Meh Flashcards
(220 cards)
1
Q
Acute renal failure would also be known as what type of reaction?
A
organ specific reaction
2
Q
What two processes move urine through the ureters to the bladder?
A
peristalsis and gravity
3
Q
A nonallergic reaction is what type of effect?
A
mild or vasomotor effect
4
Q
Anaphylactic reactions are also known as what type of effects?
A
moderate effects
5
Q
The kidneys and ureters are located in what space?
A
retroperitoneal space
6
Q
Which structures create a 20* angle between the upper pole and lower pole of the kidney?
A
the psoas muscles
7
Q
List the routine 5 step imaging sequence for a routine IVU.
A
- 1 minute nephrogram
- 5 minute KUB
- 10 minute KUB
- 15 minute RPO & LPO
- Postvoid
8
Q
How many tomograms are usually produced during a routine IVU?
A
3
9
Q
How much obliquity is required for the LPO/RPO during cystograms?
A
30*
10
Q
A true allergic reaction is what type of effect?
A
moderate or anaphylactic effect
11
Q
How far above the site do you place a tourniquet?
A
3-4 inches
12
Q
What are the 3 purposes of an IVU?
A
- Visualize the collecting portion of the urinary system
- asses the functional ability of the kidneys
- evaluate the system for any abnormalities
13
Q
What degree of rotation from supine is required to place the kidneys parallel to the film/IR?
A
30*
14
Q
Which two landmarks can be palpated to locate the kidneys?
A
Xiphoid tip and iliac crest
15
Q
What specific anatomy is examined during a retrograde ureterogram?
A
primarily the ureters
16
Q
Vasovagal reactions are also known as?
A
Severe reactions
17
Q
What are the 3 functions of the urinary system?
A
- remove nitrogenous wastes
- regulate water levels in the body
- regulate acid-base balance and electrolyte levels of the body
18
Q
At what stage of an IVU is the true renal parenchyma best seen?
A
within one minute of the injection
19
Q
What are the 2 types of contrast used in urology?
A
ionic and non-ionic
20
Q
What drug is given to diabetics that won’t mix well with the contrast?
A
metaformin or glucophage
21
Q
What is a bolus infusion?
A
Its in a syringe and you push it in
22
Q
How many times do you read the contrast label?
A
3
23
Q
Vasomotor effects are also known as?
A
Mild effects
24
Q
Where/when is retrograde urography done?
A
in surgery/operating room
25
What is the difference between routine IVU and hypertensive IVU?
Shorter times between the first 3 kidney films
| ex. 1,2,&3 minute films vs. 1,3, & 5 minutes
26
Which kidney does an LPO demonstrate?
Right (upside)
27
Patient must be NPO for how long before an IVU?
NPO after midnight (8 hrs)
28
What two ways can contrast media be introduced?
1. intravenous injection (needle)
| 2. catheterization
29
Which contrast media has higher osmolality and a greater chance of an allergic reaction?
Ionic contrast
30
What are 2 common side effects to the contrast media?
temporary hot flash and metallic taste in mouth
31
Normal BUN levels for an adult should range between?
8-25 mg/100mL
32
What gauge needle is used for venipuncture of adults?
18-22 gauge
33
What is the most common vein for venipuncture?
median cubital
34
What are the 3 most common veins in venipuncture?
1. median cubital
2. basilic
3. cephalic
35
What is the most common emergency drug for reactions?
epinephrine
36
Which ureter does an LPO demonstrate?
Left (downside)
37
Severe or vasovagal reactions include?
- very low blood pressure
- cardiac arrest
- loss of consciousness
- convulsions
- laryngeal edema
- cyanosis (blue skin)
- difficulty breathing
- profound shock
38
Moderate or anaphylactic reactions include?
- excessive hives (urticaria)
- tachycardia (increased heart rate)
- giant hives
- excessive vomiting
39
What is the brim of the pelvis?
Where the iliac blood vessels pass by the ureters
40
What is the ureterovesical junction?
Where the ureter joins the bladder
41
What is the ureteropelvic junction?
Where the renal pelvis funnels into the ureter
42
What are the three constricted points of the ureter?
1. ureteropelvic junction
2. brim of pelvis
3. ureterovesical junction
43
Mild or vasomotor reactions include?
- nausea
- vomiting
- hives
- itching
- sneezing
44
The adrenal glands hold what two important substances?
epinephrine and cortical hormones
45
What drug(s) are given to some patients before they are given contrast media to help reduce the risk of a reaction occurring?
Benadryl and predinsone
46
The average urine output per day is?
1.5 liters or 1500 mL
47
The total capacity for the average adult bladder is?
350-500mL
48
What is the name for the mass of fat that surrounds each kidney?
adipose capsule
49
What is the name of the junction found between the distal ureters and the bladder?
ureterovesical junction
50
What is the name of the inner posterior region of the bladder formed by the two ureters entering and the urethra exiting?
trigone
51
The normal creatine level for adults should range between?
.6-1.5 mL
52
The leakage of contrast from a vessel into the surrounding soft tissue is called?
extravisation
53
What gauge needle is used for venipuncture in children?
23-25 gauge
54
The longitudinal fissure found along the central medial border of the kidney is called?
the hilum
55
The peripheral or outer portion of the kidney is called?
the cortex
56
The term that describes the total functioning portion of the kidney is?
renal parenchyma
57
The microscopic functional and structural unit of the kidney is the?
nephron
58
Which structure of the medulla is made up of a collection of tubules that drain into the minor calyces?
the renal pyramids
59
When you puncture, the needle should be at what angle?
20*-45* angle, bevel up
60
If a patient is taking glucophage/metaformin and is given an iodinated contrast, what could happen?
acute renal failure
61
Ureters lie on what muscles?
psoas muscles
62
What is the length of the female urethra?
1 1/2 inches
63
What percent of blood from each heart beat is pumped to the kidneys?
about 25%
64
What is the length of the ureters?
10-12 inches
65
Which kidney is generally lower than the other and why?
right, due to the liver
66
What is the length of the male urethra?
7-8 inches
67
The urinary system consists of?
2 kidneys
2 ureters
1 urethra
1 urinary bladder
68
A life threatening condition/reaction is what type of effect?
severe or vasovagal
69
Intraarticular fx of the posterior lip of the distal radius is called?
Barton's fx
70
Complete fx that is at a near right angle to the long axis of the bone is called?
Transverse fx
71
Complete fx that passes through the bone at an oblique angle is called?
Oblique fx
72
Complete fx in which the bone has been twisted apart and the fx spirals around the long axis of the bone is called?
Spiral fx
73
Incomplete fx with broken cortex on one side of the bone only is called?
Greenstick fx
74
Fx resulting in multiple (two or more) fragments is called?
Comminuted fx
75
Fx of the proximal half of the ulna with dislocation of the radial head is called?
Monteggia fx
76
Fx of the distal fifth metacarpal is called?
Boxer's fx
77
Fx of the distal radius with anterior displacement is called?
Smith's fx
78
Intraarticular fx of the radial styloid process is called?
Hutchinson's fx
79
Fx of the base of the first metacarpal is called?
Bennett's fx
80
Fx due to a severe stress to a tendon is called?
Avulsion fx
81
Fx where one bone fragment is firmly driven into the other is called?
Impacted fx
82
Indented fx of the skull is called?
Depressed fx
83
Fx with fx lines radiating from a center point is called?
Stellate fx
84
Fx of the lateral malleolus, medial malleolus, and distal posterior tip of the tibia is called?
Trimalleolar fx
85
Fx producing a height of the anterior vertebral body is called?
Compression fx
86
Complete fx of the distal fibula, frequently with fx of the medial malleolus as well is called?
Pott's fx
87
Fx of the distal radius with posterior displacement is called?
Colles' fx
88
Fx of pedicles of C2 is called?
Hangman's fx
89
Fx of the distal phalanx caused by a ball striking the end of an extended finger is called?
Mallet (baseball) fx
90
Fx resulting from a direct blow to the orbit is called?
Blowout fx or tripod fx
91
Fx that involves an isolated bone fragment is called?
Chip fx
92
Comminuted fx of distal phalanx, possibly caused by a crushing blow, is called?
Tuft of burst fx
93
Fx resulting from repeated stress on a bone is called?
Stress fx
94
Fx due to a disease process within the bone is called?
Pathologic fx
95
Fx where the bone does not break through the skin is called?
simple or closed fx
96
Fx where part of the bone protrudes through the skin is called?
compound or open fx
97
What is the inability to void called?
Retention
98
What is the passage of large volume of urine called?
Polyuria
99
What is the act of voiding called?
Micturition
100
Complete cessation of urinary secretion called?
Anuria
101
Excess urea and creatine in the blood is called?
Uremia
102
The backward return flow of urine is called?
Urinary reflux
103
The presence of gas in the urine is called?
Pneumoria
104
The diminished amount of urine being excreted is called?
Oliguria
105
The presence of glucose in the urine is called?
Glucosuria
106
The constant or frequent involuntary passage of urine is called?
Urinary incontinence
107
The absence of a functioning kidney is called?
Renal agenesis
108
What is indicated by presence of uremia, oliguria, or anuria?
Acute renal failure
109
The enlargement of the prostate gland is called?
Benign prostatic hyperplasia
110
The fusion of the lower poles of the kidneys during the development of the fetus is called?
Horseshoe kidney
111
The inflammation of the capillary loops of the glomeruli of the kidneys is called?
Glomerulonephritis
112
The artificial opening between the urinary bladder and aspects of the large intestine is called?
Vesicorectal fistula
113
A large stone that grows and completely fills the renal pelvis is called?
Staghorn calculus
114
Increased blood pressure to the kidneys due to atherosclerosis is called?
Renal hypertension
115
A normal kidney that fails to go into the abdomen but remains in the pelvis is called?
Ectopic kidney
116
A rare tumor of the kidney is called?
Pheochromocytoma
117
Multiple cysts in one or both kidneys is called?
Polycystic kidney disease
118
What term describes an abnormal drop of the kidney when the patient is placed erect?
Nephroptosis
119
A buildup of nitrogenous waste in the blood is called what?
Uremia
120
Cholecystitis
inflammation of the gallbladder
121
Neoplasm
benign or malignant tumors
122
Biliary stenosis
narrowing of the biliary ducts
123
What are the 3 primary functions of the digestive system?
1. intake and digestion
2. absorption
3. elimination
124
What are the 4 accessory organs of digestion?
1. salivary glands
2. pancreas
3. liver
4. gallbladder
125
What are the 3 salivary glands?
1. parotid
2. sublingual
3. submandibular
126
What is the largest solid organ in the body?
Liver
127
How much bile does the liver produce daily?
1 quart (800-1000mL)
128
The act of swallowing is termed?
Deglutition
129
What are the 3 primary functions of the gallbladder?
1. store bile
2. concentrate bile
3. contract when stimulated
130
Chewing movements are termed?
Mastication
131
How much saliva do the salivary glands secrete daily?
1000-1500mL
132
Where is the pharynx located?
posterior to the oral cavity, nasal cavity, and larynx
133
What are the 3 parts of the pharynx?
1. nasopharynx
2. oropharynx
3. laryngopharynx
134
What two things occur when swallowing?
1. the soft palate closes off the nasopharynx
| 2. the epiglottis closes off the laryngeal opening
135
Where are the two indentations of the esophagus?
1. the aortic arch
| 2. left primary bronchus
136
The segment of the esophagus just below the diaphragm and just before the stomach is called what?
the cardiac antrum
137
The opening between the esophagus and stomach is called?
cardiac orifice or esophagogastric junction
138
Which quadrant is the gallbladder in?
right upper quadrant
139
What are the 3 divisions of the stomach?
1. fundus
2. body
3. pylorus
140
The folds in the body of the stomach are called what?
rugae
141
What are the 3 sections of the small intestine?
1. duodenum
2. jejunum
3. ileum
142
Where does the small intestine join the large intestine?
the ileocecal valve
143
What are the 4 sections of the duodenum?
1. superior (first)
2. descending (second)
3. horizontal (third)
4. ascending (fourth)
144
Where does the ileum meet the large intestine?
the duodenojejunal flexure
145
Which part of the small intestine is the longest?
ileum
146
Which part of the small intestine is the shortest?
duodenum
147
Choledocholithiasis
enlargement or narrowing of the biliary ducts because of the presence of stones
148
Which part of the small intestine is the widest?
duodenum
149
Which part of the small intestine is the most fixed?
duodenum
150
What are the 7 major components of the alimentary canal?
1. oral cavity
2. pharynx
3. esophagus
4. stomach
5. small intestine
6. large intestine
7. anus
151
What are the 3 structures that pass through the diaphragm?
1. esophagus
2. aorta
3. inferior vena cava
152
What part of the upper GI tract is a common site for ulcer disease?
duodenal bulb
153
Colelithiasis
condition of having gallstones
154
cholecystectomy
surgical removal of the gallbladder
155
How many functions does the liver perform?
over 100
156
What is a common site for lodging of gallstones?
duodenal papilla
157
What is the average male life expectancy?
73 years
158
What is the average female life expectancy?
80 years
159
Which group have a higher incidence of obesity and late onset of diabetes?
elderly minorities
160
The deterioration of intellectual ability accompanied by emotional disturbances is called what?
Dementia
161
The highest suicide rate is in?
Older adults (primarily white males who live alone)
162
The top 5 causes of death in older adults are?
1. cardiovascular disease
2. cancer
3. cerebrovascular disease (strokes)
4. pneumonia/flu
5. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
163
80% of deaths in people over 65 are from what 3 causes?
1. heart disease
2. cancer
3. stroke
164
The leading cause of death for people 65 and over is?
cardiovascular disease
165
The most common procedure done in US hospitals, especially on elderly patients is?
arthroplastic surgery (total joint replacements)
166
Which joints are the most common for a total joint replacement?
the knee and hip
167
Osteoarthritis and osteoporosis require an increase or decrease in technique?
decrease
168
What view best demonstrates a compression fx?
lateral
169
Degeneration of joints is called?
osteoarthritis
170
Loss of bone mass is called?
osteoporosis
171
Emphysema requires an increase or decrease in technical factors?
decrease
172
What is the inflammation of the lungs resulting in accumulation of fluids called?
pneumonia
173
Pneumonia requires an increase or decrease in technical factors?
slight increase
174
The condition of excess fluid within the lung, commonly seen in congestive heart failure is called?
pulmonary edema
175
Pulmonary edema requires an increase or decrease in technical factors?
Increase
176
The 5 routes of transmission are?
1. contact
2. droplet
3. airborne
4. common vehicle
5. vector borne
177
What are the two types of contact transmission?
Direct and indirect
178
The 4 main vital signs are what?
1. temperature
2. pulse
3. respiration
4. blood pressure
179
What is the average adult oral temperature?
98.6 F or 37 C
180
What is the average adult axillary temperature?
97.6 F or 36.4 C
181
What is the average adult rectal temperature?
99.6 F or 37.2 C
182
What is the average child ( 5yr-13yr) temperature?
97.8F (36.7C) to 98.6F (37C)
183
What is the average infant ( 3 months - 3 yrs) temperature?
99 F or 37.2 C
184
Symptoms of fever include?
- increased pulse and respiratory rate
- discomfort/aching
- flushed, dry skin
- chills
- loss of appetite
185
A patient who has an elevated temperature above normal limits is said to have?
a fever or pyrexia
186
A patient who has a decreased temperature below normal limits (96.8F) is said to have?
hypothermia
187
What is the normal pulse rate for an adult?
60-90 beats per minute
188
What is the normal pulse rate for a child?
90-100 beats per minute
189
What is the normal pulse rate for an infant?
120 beats per minute
190
9 common place for finding a pulse are?
1. apical
2. raidal
3. carotid
4. femoral
5. popliteal
6. temporal
7. dorsalis pedis
8. posterior tibial
9. brachial
191
The most common site used for taking a pulse is where?
Radial (radial artery in the wrist, base of thumb)
192
Tachycardia means?
increased heart rate (over 100 beats per minute)
193
Brachycardia means?
decreased heart rate ( below 60 beats per minute)
194
What is the average adult respiration rate?
15-20 breaths per minute
195
What is the average infant respiration rate?
30-60 breaths per minute
196
Cystolic
the amount of blood flow ejected from the left ventricle of the heart
197
Diastolic
the amount of resistance the blood meets due to the systemic vascular resistance
198
Blood pressure is measured in?
mm Hg (mm of mercury)
199
Most patients have a pulse oxygen (O2) level of what?
95%
200
A pulse oxygen (O2) level of what percentage indicates that the tissues are not receiving adequate oxygen?
85% or lower
201
Nasogastric Tubes (NG tubes) are made of what?
silicone or rubber
202
NG tubes are inserted where?
into the stomach, duodenum, and jejunum
203
NG tubes are used for what?
to help keep the stomach free of gastric contents and air
204
Nasoenteric Tubes ( NE tubes) are allowed to pass into the small intestine how?
via peristalsis
205
NE tubes are used for what?
to diagnose and treat
206
What are gastronomy tubes?
a surgical opening in the stomach with a tube attached to the wall
207
What are gastronomy tubes used for?
the purpose of feeding
208
What are the two most common types of central venous catheters?
1. Hickmann
| 2. Broviac
209
Central venous catheters are also called what?
PIC lines
210
PIC lines are used for what?
long-term medication or transfusion on patients with long-term illnesses
211
PIC lines are planted/inserted where?
the upper right side of the chest
212
Emergency suctioning is used for what?
to remove/clear drainage from the moth or nose
213
What is a tracheostomy?
a surgical opening into the trachea to relieve respiratory distress
214
What is the purpose of mechanical ventilators?
they are life support, aids in breathing
215
Where are endotracheal tubes inserted?
through the mouth into the trachea
216
What are issues that could come from an improperly placed endotracheal tube?
tube too high can push air into the stomach, too low can cause a lung to collapse
217
When are chest tubes needed?
when there is a pneumothorax (collapsed lung) or when there is hemothorax (blood or fluids accumulating in the lung)
218
What are the three most common types of tissue drains?
1. Hemovac
2. Jackson-Pratt
3. Penrose
219
What are tissue drains used for?
placed near or at wound sites when large amounts of drainage are expected
220
What is shock?
the failure of circulation in which blood pressure is inadequate to oxygenate tissues are remove by-products of metabolism
