fissuratum?

A

excision, new denture or smoothing the borders/linings for better fitting

70
Q

Verruciform Xanthoma may be similar to:

A

squamous papilloma, condyloma acuminatum, or early carcinoma

71
Q

Fibrous Histiocytoma most commonly seen in which areas?

A

skin of the extremities

but also tongue, floor of the mouth, or buccal mucosa

72
Q

Fibrous Histiocytoma - clinical features:

A

Painless nodular mass

73
Q

Histopathologic Features of Fibrous Histiocytoma:

A
  • storiform pattern of spindle shaped fibroblastic cells

- histiocyte-like cells, lipid-containing xanthoma cells

74
Q

Bilateral schwannomas are a characteristic feature of:

A

neurofibromatosis type II (NF2)

75
Q

what type of disease is Schwannoma?

A

genetic disorder

schwannomatosis

76
Q

Schwannoma - clinical features and where it occurs:

A
  • The tongue is the favored location. Other sites which can be involved are palate, floor of mouth and buccal mucosa
  • slow-growing but may undergo a sudden increase in size
77
Q

Histopathologic Features of Schwannoma in Antoni A pattern:

A
  • more distinctive and better organized pattern
  • nuclei lie in palisaded clusters
  • shows a haphazard arrangement of Schwann cells in a loose stroma, which contains small vacuoles

When two such clusters occur around an eosinophilic mass, the resultant structure is called a Verocay body

78
Q

From which cells does the neurofibroma arise from?

A

mixture of cell types, including Schwann cells and perineural fibroblasts

79
Q

single neurofibroma may be the first sign of:

A

neurofibromatosis

80
Q

Neurofibroma - Clinical Features:

common sites:
tumor can arise:

A

tongue and buccal mucosa

tumor can arise centrally within bone

81
Q

Neurofibromatosis type I (Von Recklinghausen) - Clinical Features:

A
  • Neurofibromas
  • Café au lait spots
  • Crowe’s sign
  • Lisch bodies
82
Q

SOS

Μultiple Εndocrine Νeoplasia (MEN) Syndromes:
MEN 2B involves primarily:

A
  • Multiple mucosal and intestinal neuromas
  • Medullary thyroid carcinoma
  • Pheochromocytoma
83
Q

Vascular Tumors and Vascular Malformations - Capillary hemangiomas:

A

most common in children
located in oral mucosa, tongue and skin
regress spontaneously
surgical treatment is not recommended

84
Q

Small Capillary Malformations

are common in:
known by various names:

A
  • newborns

- stork bite, nevus flammeus, port wine stains, angel’s kiss

85
Q

Sturge-Weber Syndrome:

A

Usually has a unilateral distribution along one or more segments of the trigeminal nerve

86
Q

SOS

Lymphatic malformations =

A
  • Is SUPERFICIAL in location and demonstrates a pebbly surface that resembles a cluster of translucent vesicles
  • Secondary hemorrhage into the lymphatic spaces may cause some of these “vesicles” to become purple
87
Q

Fibrosarcoma - Histopathologic Features:

A

spindle cell sarcomas forming a “herringbone” pattern

88
Q

Malignant Fibrous Histiocytoma =

A

= an expanding mass that may or may not be painful or ulcerated

89
Q

Malignant Fibrous Histiocytoma symptoms in the mandible Vs maxilla:

A

In the mandible, they may produce paresthesia of the lower lip and in the maxilla paresthesia of the cheek

90
Q

Histopathologic Features of Malignant Fibrous Histiocytoma:

A

storiform pleomorphic type: spindle cells arranged in a storiform pattern, admixed with areas of pleomorphic giant cells

91
Q

Liposarcoma:

=
clinical features:
most common site:

A

malignant neoplasm of fatty origin

Soft, slow-growing, ill-defined mass that may appear normal in color or yellow

neck
most frequent intraoral locations are the tongue and cheek

92
Q

Which is the most common soft tissue sarcoma in adults?

A

Liposarcoma

93
Q

Rhabdomyosarcoma

=
most common in:
most frequent site:
common clinical features:

A

are malignant tumors of primitive mesenchymal cells that undergo partial rhabdomyoblast differentiation

children, males

head and neck

grow rapidly which readily invades and destroys bone

94
Q

Histopathologic Features - Rhabdomyosarcoma:

A

Stellate-shaped, spindle small round or oval cells with hyperchromatic nuclei and indistinct cytoplasm with more compact cellular areas and less cellular myxoid areas

95
Q

SOS

Kaposi Sarcoma caused by:

A

HPV 8

96
Q

SOS

Kaposi Sarcoma

clinical features:
most commonly seen in:
most common type:

A

multiple blue-purple macules and plaques
lesions grow slowly over many years and develop into painless tumor nodules

late adult life - in men

Classic Type

97
Q

SOS

Kaposi Sarcoma oral lesions are more often found in:

A

The oral cavity is the initial site of involvement in 22% of patients with KS, and oral lesions are found more often in AIDS-related KS than other types of KS. Approximately 70% of individuals with AIDS-related KS demonstrate oral lesions at some point

-common for oral lesion is the AIDS related KS

98
Q

What are the most common sites for men and women for Metastatic tumors to the oral cavity?

A

men: lung cancer followed by renal carcinoma and
melanoma

women: breast cancer followed by malignancies of the genital organs, kidney, lung, and bone

99
Q

Mucoepidermoid Carcinoma - Histopathologic Features:

A

Mixture of mucus-producing cells and squamous
(epidermoid) cells

  • encapsulated neoplasm
  • cystic spaces that are lined by mucous cells, epidermoid cells and clear cells
100
Q

SOS

Which is the most newly recognized salivary gland malignancy?

A

Mammary Analogue Secretory Carcinoma (MASC)

101
Q

Cribriform pattern of Adenoid Cystic Carcinoma (ACC):

A

Islands of basaloid epithelial cells that contain multiple cyst like spaces resembling Swiss cheese

102
Q

Pleomorphic Adenoma is derived from:

A

a mixture of ductal and myoepithelial elements

103
Q

Histopathologic Features of Pleomorphic Adenoma:

A

-composed of a mixture of glandular epithelium and round myoepithelial cells which demonstrate an eccentric nucleus and eosinophilic hyalinized cytoplasm, thus resembling plasma cells

104
Q

Sialorrhea =

In children, the most common cause of sialorrhea is:
In adults, the most common cause of sialorrhea is:

A

Drooling or ptyalism

children: CP (cerebral palsy)
adults: PD ( Parkinson’s disease)

105
Q

SOS

Causes of xerostomia:

A
salivary gland aplasia
impaired fluid intake
hemorrhage
vomiting/diarrhea
medications
radiation therapy
chemotherapy
sjogren syndrome
diabetes mellitus
sarcoidosis
amyloidosis
HIV
hepatitis
psychogenic disorders
decreased mastication
smoking
mouth breathing
106
Q

SOS

Clinical signs of xerostomia:

A
Burning sensation
Food sticks to mucosa
Oral health problems / Tissue alterations
Angular chellitis
Candidiasis
Caries
Halitosis
Loss of filiform papillae on tongue
Oral lesions
Mucositis
Pain
Oral lesions
Periodontal disease
Redness of the tongue
Taste alteration
Tooth sensitivity
107
Q

Sjögren syndrome:

=
most common in which people

A

chronic autoimmune inflammatory disorder

women

108
Q

The most common diseases associated with Sjögren syndrome are:

A

rheumatoid arthritis

systemic lupus erythematosus

109
Q

Clinical Features of Sjögren syndrome:

A
  • dry eye disease - irritation, grittiness, a foreign body sensation and diminished tear flow
  • salivary hypofunction - xerostomia
  • salivary gland enlargement
  • unilateral nodular and less commonly bilateral diffuse enlargement
  • lymphoma development
110
Q

The duct associated with parotid gland:

a. Bartholin’s duct
b. Wharton’s duct
c. Stensen’s duct
d. none

A

c. Stensen’s duct

111
Q

The first gland appears during intrauterine life is:

a. sublingual gland
b. parotid gland
c. submandibular gland
d. minor salivary gland

A

b. parotid gland

112
Q

The largest salivary gland is:

a. sublingual gland
b. parotid gland
c. submandibular gland
d. accessory ducts

A

b. parotid gland

113
Q

Wharton’s duct is associated with:

a. sublingual gland
b. parotid gland
c. submandibular gland
d. both b and c

A

c. submandibular gland

114
Q

How mucoceles are formed?

A

injury/trauma

115
Q

What are the clinical types of mucoceles???

A

mucoceles, granular and lupocells?

116
Q

How is a mucocele called that occurs in the floor of the mouth?

A

ranula (=a benign, mucous-containing cyst of the sublingual salivary gland that is caused by either rupture or blockade of the salivary duct)
-located lateral to the midline, a feature that may help to distinguish it from a midline dermoid cyst

117
Q

how is plunging ranula formed?

A

-they cause swelling

the pressure of the cyst herniate through the mylohyoid muscle

118
Q

SOS

What is the anatomic variant that resembles the Giant Cell Fibroma?

A

The retrocuspid papilla (=is a microscopically similar developmental lesion that occurs on the gingiva lingual to the mandibular cuspid)

119
Q

SOS

What is epulis granulomatosa?

A

is a term used to describe hyperlastic growths of granulation tissue that sometimes arise in healing extraction sockets. These lesions resemble pyogenic granulomas and usually represent a granulation tissue reaction to bony sequestra in the socket

120
Q

A mucocele is not a true cyst because

(a) It is lined by epithelium
(b) Its lumen is filled with pus
(c) It occurs as a result of trauma
(d) It is not lined by an epithelium

A

(d) It is not lined by an epithelium

121
Q

The most common location for occurrence of mucoceles is

(a) Upper lip
(b) Floor of mouth
(c) Lower lip
(d) Palate

A

(c) Lower lip

122
Q

Plunging/cervical ranula is a clinical variant of ranula which occurs when the spilled mucin dissects between the fibers of _______ muscle.

(a) Anterior belly of digastric
(b) Mylohyoid
(c) Omohyoid
(d) Posterior belly of digastric

A

(b) Mylohyoid

123
Q

Which amongst the following cannot be used to describe a salivary duct cyst?

(a) Mucous retention cyst
(b) Sialocyst
(c) Mucous duct cyst
(d) Mucous extravasation phenomenon

A

(d) Mucous extravasation phenomenon

124
Q

Submandibular salivary gland is the most common location for which one of the following pathologies?

(a) Sarcoidosis
(b) Sialorrhea
(c) Sialolithiasis
(d) Necrotizing sialometaplasia

A

(c) Sialolithiasis

125
Q

Which one out of the following is the most common bacterial agent responsible for causing acute Sialadenitis?

(a) Streptococcus mutans
(b) Lactobacillus acidophilus
(c) Staphylococcus aureus
(d) Actinomyces israelii

A

(c) Staphylococcus aureus

126
Q

Cheilitis glandularis typically occurs on the

(a) Upper lip
(b) Lower lip
(c) Soft palate
(d) Gingiva

A

(b) Lower lip

127
Q

Baelz disease is also known as

(a) Keratosis follicularis
(b) Cheilitis glandularis
(c) Cheilitis granulomatosa
(d) Cheilitis follicularis

A

(b) Cheilitis glandularis

128
Q

Out of the below mentioned causes, which one is not a cause of xerostomia?

(a) Medications
(b) Diabetes insipidus
(c) Salivary gland aplasia
(d) Tobacco chewing

A

(d) Tobacco chewing

129
Q

Xerostomia is often associated with atrophy of ___ papillae

(a) Filiform
(b) Circumvallate
(c) Fungiform
(d) Foliate

A

(a) Filiform

130
Q
  1. The characteristic “cherry blossom” or “branchless fruit laden tree” appearance on sialography is seen in which of the following conditions?
    (a) Melkersson-Rosenthal syndrome
    (b) Rubinstein-Taybi syndrome
    (c) Necrotizing sialometaplasia
    (d) Sjögren’s syndrome
A

(d) Sjögren’s syndrome

131
Q

Microscopic appearance of necrotizing sialometaplasia can be confused with those of which other lesion?

(a) Pleomorphic adenoma
(b) Warthin’s tumor
(c) Squamous cell carcinoma
(d) Squamous papilloma

A

(c) Squamous cell carcinoma

+mucoepidermoid carcinoma

132
Q

The most frequent site for occurrence of tumors in minor salivary glands is

(a) Palate
(b) Floor of mouth
(c) Buccal mucosa
(d) Lower lip

A

(a) Palate

133
Q

The mesenchymal appearing elements in pleomorphic adenoma are produced by _______ cells.

(a) Myoepithelial
(b) Squamous
(c) Serous
(d) Ductal

A

(a) Myoepithelial

134
Q

Myoepithelial cells in pleomorphic adenoma which appear rounded, with eosinophilic, hyalinized cytoplasm and having an eccentric nucleus are called as ______ myoepithelial cells.

(a) Myxoid
(b) Adenomatoid
(c) Plasmacytoid
(d) Oncocytic

A

(c) Plasmacytoid

135
Q

All of the following except _____ are mesenchymal elements commonly seen in a pleomorphic adenoma.

(a) Fat
(b) Osteoid
(c) Chondroid
(d) Nerve fibers

A

(d) Nerve fibers

myoepithelial cells and ductal cells are elements of pleomorphic adenoma

136
Q

Myoepithelioma is considered by many to represent one end of spectrum of

(a) Warthin’s tumor
(b) Oncocytoma
(c) Pleomorphic adenoma
(d) Ductal papillomas

A

(c) Pleomorphic adenoma

137
Q

The most common histological variant of basal cell adenoma is

(a) Tubular
(b) Solid
(c) Trabecular
(d) Membranous

A

(b) Solid

138
Q

Canalicular adenoma most frequently occurs in the intra-oral accessory salivary glands of

(a) Upper lip
(b) Soft palate
(c) Lower lip
(d) Floor of mouth

A

(a) Upper lip

139
Q

Which one of the following malignant salivary gland neoplasms demonstrates serous acinar differentiation?

(a) Adenoid cystic carcinoma
(b) Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
(c) Acinic cell adenocarcinoma
(d) Malignant pleomorphic adenoma

A

(c) Acinic cell adenocarcinoma

140
Q

The most common malignant salivary gland neoplasm is

(a) Acinic cell carcinoma
(b) Malignant pleomorphic adenoma
(c) Adenoid cystic carcinoma
(d) Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

A

(d) Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

141
Q

Cribriform, solid and tubular histological patterns of growth of neoplastic myoepithelial and ductal cells is seen in

(a) Adenoid cystic carcinoma
(b) Polymorphous low-grade adenocarcinoma
(c) Basal cell adenocarcinoma
(d) Acinic cell carcinoma

A

(a) Adenoid cystic carcinoma (ACC)

142
Q

Which amongst the following is the most recently recognized salivary gland neoplasm?

(a) Polymorphous low-grade adenocarcinoma
(b) Malignant pleomorphic adenoma
(c) Mammary Analogue Secretory Carcinoma
(d) Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

A

(c) Mammary Analogue Secretory Carcinoma (MASC)

143
Q

Trauma to which gland can result in facial paralysis?

(a) Submandibular
(b) Parotid
(c) Sublingual
(d) Palatal

A

(b) Parotid

144
Q

Which one of the following factors is responsible for causing xerostomia?

(a) Sialadenitis
(b) Salivary duct cyst
(c) Sialorrhea
(d) Mouth breathing

A

(d) Mouth breathing

+Sarcoidosis

145
Q

Repeated attacks of facial palsy, nonpitting, and painless edema of face, cheilitis granulomatosa and fissured tongue are all components of _______ syndrome:

(a) Frey’s
(b) Reye’s
(c) Gorlin-Goltz
(d) Melkersson-Rosenthal

A

(d) Melkersson-Rosenthal

146
Q

Which virus is most commonly associated with squamous papilloma?

(a) 2
(b) 6
(c) 11
(d) both b and c

A

HPV 6 and HPV 11 viruses

147
Q

The squamous papilloma is clinically and microscopically indistinguishable from which other lesion occurring in skin?

(a) Verrucous carcinoma
(b) Verruca vulgaris
(c) Molluscum contagiosum
(d) Keratoacanthoma

A

(b) Verruca vulgaris

AND condyloma acuminatum, verruciform xanthoma, or multifocal epithelial hyperplasia

148
Q

Which one of the following benign lesions resembles squamous cell carcinoma clinically and microscopically?

(a) Verruca vulgaris
(b) Keratoacanthoma
(c) Squamous acanthoma
(d) Leukoedema

A

(b) Keratoacanthoma

149
Q

All of the following terms except ____ represent Epulis fissuratum

(a) Denture injury tumor
(b) Denture epulis
(c) Inflammatory papillary hyperplasia
(d) Inflammatory fibrous hyperplasia

A

(c) Inflammatory papillary hyperplasia

150
Q

Single/multiple folds of hyperplastic tissue in alveolar vestibule, occurring in association with flange of an ill fitting denture is most likely to be

(a) Inflammatory papillary hyperplasia
(b) Inflammatory fibrous hyperplasia
(c) Giant cell epulis
(d) Congenital epulis

A

(b) Inflammatory fibrous hyperplasia

151
Q

All except ____ are common causes of inflammatory papillary hyperplasia.

(a) Ill-fitting dentures
(b) Poor denture hygiene
(c) Wearing dentures for 24 hours
(d) Infection by herpes virus

A

(d) Infection by herpes virus

152
Q

Microscopically, one of the most common types of arrangements of tumor cells in fibrous histiocytoma is _____ pattern.

(a) Storiform
(b) Herringbone
(c) Ductal
(d) Glandular

A

(a) Storiform

153
Q

“Herringbone” pattern of proliferation of spindle-shaped cells is typically seen in

(a) Fibrous histiocytoma
(b) Malignant fibrous histiocytoma
(c) Neurofibrosarcoma
(d) Fibrosarcoma

A

(d) Fibrosarcoma

154
Q

The most common soft tissue sarcoma of adults is

(a) Malignant fibrous histiocytoma
(b) Neurofibrosarcoma
(c) Libosarcoma
(d) Fibrosarcoma

A

(c) Libosarcoma

155
Q

The most common peripheral nerve neoplasm is

(a) Neurofibroma
(b) Granular cell tumor
(c) Schwannoma
(d) Solitary circumscribed neuroma

A

(a) Neurofibroma

156
Q

Microscopic pattern of Antoni A type of tissue proliferation is found in

(a) Schwannoma
(b) Neurofibroma
(c) Hodgkin’s disease
(d) Verruciform Xanthoma

A

(a) Schwannoma

157
Q

Neurofibroma arises from

a) Perineural fibroblasts
(b) Schwann cells
(c) Mixture of (a) and (b
(d) Fibroblasts

A

c) Mixture of (a) and (b)

158
Q

Lisch nodules and Crowe’s sign are components of

(a) Neurofibromatosis type I
(b) Neurofibroma
(c) Neurofibrosarcoma
(d) Neurofibromatosis type II

A

(a) Neurofibromatosis type I

159
Q

Sturge-Weber syndrome/angiomatosis demonstrates port-wine stain usually distributed unilaterally along the course of one or more branches of ________ cranial nerve.

(a) VII
(b) V
(c) III
(d) VIII

A

(b) V

160
Q

The most common soft tissue sarcoma of children is

(a) Leiomyosarcoma
(b) Fibrosarcoma
(c) Rhabdomyosarcoma
(d) Schwannoma

A

(c) Rhabdomyosarcoma

161
Q

All except _____ are a variety of Kaposi sarcoma

(a) Pleomorphic
(b) Endemic African
(c) Classic
(d) AIDS related

A

(a) Pleomorphic

  1. Classic
  2. Endemic (African)
  3. Iatrogenic (transplant-associated)
  4. Epidemic (AIDS-related)
162
Q

Mark the odd:

Keratoacanthoma
Myxoid
Nevus
?

A

nevus?

163
Q

Metastatic tumors to the oral cavity:

A

Are uncommon and represent approximately 1% of all oral malignancies

164
Q

Was asking about genetic disorders

A

..