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midterm exam Flashcards

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1
Q

reasons for inspection

A
  1. General - scheduled (random)
  2. complaint
  3. post-incident-fatality or 3 injuries from one event
  4. referral - news, media, fire department, public
  5. special emphasis - silica, falls, trenching
  6. focused - 4 main hazards.
  7. follow up - post citation
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2
Q

The inspection itself consists of three parts:

A
  1. opening conference
  2. walk in inspection
  3. closing conference
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3
Q

When the osha inspector comes first on site field personnel should immediately_____.

A

Take photos

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4
Q

At the opening conference the CSHO will do what?

A
  1. Scope of inspection - CSHO identifies scope / type of inspection.
  2. OSHA recordkeeping -CSHO reviews records.
  3. Focused inspection - CSHO determines if an F.I. is appropriate.
  4. Meets w/ contractors - csho meets with reps or each contractor.
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5
Q

who should be at the opening conference?

A

employer and reps of each contractor

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6
Q

who should be on the inspection tour?

A

employer and employees

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7
Q

Correcting any alleged violations immediately shows?

A

compliance

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8
Q

At the closing conference the CSHO should do two things (primarily)

A
  1. CSHO many point out potential violations of the standards.
  2. Establish abatement dates for correction.
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9
Q
  1. other than serious
  2. serious
  3. willful
  4. criminal willful
  5. repeat
  6. failure to abate
A

If a citation is received it must be posted for or until alleged violation is corrected whichever is according to the video there are 7 types of citations.

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10
Q
  1. The size of the business
  2. the seriousness of the violations
  3. the employees history of previous citations
A

Three factors used in assessing penalties

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11
Q
  1. Based on gravity of violation
  2. based on size of business
  3. based based on good faith
  4. based on history of previous violation
A

adjustment factors

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12
Q

If a company wishes to contest a citation they must do so within ____.

A

15 working days

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13
Q

1) An entry permit should contain which of the following:
a) description of hazards.
b) Date and location of job, time of issue and expiration date.
c) Outline for proper testing procedure
d) List of required safety equipment
e) All of the above

A

e) All of the above

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14
Q
  1. _____ of deaths related to confined spaces happen to untrained people attempting to rescue others.
A

60%

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15
Q
  1. Two of the most toxic gases commonly found in a confined spaces are:
    a) Carbon Monoxided and Nitrous Oxide
    b) Hydrogen sulfate and potassium Nitrate
    c) Hydrochlorous Aluminate and Argon
    d) Hydrogen sulfide and Carbon Monoxide
A

d) Hydrogen sulfide and Carbon Monoxide

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16
Q
  1. Which of the following s Not considered a confined space?
    a) An area with limited entries and exits.
    b) An area with visibility to outside only on one side.
    c) An area OK to enter but not designed for continuous occupancy.
    d) An area lacking natural air circulation.
A

b) An area with visibility to outside only on one side.

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17
Q
  1. Jobsites continually change. A trench, for example, considered safe earlier in the day can quickly become hazardous by a piece of machinery pulling up close.
    a) True
    b) False
A

a) True

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18
Q

6) Confined space air should be:
a) Automatically ventilated
b) Of no concern if initial test showed no hazardous conditions
c) continuously monitored and tested
d) None of the above

A

c) continuously monitored and tested

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19
Q

8) An attendant is all of the following except:
a) Always stationed outside the confined space
b) Competent person
c) In constant contact with those within
d) designed person

A

c) In constant contact

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20
Q

9) An asphyxiating atmosphere is one that contains less than oxygen.
a) 10%
b) 15.5%
c) 19.5%
d) 25%

A

c) 19.5%

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21
Q

10) What is the leading cause of death in confined spaces?
a) Engulfment
b) mechanical Equipment
c) Asphyxiation
d) Asbestos inhalation

A

c) Asphyxiation

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22
Q

11) Without testing is it possible to tell if oxygen has been depleted in a confined space?
a. Yes
b. No

A

a) Yes

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23
Q

1) Ladders are manufactured according to __ standards.
a) OSHA
b) NIOSH
c) BWC
d) ANSI

A

a) OSHA

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24
Q

2) There are four types of ladder ratings. Which should be found on construction sites?
a) Type 1-A 300 pounds
b) Type 1 250 pounds
c) Type ll 225 pounds
d) A and B
c) B and C

A

d) A and B

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25
3) If the job requires job-made ladders in excess of 24 feet in length: a) two or ore ladders must be used. b) ladders must be staggered with protective platform between each. c) rails should extend 36-42" above top landing d) cleats should be eliminated above landing level. e) all the above
e) all of the above
26
4) When climbing a ladder all of the following apply except: a) Face the ladder b) climb hand over hand. c) hoist items you'll need after you reach the top. d) Carry tools and buckets with you e) maintain three points of contact at all times
d) Carry tools and buckets with you
27
5) A double-cleated ladder or two or more separated ladders must be provided if: a) there are less than 25 people b) there is lots of movement in two directions c) there are more than 25 people d) B and C E) A and B
D) B and C
28
6) Employee training on ladder and stairway safety is a necessary requirement by OSHA. a) True b) false
a) True
29
``` 8) When doors or gates open directly onto a stairway, a platform should be provided and the swing of the door must allow a width of at least ______ from the door in the open position. A. 19 inches b. 30 inches c. 20 inches d. 24 inches ```
c. 20 inches
30
``` 9. So people can get on and off safely, ladders must extend ____ at least above upper landing. A. 19 inches B. 36 inches C. 42 inches D. doesn't matter if they're tied off ```
B. Inches
31
10. If you're placing a 16 foot portable rung ladder against a wall the base should be ___ feet from the wall. a) 4 feet b) 8 feet c) 2 feet d) doesn't make difference
a) 4 feet
32
11. Fall protection should be put into place: a) as the job progresses and you think about it. b) before people begin work c) Only if there is imminent danger d) before an OSHA inspection
b) before people begin work
33
12) If there is a break in elevation of ____ or more a suitable ladder or stairway must be provided if there is-no-other safe means for employees to move from one level to the next. a) 12 inches b) 19 inches c) two feet d) no requirements
b) 19 inches
34
1. Review companies inspection history 2. gather proper personnel 3. document jobsite with pictures and videos
advance preparation
35
OSHA form No. ___ is used to record detailed information about occupational injuries and illnesses. a) 200 b) 300 c) 300A d) 301
b) 300
36
OSHA forum No. ___ is used to display a summary of an employers prior year record of occupational related illnesses and injuries. a) 200 b) 300 c) 300A d) 301
c) 300A
37
Hearing protection is always required whenever the noise level exceeds ___ DBA. a) 75 b) 85 c) 95 d) 115
b) 85
38
a) CSHO stands for ______.
An OSHA compliance safety and health officer
39
b) A ____ Person is one who is capable of identifying existing and predictable hazards in the surroundings or working conditions which are unsanitary, hazardous, or dangerous to employees, and who has authorization to take prompt corrective measures to eliminate them.
competent
40
c) OSHA stands for ______.
Occupational safety and health administration.
41
1. Safety Planning: Development of the approach to manage the various hazards to safety inherent in the project. 2. Safety Plan Execution: Carrying out the safety plan by performing the activities included therein. 3. Administration and Reporting: Maintenance of safety records and reporting safety activities.
The 3 elements of safety management.
42
Domino Theory, Human error theory, Human facts theory, accident/incident theory, Epidemiological theory, Systems theory of causation, Behavioral theory, Hazop management
accident causation
43
opening conference, walk around inspection, closing conference.
The three steps of an OSHA inspection
44
The contractor cannot refuse entry to the | OSHA Compliance Officer.
False-He can refuse
45
With a good S&H program, the reduction in | penalty can up to what %?
25%
46
The penalty for a Willful Criminal violation can | be up to how much?
$500,000
47
Who issues the citation?
Area director
48
What is a Confined Space?
Person can enter, Difficult entry & exit Not for continuous occupancy.
49
What is a Permit Required confined Space | PRCS
A Confined Space with a | hazardous atmosphere
50
Should an Attendant rescue an Entrant if the | entrant needs help?
Okay BUT Attendant | cannot enter C. Space
51
What is the leading cause of confined space | fatalities?
Asphyxiation
52
Ladders or other means of access are required at what | depth in a trench?
4 feet
53
How far back from the edge of the trench must spoil piles | be?
2 feet
54
What two types of tests must be done to classify soils?
1 Visual Test, and 1 Manual Test feet
55
At what depth must trenches be either sloped or shored?
5 feet & Competent person judges no | danger… 1926.652 (a)(1)(ii)
56
How often must the excavation competent person inspect | trenches?
Daily; Shift Start; During Shift; | After Rain: other times
57
 A ladder or stairs have to be provided if there is a break in elevation of ______ inches
19"
58
The slope of stairs should be between ____ and ____ degrees
30 and 50 degrees
59
 The spacing between ladder | rungs should not exceed
10” and 14”
60
```  A double cleat ladder should be provided when ladders are the only way to enter or exit a working area with ___ or more employees ```
 25
61
``` When using a portable ladder for access to an upper landing surface, the side rails must extend at least ___ feet above the upper landing surface ```
3’
62
```  If you're placing a 16 foot portable rung ladder against a wall the base should be ______ feet from the wall. ◦ 2 feet ◦ 4 feet ◦ 8 feet ◦ doesn't make a difference ```
 4’
63
At what height must the top rail of a guardrail system | be installed?
42 inches, +/- 3inches
64
How many pounds of force must a fall anchorage be | able to support?
5,000 lb per employee
65
At what diameter must floor holes be covered?
2 “ | & up
66
How far back from the edge of a roof must a warning | line be erected.
2-10 feet
67
In addition to anchorage requirements, what other factors must be considered in using a personal fall arrest system?
Clear dist below, lanyard, | full body harness

Construction safety (24 decks)

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