‼️FINAL STROKE‼️ Flashcards
(35 cards)
What is the primary goal during the acute phase of stroke care?
A. Promote ambulation
B. Preserve life
C. Start rehabilitation
D. Prevent infections
Answer: B. Preserve life
Rationale: The acute phase focuses on preserving life, preventing further brain damage, and reducing disability.
Which diagnostic test is most effective for identifying an ischemic stroke in the acute phase?
A. Noncontrast CT scan
B. ECG
C. MRI
D. Chest x-ray
Answer: C. MRI
Rationale: MRI is more sensitive than CT for detecting ischemic strokes early.
What does the “S” in the FAST acronym stand for?
A. Strength
B. Swallowing
C. Speech difficulties
D. Smiling
Answer: C. Speech difficulties
Rationale: FAST stands for Face drooping, Arm weakness, Speech difficulties, and Time to call 911.
Which type of stroke is most commonly associated with hypertension?
A. Thrombotic stroke
B. Embolic stroke
C. Intracerebral hemorrhage
D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
Answer: C. Intracerebral hemorrhage
Rationale: Chronic hypertension weakens vessel walls and increases the risk for bleeding into brain tissue.
What is the critical time window for administering IV tPA in ischemic stroke?
A. Within 12 hours
B. Within 6 hours
C. Within 3 to 4.5 hours
D. Within 24 hours
Answer: C. Within 3 to 4.5 hours
Rationale: IV tPA must be given within 3–4.5 hours from symptom onset for optimal effectiveness.
A stroke in which brain hemisphere is more likely to cause aphasia?
A. Right
B. Left
C. Occipital
D. Temporal
Answer: B. Left
Rationale: The left hemisphere typically controls language in most individuals.
Which of the following is a risk factor for thrombotic stroke?
A. Atrial fibrillation
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Trauma
D. Cocaine use
Answer: B. Diabetes mellitus
Rationale: Diabetes accelerates atherosclerosis, contributing to thrombus formation.
Which of the following is a classic sign of a subarachnoid hemorrhage?
A. Gradual vision loss
B. Sudden severe headache
C. Bradycardia
D. Loss of temperature sensation
Answer: B. Sudden severe headache
Rationale: SAH often presents with a “thunderclap” headache due to aneurysm rupture.
What is the recommended position during feeding for a stroke patient with dysphagia?
A. Lying flat with head turned
B. High-Fowler’s position
C. Trendelenburg position
D. Supine with neck extended
Answer: B. High-Fowler’s position
Rationale: Upright positioning reduces aspiration risk during feeding.
What should be assessed before feeding a post-stroke patient?
A. Visual acuity
B. Bowel sounds
C. Gag reflex
D. Pupil response
Answer: C. Gag reflex
Rationale: An absent gag reflex increases the risk of aspiration.
Which artery is associated with cranial nerve deficits when affected by a stroke?
A. Anterior cerebral
B. Middle cerebral
C. Posterior cerebral
D. Vertebral
Answer: D. Vertebral
Rationale: Strokes affecting the vertebral artery often involve the brainstem and cranial nerves.
What is a key feature of embolic stroke onset?
A. Slow progression over days
B. Preceded by TIA
C. Sudden severe symptoms
D. Often asymptomatic
Answer: C. Sudden severe symptoms
Rationale: Embolic strokes occur rapidly with immediate deficits due to sudden blockage.
Which condition increases the risk for embolic stroke?
A. Hypertension
B. Chronic kidney disease
C. Atrial fibrillation
D. GERD
Answer: C. Atrial fibrillation
Rationale: A-fib causes turbulent blood flow, leading to clot formation that can embolize to the brain.
Which assessment tool evaluates stroke severity?
A. Braden Scale
B. GCS
C. NIHSS
D. MMSE
Answer: C. NIHSS
Rationale: The NIH Stroke Scale quantifies stroke severity and helps guide treatment decisions.
What should be avoided in IV fluids for stroke patients?
A. Normal saline
B. Isotonic solutions
C. Hypotonic glucose solutions
D. Balanced electrolyte solutions
Answer: C. Hypotonic glucose solutions
Rationale: Hypotonic fluids worsen cerebral edema and increase ICP.
Which stroke type often results from ruptured aneurysms?
A. Thrombotic
B. Embolic
C. Intracerebral
D. Subarachnoid
Answer: D. Subarachnoid
Rationale: Aneurysm rupture typically leads to bleeding in the subarachnoid space.
What type of aphasia is characterized by fluent but meaningless speech?
A. Broca’s
B. Global
C. Wernicke’s
D. Mixed
Answer: C. Wernicke’s
Rationale: Wernicke’s aphasia involves long, nonsensical sentences and impaired comprehension.
Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate for a stroke patient with facial droop and slurred speech?
A. Risk for infection
B. Ineffective airway clearance
C. Impaired verbal communication
D. Risk for bleeding
Answer: C. Impaired verbal communication
Rationale: Facial droop and dysarthria impair communication ability.
What is the most frequent long-term disability following a stroke?
A. Respiratory failure
B. Severe hypotension
C. Hemiparesis
D. Febrile seizures
Answer: C. Hemiparesis
Rationale: Partial paralysis on one side is a common outcome of brain tissue damage.
What action should be taken when stroke symptoms are noticed?
A. Wait to see if symptoms resolve
B. Offer oxygen
C. Call 911 immediately
D. Provide food and fluids
Answer: C. Call 911 immediately
Rationale: Time is critical—early intervention saves brain tissue.
Which stroke type presents with more gradual symptom onset?
A. Embolic
B. Thrombotic
C. Subarachnoid
D. Cardioembolic
Answer: B. Thrombotic
Rationale: Thrombotic strokes may progress slowly as the vessel narrows.
In Broca’s aphasia, patients have difficulty with:
A. Understanding speech
B. Speaking fluently
C. Word recognition
D. Memory
Answer: B. Speaking fluently
Rationale: Broca’s aphasia causes halting, effortful speech.
What is a common emotional change post-stroke?
A. Blunted affect
B. Flat mood
C. Emotional lability
D. Psychosis
Answer: C. Emotional lability
Rationale: Patients may show exaggerated or inappropriate emotional responses.
Which medication is given within 24–48 hours after ischemic stroke to prevent further clotting?
A. Heparin
B. Warfarin
C. Aspirin
D. Alteplase
Answer: C. Aspirin
Rationale: Aspirin reduces clotting risk and is usually started after initial stabilization.
