finals revision (mix of everything) Flashcards

1
Q

BP targets for
1) patients with CVD, CKD, DM, OR framingham risk score > 20%

2) no risk factors or risk score < = 20%

3) Frail, old age eg. > 80yo

A

1) < 130/80

2) < 140/90

3) < 150/90 (less strict)

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2
Q

What is framingham risk score

A

Estimate 10 year risk of coronary death, non-fatal MI in asymptomatic patients without medical conditions which cause high risk (CVD, DM)

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3
Q

When to start treating for hypertension?

A

1) > 160/100

2) Grade 1: 140-159, with high risk score (>20%)

3) Grade 1: 140-159, and lifestyle modification after 3 months not working

4) High normal: 130-139 and high risk score -> treat if lifestyle modification not working

No need
130-139 + not high risk score

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4
Q

When should patient follow up for hypertension treatment?

A

Follow up:
- every 6 months
- every 3 months if patients have comorbidities eg. CKD, DM, or patients switched medications

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5
Q

What is CFS? Score and the meaning

A

1 - 9 (1 - 3 are fit, 4 - 6 are frail, 7-8 are very frail)
CFS 1 (Very fit)
Very active, exercise regularly and among the fittest for their age
CFS 2 (Fit)
No active disease, exercise occasionally
CFS 3 (Managing well)
Medical problems well controlled, not regularly active

CFS 4: (Very mild frailty)
Symptoms limit activity but not dependent on others for daily help. Tired during the day
CFS 5 (Mild frailty)
Evident slowing, need help with IADL (instrumental) eg. finances, transportation
CFS 6 (Moderate frailty)
Need help with all outside activities, IADL and some of basic ADL (bathing, stairs)

CFS 7 (Severe frailty)
Completely dependent for personal care. Stable, not at risk of dying
CFS 8 (Very severe frailty)
Completely dependent, approaching end of life. Cannot recover from minor illness
CFS 9 (Terminally ill)
Life expectancy < 6 months, not living in severe frailty

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6
Q

How does absorption change in elderly (4 pts)

A

1) Decrease in gastric acid secretion due to PPI or mucosal atrophy

2) Gastric emptying time prolonged
Caused by Anticholinergics, Opioids
Need to space apart food > 30 mins for bisphosphonates

3) Concurrent medications
Inducer of CYP: Phenytoin
PGPi: Clarithromycin, Amiodarone
PGP is a efflux pump, other drugs eg. Digoxin can be absorbed and cause toxicity

4) Transdermal route
Eg. using Fentanyl patch, Nitroglycerin patch
Increase absorption: epidermis and dermis thinning, heat pack
Decrease absorption: reduced cutaneous blood supply

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7
Q

how does distribution change in elderly

A

1) Body composition: Fat ↑, total body water and muscle ↓

2) Decreased serum albumin, Increased a1-acid glycoprotein
May result in clinically significant interaction with drugs
Eg. Phenytoin

3) Distribution into brain increased
More leaky BBB
Make elderly more sensitive to anticholinergic SE
Pgp activity lower

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8
Q

Which benzodiazepine should be used in elderly and why?

A

Use Lorazepam

Use short acting BZD and short course eg. a few days
Very sedating, increase fall risk in elderly
Increases risk of cognitive impairment, depression

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9
Q

Normal physiology of urinary tract

A

Bladder filling
Sympathetic NS activated / Parasympathetic NS blocked
B3 adrenergic receptor → bladder relaxed
A1 adrenergic receptor → smooth muscle contract, tighten urethra

Bladder voiding phase
Sympathetic NS blocked / Parasympathetic NS activated
M3 receptor in bladder → bladder contraction

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10
Q

What is metabolic acidosis?

How does metabolic acidosis occur?

Treatment?

A

When there is low base (bicarbonate) and high acid in the blood

When the kidney fails, acid H+ excretion is decreased, pH decreased

Excretion of NH3 and PO4 decreased
- NH3 and PO4 helps to remove H+

Treatment
1) Use alkalinising salts eg. Sodium bicarbonate, citric acid
- Citric acid requires liver function to be converted to bicarbonate)

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11
Q

How to treat COPD? (from ACE guidelines)

A

0 - 1 exacerbations
1) CAT < 10 (infrequent, less severe symptoms) -> LAMA
2) CAT ≥ 10 (frequent, more severe symptoms) -> LAMA + LABA

≥ 2 exacerbations OR ≥ 1 leading to hospitalisations
-> LAMA + LABA

+ Blood eosinophils ≥ 300 cells/uL
-> LAMA + LABA + ICS

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12
Q

Non pharm for COPD (4 points)

A

1) Reduce exposure to irritants

2) Vaccination (pneumococcal vaccine, yearly influenza vaccine)

3) Physical exercise
- eg. walking 3-4x a week for 20 - 30 mins
- Should still exercise even though breathless

4) Have a balanced diet
- Malnutrition can lead to poorer outcomes eg. impaired lung function, poor exercise tolerance, reduced QOL

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13
Q

Goals of therapy CKD associated anaemia

When to treat for CKD associated anaemia

A

Goal
- Hgb: 10-12, not above 13
- TSAT%: 20-30%
- Serum ferritin: 200 - 500 for HD patients, 100-500 for non HD patients

Treat when below goal

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14
Q

What do
- TSAT %
- Serum ferritin
mean?

A

TSAT% = (Serum Fe / TIBC) x 100%
- TSAT = Transferrin Saturation, the % of Transferrin which is saturated with iron aka carrying the iron
- Transferrin is the protein that transports iron
- Indicator of iron immediately available for delivery to bone marrow

Serum ferritin
- indicator of iron stores in the body
- acute phase reactant

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15
Q

(according to Chatgpt)
Explain TSAT %.

Why does transferrin aka TIBC have an inverse relationship with TSAT?

A

TSAT % = serum Fe / (TIBC aka Transferrin) x 100%

TSAT is measuring the saturation of transferrin protein, basically whether transferrin is saturated with iron

When iron is low:
- the body produces more Transferrin to capture and bind to the iron for transport. Hence there is high Transferrin, but meaning there will be many unsaturated Transferrin (Transferrin without Fe) -> low TSAT

When iron is high
- the body decreases Transferrin production as there is already alot of iron present. All the Transferrin present are highly saturated (carrying alot of iron) -> hence TSAT is high while Transferrin is low

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16
Q

What does absolute vs functional iron deficiency mean?

A

Absolute Fe deficiency = low TSAT, low Ferritin

Functional Fe deficiency = low TSAT, high Ferritin
- Functional: the function of TSAT is not working, hence even if i have high iron stores, it cannot be transported

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17
Q

What to monitor while on ESA? (3 points)

A

1) Adverse reactions eg. hypertension, seizures, vascular access thrombosis, flu-like symptoms

2) Pure red cell aplasia (antibodies against ESAs) due to SC Epoetin alfa (Eprex) or suboptimal storage conditions

3) Resistance to ESA
- if need significantly high doses of ESA to maintain Hgb
- common cause: iron, b12, folate deficiency (building blocks of erythropoiesis)

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18
Q

When should IV iron be withheld?

Adverse effects of IV iron

A

When patient undergoes infection
Can also switch to oral iron

Adverse effects
- Allergic reaction, hypotension, dizziness, dyspnea (can be minimised by decreasing dose or rate of infusion)
- iron overload (use Desferrioxamine iron chelating agent)
- Risk of infections

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19
Q

When should IV iron be monitored after starting

A

1 month, dont check immediately, wait for iron levels to fall

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20
Q

How to treat Asthma

A

Mild asthma, step 1 and 2 (symptoms < 4 days a week)
- Preferred: ICS-Formoterol PRN

Moderate asthma, step 3 (symptoms most days, waking up ≥ 1x a week)
- Preferred: Low dose ICS-Formoterol MART

Moderate asthma, step 4 (daily symptoms, waking with asthma ≥ 1x a week, low lung function eg. FEV1 < 60%)
- Preferred: Med dose ICS Formoterol MART, reliever: still low dose

Severe asthma, step 5
- Add on LAMA (Tiotropium)
- Consider biologics anti IgE, anti IL5, anti IL4, anti TSLP
- Trial 3 months high dose ICS LABA
- Oral corticosteroids eg. Prednisolone ≤ 7.5mg OD

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21
Q

non pharm for seizures (2 points)

A

ketogenic diet (low fat, high protein / fat diet, more vegetables)

Keep a seizure diary

22
Q

which ASM are inducers (2 points)

A

Carbamazepine
Phenytoin

23
Q

Adverse effects of ASM (3 points)

A

SJS / TEN

Suicide ideation (for Sodium valproate, Levetiracetam)

Hepatotoxicity

Thrombocytopenia (for Sodium valproate, Carbamazepine, Phenytoin)

24
Q

What is status epilepticus?

Medications for status epilepticus

A

When seizure does not stop after 5 mins

First line: IV Lorazepam, Diazepam

Second line (if seizure does not stop after 20 mins): IV Valproic acid, Levetiracetam

25
What kind of anaemia is iron deficiency anaemia Treatment for iron deficiency anaemia
Microcytic 200mg OM iron tablets for 3-6 months
26
Names of Vit B1, B6, B9, B12
B1: Thiamine B6: Pyridoxine B9: Folate B12: Cobalamin
27
What is B12 deficiency known as Treatment for B12 anaemia
Pernicious anaemia For patients without intrinsic factor to absorb B12 via GI tract, treat with 1000mcg Vit B12 daily for 1 week, then weekly for 4 weeks, then monthly for life
28
What is aplastic anaemia How to diagnose Aplastic Anaemia?
Aplastic anaemia = bone marrow suppression All 3 lines of haem disorders (wbc, platelet and haemoglobin) (Have 2 of) WBC ≤ 3.5 X 10^9 / L Platelet count ≤ 55 x 10^9 Haemoglobin ≤ 10 + Reticulocyte count ≤ 30 x 10^9 / L
29
Drugs that may cause aplastic anaemia
Furosemide NSAIDs Thionamides (Carbimazole and PTU) Cytotoxic, radiation therapy
30
What is agranulocytosis, neutropenia
Low neutrophil count Agranulocytosis means absolute 0 neutrophils
31
3 medications that can cause agranulocytosis
Antithyroid medications (Carbimazole, PTU) Clozapine Penicillins
32
how does heparin induced thrombocytopenia occur?
Body forms antibodies against complex of heparin and platelet factor 4. Antibodies activate platelets -> clot formation -> platelet consumption -> thrombocytopenia
33
how often should rheumatoid arthritis be monitored?
1) Monitor 3 months, 6 months after start of csDMARD. If no improvement after 3 months or havent achieve remission after 6 months, add a bMDARD 2) Continue monitoring after 3 months and 6 months mark. If no improvement at 3m, or no remission at 6 months, change bDMARD
34
side effects of methotrexate (7 points) What to monitor for MTX
Nausea, vomiting Mouth, GI ulcers Hair thinning Liver: increased transaminases, cirrhosis Myelosuppression Photosensitivity (protect from light) SJS / TEN liver function, FBC (myelosuppression), SCr (contraindicated in Crcl < 30)
35
MOA of heparin vs enoxaparin Why is enoxaparin preferred over heparin? When is heparin used over enoxaparin?
Both bind to antithrombin to inactivate Factor 10a but Heparin also inactivates Factor 2a / Thrombin (due to its longer chain) Enoxaparin has better bioavailability, longer half life, lower risk of HIT (heparin induced thrombocytopenia) Heparin is used only in high risk situations where reversal is needed, using protamine sulfate.
36
What is the treatment for VTE? When should warfarin be used?
- General population: any DOACs (Dabi, Riva, Apix, Edox) - Warfarin (with LMWH at 1mg/kg OD): for CrCl < 15, antiphospholipid syndrome, mechanical heart valve, drugs with DDI with DOACs, left ventricular thrombus, moderate to severe mitral stenosis - CrCl 15 - 29: Apix (preferred) > Riva > Warfarin - CrCl < 15 or HD: Warfarin + LMWH (1mg/kg OD, instead of BD) overlap. DOACs not recommended
37
When does DVT not require treatment?
Distal provoked DVT (below the knee), only requires serial imaging. We can monitor, dont need to start anticoagulation
38
Treatment duration for DVT
3 months 1) Proximal DVT with transient (temporary) risk factors 2) Distal DVT, but unprovoked (no transient risk factors) Beyond 3 months (aka 6 months) 1) Proximal DVT, but unprovoked 2) Chronic risk factors eg. obesity, antiphospholipid syndrome DVT prophylaxis (forever) 1) For ill patients who are immobile eg. heart failure 2) Cancer patients 3) Surgical patients (eg. abdominal surgery, knee replacement) with prolonged immobility
39
When should Enoxaparin dose be reduced?
When CrCl < 30 usual dose: 1mg/kg BD Dose reduction: 1mg/kg OD
40
DOAC of choice for CrCl 15 - 29
Apixaban > Rivaroxaban > Warfarin
41
Indications to use Warfarin in SPAF or DVT treatment (5 points)
1) mechanical heart valve, 2) mod - severe mitral stenosis, 3) severe renal (CrCl < 15) 4) antiphospholipid syndrome 5) left ventricular thrombus
42
Why is LMWH needed for first 5 days of warfarin?
1) Onset of warfarin is slow - INR only accounts for the decrease in Clotting Factors 2,7, 10 (no Factor 9) - Factor 2 takes the longest to decrease 2) Starting warfarin will result in a hypercoagulable state - Protein C and S are the body's natural anticoagulants - Warfarin decreases protein C and S levels, making the blood become more hypercoagulable
43
What is the PUD triple therapy and duration?
PPI Clarithromycin Amoxicillin For 10 -14 days
44
What are the ways of managing atrial fibrillation (3 points)
1) Relieve symptoms via rate control or rhythm control 2) Stroke prevention (SPAF) using anticoagulants 3) Address risk factors and triggers eg. obesity, heart failure, hypertension
45
HR goal for arrhythmia What if patient has HF?
Rate control (< 80bpm) - If patient has HF, < 70bpm Rhythm control - converting to sinus rhythm
46
Treatment for rate control in arrhythmia
1st line: Beta blockers 2nd line: Non DHP CCB (if patient cannot take BB) 3rd; Digoxin 4th: Amiodarone
47
When should rhythm control be considered in patients with arrhythmia?
If patient is young (< 65yo, hence will still benefit from being in sinus rhythm) High likelihood of being able to maintain sinus rhythm eg. 1st AF, short history, AF caused by a temporary event
48
Which medication should be used for which patients with AF for rhythm control?
AF + HFrEF: Amiodarone AF + valvular disease, preserved or mildly reduced HF: Dronedarone All other patients with no structural heart disease (aka no HF, CAD): Flecainide, Propafenone - as Class 1C drugs associated with increased mortality and pro-arrhythmia after MI
49
Amiodarone drug interactions side effects What to monitor?
CYP inhibitor of 1A2, 2D6, 2C9, 3A4 Side effects - Hyper / Hypothyroidism due to iodine in the structure - Eye pain, vision loss - Hepatotoxicity - Tremors - Photosensitivity - Pulmonary fibrosis (lung scarring) Monitor for baseline TFT, LFT, Chest xray
50
What are adjunctive medications to add on to Levodopa for PD patients
Amantadine (NMDA antagonist) or Anticholinergics eg. Benzhexol - useful for tremors