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Final Set Flashcards

1
Q

The hypoglossal nerve functions to do what?

A

provide motor innervation to the intrinsic muscles of the tongue

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2
Q

The vagus nerve has what functions?

A
  • visceral sensation

- motor innervation of the larynx, pharynx, and palate muscles

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3
Q

The epiglottis is innervated by what?

A

CN X

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4
Q

What are the features of DiGeorge?

A
  • cardiac outflow tract abnormalities
  • abnormal fascies
  • thyroid aplasia
  • cleft palate
  • hypoparathyroidism
  • chromosome 22 deletion
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5
Q

What are Tessier classifications for?

A

classification of facial clefts

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6
Q

What happens when retinal absorbs a photon of light?

A
  • opsin is conformationally altered
  • a g-protein cascade is initiated
  • sodium channels close
  • the photoreceptor becomes hyperpolarized
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7
Q

What is an afferent pupillary defect?

A

pupils don’t constrict properly in response to light due to an optic nerve lesion

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8
Q

What is the first line medical therapy for anxiety disorders?

A

SSRIs

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9
Q

How does methylphenidate help those with ADHD?

A

it blocks DAT, up regulating dopamine activity

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10
Q

What is carbachol?

A

a direct muscarinic agonist

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11
Q

What do Krause corpuscles do?

A

detect touch in the genitals, lips, and tongue

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12
Q

Midline neck cysts are called ___ and lateral neck cysts are called ___.

A
  • midline: thryoglossal

- lateral: branchial pouch

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13
Q

How does alcohol affect a developing fetus?

A

by affecting pre-migratory neural crest cells

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14
Q

What is Treacher Collins syndrome?

A

poor neural crest cell functioning leads to underdeveloped zygomatics

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15
Q

What is micrognathia?

A

under developed mandible

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16
Q

What are the features of Pierre-Robin sequence?

A
  • micrognathia
  • glossoptosis
  • cleft palate
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17
Q

What causes homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing?

A

disruption of the posterior cerebral artery

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18
Q

The intrinsic tongue muscles are derived from what?

A

the occipital myotomes

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19
Q

Which CNS tumor is always superficially located?

A

pleomorphic xanthoastrocytomas

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20
Q

What do Pacinian Corpuscles do?

A

detect high frequency vibrations in the deep dermis

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21
Q

What do Meissner Corpuscles do?

A

detect vibration in glaborous skin

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22
Q

What do Merkel cells do?

A

detect pressure on glamorous skin

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23
Q

What neurotrophin supports enteric and kidney nervous system cells?

A

GDNF

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24
Q

NGF supports which cell populations?

A
  • sympathetic ganglion
  • cholinergic basal forebrain
  • nociceptive
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25
What is MGMT?
a gene for a DNA repair enzyme that, if mutated, suggests an astrocytoma will be chemosensitive
26
Calcifications, chicken wire vasculature, and perinuclear halos are features of which CNS tumor?
oligodendrocytomas
27
Which CNS tumors have calcifications?
- oligodendrocytomas - meningiomas - gangliomas
28
Pseudopalisading necrosis is a feature of which CNS tumor?
glioblastoma
29
What is timolol?
a beta-adrenergic antagonist
30
What is reflex sympathetic dystrophy?
immobility-induced derangement of peripheral pain sensitization
31
What are the components of the reticular activating system?
- cerebral cortex - thalamic reticular and laminar nuclei - the pontomesencephalic reticular formation
32
Thalamic reticular neurons utilize what NT?
GABA
33
What tract is responsible for REM atonia?
the reticulo-spinal tract
34
Which cholinergic, adrenergic, and serotonergic structures are involved in sleep, and what does each do?
- cholinergic, basal forebrain, sleep initiation - adrenergic, locus ceruleus, REM initiation - serotonergic, median raphe of reticular formation, initiation of slow wave sleep
35
What is the retinohypothalamic tract?
a tract formed by photosensitive ganglion cells to the suprachiasmatic nucleus to help regulate the circadian rhythm
36
What are psammoma bodies?
calcifications seen in meningiomas
37
Whorl cells are a feature of which CNS tumor?
meningiomas
38
Vascular issues in preterm infants cause ___ spastic CP while those in term infants cause ___ spastic CP.
- diplegic | - hemiplegic
39
Intellectual disability is most often the result of what sort of damage to what structure?
pure hypoxia affecting the cerebral cortex
40
Bunina bodies suggest what disease process?
ALS
41
Granulovacuolar change suggests what disease process?
Alzheimers
42
Those with a history of what are more likely to suffer from closed-angle glaucoma?
hyperopia
43
What NT systems have been implicated in ADHD?
NE and DA
44
What are upper motor neuron tracts called in the forebrain, midbrain, pons, and medulla?
- inferior limb of internal capsule - cerebral peduncle - corticospinal fibers - pyramids
45
The telencephalon gives rise to which structures?
cerebral cortex, basal forebrain, hippocampus
46
The diencephalon gives rise to which structures?
thalamus and hypothalamus
47
What is physostigmine?
an indirect muscarinic agonist (blocks AChE)
48
What is tropic amide?
a muscarinic antagonist
49
What is phenylephrine?
an alpha-adrenergic agonist
50
What CNS tumor arises in those under the age of five?
atypical teratoid rhabdoid tumor
51
NF2 is associated with which CNS tumor?
meningioma
52
NF1 is associated with which CNS tumor?
pilocytic astrocytoma
53
What are three diseases associated with Rosenthal fibers?
- Alexander's - chronic gliosis - pilocytic astrocytoma
54
What encephalopathy does kernicterus cause?
dyskinetic CP
55
Name four causes of mononeuropathy multiplex.
- leprosy - hereditary - lyme disease - vasculitis
56
What are the features of pilocytic astrocytoma?
- childhood - cerebellum, 3rd ventricle, optic nerve - NF1 associated - rosenthal fibers
57
What is the precursor for DA synthesis?
tyrosine
58
What is the precursor for serotonin synthesis?
tryptophan
59
Which NT receptor is voltage and ligand gated?
NMDA
60
BC1 gives rise to what?
the external auditory meatus
61
BC2, 3, 4 give rise to what?
cervical sinus
62
BP1 gives rise to what?
the auditory tube
63
BP2 gives rise to what?
the palatine tonsils
64
BP3 gives rise to what?
the inferior parathyroid and thymus
65
BP4 gives rise to what?
the superior parathyroid and ultimobranchial body
66
BA1 gives rise to what?
- CN V - muscles of mastication - meckel's cartilage, malleous and incus
67
BA2 gives rise to what?
- CN VII - muscles of facial expression - stapes, styloid process, part of hyoid
68
BA3 gives rise to what?
- CN IX - stylopharyngeus - part of hyoid and greater horn - carotid branch of aortic arch
69
BA4/5/6 give rise to what?
- CN X - pharyngeal, laryngeal, and palatine muscles - cricoid and thyroid cartilage - subclavian and pulmonary branches of aortic arch
70
Leprosy affects which neural cells?
Schwann cells
71
Diabetic neuropathy is what kind of peripheral neuropathy?
an axonal neuropathy
72
Leprosy is what kind of peripheral neuropathy?
a segmental demyelinating neuropathy
73
Where are Schwannomas commonly found?
CN VIII
74
Which PNS tumor has antoni A & B patterns?
Schwannomas
75
Verocay bodies are a feature of which PNS tumor?
Schwannomas
76
Hearing loss is an early symptom of which PNS tumor?
Schwannomas
77
Schwannomas are associated with a ___ mutation, while neurofibromas are associated with a ___ mutation.
- Schwannomas: NF2 | - Neurofibromas: NF1
78
Which PNS tumor sits on the nerve and which is embedded within the nerve?
- Schwannomas sit on the nerve | - Neurofibromas are embedded
79
What is amyotrophic lateral sclerosis?
a peripheral neuropathy affecting cortical, bulbar, and spinal motor neurons leading to generalized muscle weakness and atrophy
80
Which PNS tumor has a "shredded carrot" appearance due to lots of collagen and very little cellularity?
neurofibromas
81
What is neurofibromatosis?
a syndrome of neurofibromas, optic gliomas, litchi nodules (in the iris), and cafe au last spots

Neuro (7 decks)

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