Final study guide Flashcards by Drew Holland

Theories of accident causations:

List different theories of accident causation (Domino, Human error, Human factors, accident/incident, epidemiological, systems theory, behavioral theory)

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2- Elements of safety management

(Safety planning, Safety Plan Execution, Administration and reporting)

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OSHA stands for:

The Act: Occupational Safety and Health Act. The Administration overseeing the act: Occupational Safety and Health Administration

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Purpose of the Act:

(To ensure every working man and woman in the nation safe and healthful working conditions and to preserve human resources)

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Who is exempt from the OSH Act?

(self-employees and employees where other federal or state agencies exercise authority over occupational safety and health)

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Types of violations

(willful, serious, not serious, failure to correct)

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Niosh

(National institute for occupational safety and health)

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CFR

(Code of Federal Register)

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Reasons for having a written program:

(ethical, regulatory, economic, and practical)

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Elements of an effective safety program include:

Management commitment and employee involvement, worksite analysis, hazard prevention and control, and safety and health training

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Types and priorities of inspections:

(Imminent danger, post incident investigation, complaint, referral, follow up, special emphasis, random)s,

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OSHA’s authority to investigate include:

(inspection, questioning, reviewing records)

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What is CSHO?

(Compliance safety and health officer, he is the one performing the inspection not issuing the citation which is done by the area director)

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Elements of the inspection:

(opening conference, walk around inspection, closing conference)

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Citations must be issued within ___ days of the inspection, and the employer has __ days to appeal

a. 180

b. 15

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Focus four

Electrical hazards, fall hazards, struck-by hazards, and caught-in or -between hazards

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A good safety program may result in a reduction in penalties of up to ___.

25%

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Conditions for a confined space:

(large enough to get into and work inside of, restricted means of entry or exit, not designed for continuous occupancy)

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Permit-required confined space (PRCS):

is a confined space with safe atmosphere (toxic, flammable, oxygen deficient)

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Characteristics complicating the confined space:

(internal configuration, elevation, portal size, space access orientation )

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Oxygen deficiency:

(<19.5%)

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Duties of authorized entrant:

(know the hazards regarding the space, know signs or symptoms and consequences of exposure to hazardous atmosphere, know how to use equipment properly, communicate with the attendant, exit when there is danger)

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Duties of attendant:

(same as entrant + remains outside and monitors activities inside and outside space, summon rescue, alert entrant, perform non-entry rescue)

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Who should keep records:

Employers with more than 10 employees

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Forms include:

300 log for recordable injuries, 300 A summary, and 301 form

Counting cap for lost workdays due to injury is ___.

180 calendar days

______ is non-recordable

1st aid

is a hazard resulting from water rising up from the bottom of the trench

Boiling

is downward pressure from adjoining soil pushing the trench bottom upwards

Heaving

can identify hazards and has the authority to stop work or change conditions

A competent person

done prior to work starting, as needed through the shift, after rainstorms, or other hazard increasing events

Inspections

should be at least 2 feet from edge of excavation or restraining devices should be used

Spoil piles and equipment

Trenches___or deeper must have means of egress and the maximum horizontal travel distance is ___.

A. 4’ | B. 25 feet

Walkways over excavations ___ deep or more must have guardrails

6 feet

Excavations ___ or more need a P.E.

20 feet

Stairs or ladders are needed if there is a break in elevation of ___ or more

19 inches

Rails must be able to withstand a force of

200 pounds

Stairs with 4 or more risers or higher than 30 inches need at least one ___.

handrail

Stairs slope between ________ and variation in tread height or width not more than ¼ inch

30 and 50 degrees

Landings needed every ___ and must be at least _____ deep by ____ wide

a. 12 feet b. 30 inches deep c. 22 inches wide

At least ____ of platform beyond door swing.

20 inches

Ladder rungs spaced _____ apart

10 to 14 inches

Side rails in ladders at least ___ apart

11.5 inches

Ladder must support ____ maximum load.

4 times

Ladder slope angle is _ horizontal to _ vertical with at least _____ beyond landing surface

a. 1 b. 4 c. 3 feet

A double cleat ladder should be provided when ladders are the only means of entry or exit to a working area with __ or more employees

Guards required at

6 feet

4 methods of fall protection

(guardrails, PFAS, safety net, CAZ and written program)

Guardrails at __ and mid-rail at __ (+- 3 inches) and toe-board _ inches

a. 42 inches b. 21 inches c. 4 inches

Holes _ or more inches should be covered by a cover supporting _ x the load

a. 2 | b. 2

PFAS parts are:

anchorage, lanyard, lifeline, and body harness

Body belts not to be used for fall arrest.

Can only be used as a positioning device

Full body harness should limit the arresting force to

1800 pounds

Lanyards must have minimum breaking strength of _____ and should stop fall at ___ and have ____ arresting strength

a. 5,000 pounds b. 2 feet c. 3000 pounds

Anchorage platform point supports at least ______ per worker and is independent of the platform

5000 pounds

Fall clearance:

19.5 feet

Safety net must have unobstructed fall and is _____ maximum from the working surface with up to _______ horizontal extension. It must resist _____ drop test force

a. 30 feet b. 13 feet c. 400 pounds

To protect workers, the sequence of action is:

engineering controls, followed by work practice controls followed by PPE

Hearing protection should be used if the employee’s noise exposure exceeds _______ sound level of ____.

a. 8 hour time weighted average | b. 90 DBA

Types of rubber gloves include

nitrile (chemicals), butyl (gas and water vapors), Kevlar (cuts and abrasions), and stainless steel mesh (cuts and lacerations)

Types of respiratory protection include:

air purifying and air supplying

Respirators can be:

negative or positive pressure

PAPR is:

power air purifying respirator

a 6 x 25 wire rope has ______ of _____ construction each

a. 6 strands | b. 25 filler wire

Types of slings include:

choker, basket, straight, bridles

Wire rope shall not be used if in a length of _____ visible broken wire exceeds _____ of total number of wires.

a. 8 diameters | b. 10 percent

Synthetic webbing will not be used around ______.

acids or phenolics

Spreader beams can be used with a _______ to handle _____.

a. double vertical hitch | b. long loads

Load on each sling leg is obtained through the equation:

(load/number of legs)x(l/h)

Electrical hazards include 3 direct:

shock electrocution, and burns

Electrical hazards 3 indirect hazards:

Falls, fires, and explosions

Currents more than ___ causes rapid ineffective heartbeat.

75 ma

Currents above ___ can paralyze muscles.

10 ma

_____ or more lead to death

4 amps

Minimum working distance from power lines is ____.

10 feet

Extension cords must be _____ and designed for _________.

a. 3 wire type | b. hard or extra hard use

Temporary wiring must have ______ and not be on the floor.

breaker protection

Repairs to extension cords can only be done to _____ or larger and must have strain relief

12 gauge

GFCI cuts electricity in ____ of a second, and trips at 4 – 6 ma

1/40th

GFCI required on all portable generators of ___ or more

5 kw

AEGP:

assured equipment grounding program

Access to live parts of __ or more molts should be controlled by restricted areas or physical locations elevated 8 feet or above.

physical locations are located ______.

8 feet

Types of scaffolds are

supported, suspended, or man lifts

Scaffolds must support _____ the maximum expected load

4 times

Must be fully planked with no more than ___ gap between planks

1 inch

Minimum plank overlap is _____ and has to be above supports

12 inches

______ is not acceptable for scaffold construction

plywood

Platform should be at least _____ wide and workers should use fall protection at ____ (guardrails or PFAS)

a. 18 inches | b. 10 feet

Maximum distance between scaffold and workface distance is ________, and _______ in case of plastering and lathing operations

a. 14 inches | b. 18 inches

Maximum overhang is _____ for platforms 10 feet or less, and ____ for more than 10 feet

a. 12 inches | b. 18 inches

Rope in suspension scaffolds must ____ the load.

hold 6 times

Counterweights on suspension scaffolds must be of ______, permanently marked with weight, and securely attached. No power equipment on suspension scaffolds

non-flowable material

Elements of proper scaffold footing on frame scaffolds is _______.

baseplates, mudsills, and casters

For mobile scaffolds, maximum height to base ratio is ____.

2:1

Access must be provided when platform is > ___ above or below point of access

2 feet

PE required if frame scaffolds are > _____ high

125 feet

If > 3 ft wide, secure every ____. If < 3 ft wide, secure every ____.

a. 26 feet | b. 20 feet

For scaffolds with height to width ratio of more than ___, they must be tied, guyed, or braced

4:1

Fire extinguishers must be provided every ____ of open floor

3000 sq. ft.

Minimum one extinguisher per floor and at least one near _____.

stairway

What does PASS stand for

(Pull, Aim, squeeze, sweep)

Maximum travel distance in protected areas should not exceed ___.

100 feet

a. Flammable liquids > 1 gallon require a _____, and should not be stored near exits or stairways.

SAFETY CAN

c. Classifications of fire (A, B, C, D)

A: wood, paper, and trash B: Flammable liquids C: Electrical equipment D: Combustible metals

Covers hazardous chemicals including health, physical, and biological hazards

Hazcom

EMR

Experience modification rating

MSDS

Material Safety Data Sheets

UEL and LEL

(upper and lower explosive limits)

How is an EMR rating calculated?

Calculated using the company’s accident records for the first 3 of the last 4 years of operation

Determines worker’s compensation rates

EMR rating

EMR starts with __ for a new company and goes down with good safety performance or up with accidents.

1.0

List hazards of material when exposed to | fire conditions

NFPA – 704 Diamond

Relates to every day exposure

HMIS - Hazardous materials identification system

The nine DOT Classes

CLASS 1:EXPLOSIVES ( SIX DIVISIONS - 1.1 - 1.6 ) CLASS 2:GASES ( THREE DIVISIONS - 2.1 - 2.3 ) CLASS 3:FLAMMABLE AND COMBUSTIBLE LIQUIDS CLASS 4:FLAMMABLE SOLIDS ( THREE DIVISIONS - 4.1 - 4.3 ) CLASS 5:OXIDIZERS AND ORGANIC PEROXIDES ( TWO DIVISIONS - 5.1 - 5.2 ) CLASS 6: POISONS ( TWO DIVISIONS - 6.1 - 6.2 ) CLASS 7: RADIOACTIVE MATERIAL CLASS 8:CORROSIVES CLASS 9:MISCELLANEOUS

Is responsible for, and | authority to control conditions on the jobsite.

Controlling Employer

Employer whose employees created the hazards.

Creating Employer

Employer whose employees are exposed to the hazards).

Exposing Employer

Employer who has the responsibility for actually correcting the hazard.

Correcting Employer

Exposing employer's defense against citations

1. create the hazard 2. correct the hazard 3. ability to correct hazard 4. Notify others 5. recognize the hazard

UFL/LFL

upper flammable limit and lower flammable limit

Particle size, Spalling and fissures, Water presence

Visual test

Pocket penetrometer, roll test, sedimentation test

manual test

Generally a clay soil and has a slope of 3/4:1.

Type A soil

Has cohesive properties and has a slope of 1:1.

Type B soil

Cohesive soil and has an unconfined compressive strength of .5 tsk or less. Has a slope of 1.5:1.

Type C soil

Competent employee watches site after possible fire could occur with a fire extinguisher. For instance after welding.

fire watch