Final (Shoot Me Now) Flashcards
(137 cards)
1
Q
What are the two types of head injuries that can occur?
A
open and closed
2
Q
Closed head injuries are also known as what?
A
blunt injuries
3
Q
What are the symptoms of a head injury?
A
drowsiness confusion irritability coma headache vomiting seizures
4
Q
What should we always assume about patients with head injuries?
A
that they have a c-spine injury as well
5
Q
Where do most spinal cord injuries occur?
A
cervical and lumbar areas
6
Q
What are the 4 classifications of fractures?
A
Open (compound)
closed
complete
incomplete
7
Q
What are symptoms of a fracture?
A
limited movement pain and swelling deformity of limb discoloration of skin may have symptoms of shock
8
Q
How should you support a body part if there is a fx or suspected fx?
A
Support both above and below the area of the fx site
9
Q
Define oblique fx
A
fracture that runs in a straight line but at an angle
10
Q
define spiral fx
A
twisting force applied causing the fx to rotate around the bone
11
Q
define comminute fx
A
fx with two or more fracture lines
12
Q
define butterfly fx
A
a v-shaped triangular fragment
13
Q
define impacted fx
A
shaft of the bone is forced and imbedded in to the end of the bone
14
Q
define compression fx
A
vertebral body is collapsed
15
Q
define blowout fx
A
orbit struck by an object pushing the fatpad behind eyeball causing the bone to break
16
Q
define stress fx
A
caused by abnormal stress applied to a bone (seen often in runners)
17
Q
define greenstick fx
A
incomplete fx of the bone seen in pediatric patients
18
Q
define avulsion fx
A
chip of bone caused by tendon pulling piece of bone away (often seen with dislocations)
19
Q
How many times should you check medication/drug labels and when?
A
3 times; 1 when the container is removed from shelf, 2 when the drug is drawn from container, 3 when the container is replaced
20
Q
What do many hospitals require you document when using medication/drugs?
A
the expiration date and lot number
21
Q
radiolucent contrast is also called?
A
negative contrast
22
Q
What are characteristics of radiolucent/negative contrast media?
A
x-rays are easily transmitted through it, the areas will appear dark where there is negative contrast, and these elements have a low atomic number
23
Q
Example of commonly used negative/radiolucent contrast?
A
air
24
Q
radiopaque contrast is also called?
A
positive contrast
25
What are characteristics of radiopaque/positive contrast media?
x-rays are absorbed, the areas will appear lighter/white where there is positive contrast media, and these elements have high atomic numbers
26
example(s) of commonly used radiopaque/positive contrast?
Barium or iodine based contrasts
27
The first negative contrast study was done when?
in 1918
28
Which type of contrast is very rarely used alone and is almost always paired with the other type?
negative/radiolucent
29
What are 3 main types of positive/radiopaque contrast media?
1. barium sulfate
2. oil based iodine
3. water soluble iodine
30
What is the atomic symbol for barium sulfate?
BaSO4
31
Oil based iodine contrasts are made from what?
fatty acids found in animals and plants
32
What are the two forms of water soluble iodine contrast media?
1. ionic
| 2. non-ionic
33
define osmolality
the measurement of the total number of particles in the solution per kilogram of water
34
Which form of water soluble contrasts give a greater chance of allergic reaction and why?
ionic due to having a higher osmolality
35
define shock
failure of circulation in which blood pressure is inadequate to oxygenate tissues and remove by-products of metabolism
36
What is the body's pathological reaction to illness, trauma, or severe physiological or emotion stress?
shock
37
What are the some potential causes of shock?
blood loss, cardiac failure, obstruction of blood flow, or a traumatic experience
38
What are the onset symptoms of shock?
```
restlessness
cold, clammy and pale skin
respiration increases
normal blood pressure
anxiety level increase
weakness
```
39
What are progressive stage symptoms of shock?
```
blood pressure falls
respirations are shallow and rapid
tachycardia
chest pain complaint from patient
mental status changes
```
40
What are the irreversible stage symptoms of shock?
blood pressure remains low
renal and liver failure
release of neuro-toxins
41
What are the 3 types of shock?
1. hypovolemic
2. cardiogenic
3. vasogenic
42
What is hypovolemic shock?
occurs with internal or external hemorrhage, loss of plasma from burns, fluid loss due to excessive vomiting, diarrhea, or medications
43
What are the symptoms of hypovolemic shock?
excessive thirst
skin cold and clammy
cyanosis of the lips and nails
44
What is cardiogenic shock?
caused by failure of the heart to pump an adequate amount of blood to vital organs
45
What are symptoms of cardiogenic shock?
```
chest pain
dizziness and respiratory distress
cyanosis
anxiety
rapid change in level of consciousness
irregular pulse
blood pressure decreases
cool, clammy skin
decrease in urinary output
```
46
What is vasogenic shock?
occurs when there is pooling of blood in blood vessels resulting in a decrease of blood returning to the heart
47
What are the 3 types of vasogenic shock?
1. neurogenic
2. septic
3. anaphylactic
48
What is neurogenic shock?
when blood pools in peripheral vessels
49
What can cause neurogenic shock?
neurological damage, spinal cord injury, severe pain, adverse affect of medication or anesthesia
50
What are symptoms of neurogenic shock?
hypotension
bradycardia
warm, dry skin
patient is usually unconscious due to head injury
51
What is septic shock?
when the body releases chemicals to fight bacteria and viruses that may lead to shock
52
What is anaphylactic shock?
adverse affect to contrast media
53
What are symptoms of a mild anaphylactic reaction?
swelling
itching
tearing of eyes
(occur within 2 hours of injection)
54
What are symptoms of moderate anaphylactic reaction?
```
swelling
itching
tearing of eyes
feeling of warmth
anxiety
difficulty breathing
```
55
What are symptoms of severe anaphylactic reaction?
```
swelling
itching
tearing of eyes
feeling of warmth
anxiety
difficulty breathing
seizures
cardiac arrest
```
56
Which type of vasogenic shock is the most likely to occur in our area?
anaphylactic
57
Which type of vasogenic shock is the least likely to occur in our department?
septic
58
define pulmonary embolism
an occlusion of one or more pulmonary arteries by a thrombus
59
Pulmonary embolisms result in how many deaths per year?
50,000
60
When/where are pulmonary embolisms seen?
trauma, pregnancy, surgical procedures, and congestive heart failure
61
What are diabetic emergencies caused by?
insufficient production of insulin resulting in abnormal amount of glucose in the blood
62
What are the 4 types of diabetes?
1. type 1 or juvenile
2. type 2 (over 40 years) gradual onset
3. diabetes mellitus - produced by other medical condition
4. gestational diabetes - pregnancy
63
What is hypoglycemia?
excessive amount of insulin
64
What are symptoms of mild hypoglycemia?
sweating
tachycardia
hunger
irritablity
65
What are symptoms of moderate hypoglycemia?
```
dizziness
headache
cold and clammy skin
sweating
slurred speech
irrational behavior
```
66
What are symptoms of severe hypoglycemia?
disorientated
difficulty arousing from sleep
seizure
rapid lapse into coma
67
What is hyperglycemia?
insufficient insulin and in attempts to compensate for this by excreting glucose with water and electrolytes resulting in excessive urination and dehydration
68
What is ketosis?
onsets due to over production in liver by breaking down fatty acids into ketone bodies which can lead to the patient becoming comatose and may die
69
What are symptoms of ketosis?
```
weakness
sweet smelling breath
drowsiness
headache
blurred vision
nausea
warm, dry skin
tachycardia
```
70
What is a stroke?
caused by occlusion or rupture of the blood supply to the brain resulting in a hemorrhage to the brain
71
What are symptoms of a stroke?
```
severe headache
numbness
muscle weakness to face or one side of body
eye deviation
confusion
difficult speech
```
72
What is cardiac arrest?
cessation of heart function
73
What is another name for cardiac arrest?
myocardial infarction
74
What are symptoms of cardiac arrest?
```
loss of consciousness
loss of pulse
loss of blood pressure
dilation of pupils
possible seizure
```
75
What is respiratory arrest?
cessation of breathing
76
What are possible causes of respiratory arrest?
upper respiratory tract swelling
CNS failure
choking
77
What are seizures a symptom of?
syndrome or disease like fever, epilepsy, or head trauma
78
what are the 2 types of seizures?
1. generalized
| 2. partial
79
What is a partial seizure?
pts hands shake, confused for a few moments, only a slight seizure takes place
80
What are symptoms of a seizure?
```
jerky body movements
utter sharp cry
muscles become rigid
eyes wide open
may vomit
```
81
What is syncope?
fainting
82
What causes syncope?
insufficient blood supply to the brain
83
What are symptoms of syncope?
```
pallor
feeling dizzy or nauseated
hyperpnea
tachycardia
cold, clammy skin
```
84
Protective aprons containing 0.5 mm Pb have approximately how many HVL's?
2
85
NCRP #102 minimum lead equivalent for lead aprons?
0.5 mm Pb eq.
86
NCRP #102 minimum lead equivalent for lead gloves?
0.25 mm Pb eq.
87
A 30 degree tilt of the c-arm will increase the dose to the face and neck region of the person standing next to it by a factor of what?
4
88
Reversing a c-arm placing the tube on top can increase the dose to the operators eyes by up to how much?
by up to 300 times
89
What is the federal set limit of exposure rates of intensified fluoro units?
10 R/min or 2.1 R/min/mA
90
If there is no optional high level fluoro controls, the intensity is not to exceed what?
10 R/min
91
With optional high level fluoro control, maximum table top intensity is not to exceed?
20 R/min
92
The exposure switch must be of what type?
dead man
93
How long must the cord for the exposure switch be on mobile units?
6 ft or 180 cm
94
What are the main vital signs (4 sometimes 5)?
1. temperature
2. pulse
3. respiration
4. blood pressure
5. pain
95
What is the average temperature by mouth for an adult?
98.6 F or 37 C
96
What is the average temperature by armpit for an adult?
97.6 F or 36.4 C
97
What is the average rectal temperature of an adult?
99.6 F or 37.5 C
98
What is the average temperature of an infant (3 months to 3 years)?
99 F or 37.2 C
99
What is the average temperature of a child (5 to 13 years)?
97.8-98.6 F or 36.7-37 C
100
What are the symptoms of a fever?
```
increased pulse rate
increased respiratory rate
flushed dry skin
chills
loss of appetite
```
101
What is pyrexia?
fever, when a body temperature is elevated above normal limits
102
What is hypothermia?
when a body temperature is below normal limits (96.8 F)
103
What is the normal pulse rate on an adult?
60-90 beats per minute
104
What is the normal pulse rate on a child?
90-100 beats per minute
105
What is the normal pulse rate on an infant?
120 beats per minute
106
What are the 9 common locations of a pulse?
1. apical (apex of heart)
2. Radial (radial artery in wrist)
3. carotid (carotid artery at front of neck)
4. femoral (femoral artery in groin)
5. popliteal (back of knee)
6. temporal (temporal artery in front of ear)
7. dorsalis pedis (top of foot)
8. posterior tibial (inside of ankle)
9. brachial (inside groove above elbow)
107
What is the most common location used for taking the pulse?
radial artery
108
define tachycardia
abnormally rapid heart beat (over 100 beats per minute)
109
define bradycardia
abnormally slow heart beat (under 60 beats per minute)
110
What is the average number of respirations for an adult?
15-20 breaths per minute
111
What is the average number of respirations for an infant?
30-60 breaths per minute
112
define systolic
the amount of blood flow ejected from the left ventricle of the heart
113
define diastolic
the amount of resistance the blood meets due to systemic vascular resistance
114
how do you record blood pressure?
systolic reading on top, diastolic on bottom
115
Most patients will have an oxygen saturation level of what?
95% or higher
116
An oxygen saturation level of 85% or less means what?
the tissues are not receiving adequate oxygen
117
define attenuation
the reduction in the number of x-ray photons of the primary beam and loss of energy as it passes through matter
118
define binding energy
the energy required to remove an orbital electron from its shell
119
Which shell of an atom has the highest binding energy?
the k-shell
120
When there is a higher atomic number, what happens to the k-shell binding energy?
it is higher
121
atoms found in the soft tissues of the human body have an average k-shell binding energy of what?
approximately 0.5 keV
122
k-shell electrons have the _____ total energy and the _____ binding energy
lowest total energy, highest binding energy
123
electrons that are further from the nucleus have greater or less energy?
greater
124
What are the 3 main interactions between x-rays and matter?
1. compton
2. photoelectric
3. coherent
(4. pair production, 5. photodisintegration)
125
What happens in compton interactions?
the incident x-ray photon interacts with a loosely bound OUTER shell electeron - removes electron from its shell, photon then proceeds in a different direction as scattered photon
126
Which interaction is our primary source of occupation exposure?
Compton scatter (from patient)
127
What happens in photoelectric interactions?
the incident x-ray photon interacts with an INNER shell electron, ejects inner shell electron and is completely absorbed by interaction, causes characteristic cascade to fill vacancy of ejected inner shell electron
128
What 3 things must "happen/be present" for a photoelectric interaction to occur?
1. incident photon must have higher energy than binding energy of inner-shell electron
2. more likely to occur if the x-ray photon energy and electron binding energy are closer to each other
3. more likely to occur when the electrons are more tightly bound to the nucleus
129
Are photoelectric interactions more likely to occur in soft tissue or bone?
bone
130
What happens in coherent interactions?
occurs due to the interaction of very low energy x-ray photons and matter, interaction of incident photon and electron causes vibrations and excitement to higher energy state before it returns to normal state
131
What are the two types of coherent interactions?
1. thompson (involves one electron)
| 2. rayleigh (involves all electrons)
132
Coherent interactions are considered what in diagnostic imaging?
insignificant
133
What is pair production?
interaction between high energy photons and matter characterized by the conversion of the energy of an x-ray photon into mater in the form of two electrons
134
What does pair production create?
a pair of electrons : negatron and positron
135
Does pair production occur in diagnostic imaging?
no
136
What is photodisintegration?
interaction between x-rays and matter characterized by interactions between the high energy photon and the nucelus
137
Which of the main interactions occurs most in the diagnostic range?
Compton interaction
