Fire inspector part 1 Flashcards
(220 cards)
1
Q
Which of the following is the Standard for Professional Qualifications for Fire Inspector?
A
NFPA 1031
2
Q
When a federal agency has established standards in a particular region, who is generally responsible for enforcing those standards?
A
The federal agency that established the standards
3
Q
Which of the following organizations publishes the National Fire Codes?
A
The National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)
4
Q
_______________ heating occurs when a wire is not insulated well enough to contain the current.
A
Leakage current
5
Q
When unburned superheated combustible gasses are released during the early stages of a fire accumulate at the ceiling level, they are pushed away from the fire area into areas that are not involved in the fire. Here, they mix with oxygen and, when their flammable range is reached, they ignite and move very rapidly across the ceiling. What is this called?
A
Flameover
6
Q
A stage of fire where all objects in an area are heated to their ignition temperature and ignite is known as which of the following?
A
Flashover
7
Q
What is the natural law of physics called that specifies heat will tend to move from a hot substance to a cold substance?
A
Law of Heat Flow
8
Q
What type of heat transfer is generally responsible for the movement of heat from room to room, floor to floor and from one area to another?
A
Convection
9
Q
__________ is the most common form of heat associated with fire spread to exposures.
A
Radiation
10
Q
What term is used to describe the maximum amount of heat that can be generated if all of the combustible materials in a given area burn?
A
Fire Load
11
Q
A moderate fire load is how many PSF:
A
10 PSF
12
Q
The 1 1/2 hour fire doors used at locations other than used at severe exterior fire exposure locations may have a window that is no larger than ________ square inches of window.
A
100
13
Q
Fire doors rated for 3/4 hour may have up to _________ square inches of window, though no dimension of the window may exceed 54 inches.
A
1,296
14
Q
At which of the following temperatures does wire glass generally begin to weaken?
A
Around 1,500 degrees Fahrenheit
15
Q
What is designed to restrict the mushrooming effect of rising smoke and heat in large areas of buildings that are not subdivided by walls?
A
Draft Curtains
16
Q
The depth of a draft curtain should be at least ____ percent of the ceiling height in the protected area and not extend below 10 feet from the floor.
A
20
17
Q
The maximum distance between draft curtains should not exceed _____ times the ceiling height.
A
8
18
Q
Automatic heat vents come in two designs:
A
Fusible link and drop-out panel
19
Q
Fire dampers have a fire-resistive rating of at least _____ hours.
A
1.5
20
Q
Fire dampers are usually activated by _________.
A
Fusible links
21
Q
The rating given to a fire stop when exposed to fire and hose streams and to prevent the start of fire on the unexposed surface of the stop.
A
F rating
22
Q
The ________ rating measures whether combustible materials on the unexposed side of the fire stop would be ignited by conduction of heat through the fire stop material or along the penetrating conduit.
A
T rating
23
Q
Most electrical fires are due to either overheating or arcing. How much of the electrical energy from an ordinary light bulb is converted into heat?
A
Over 90 percent is converted into heat
24
Q
Which of the following terms describes a material that is neither a good conductor nor a good insulator and can be used as either in some electrical applications?
A
Semiconductors
25
When an inspector is visiting a warehouse facility, which of the following is the most important item that the inspector should check?
The automatic sprinkler system
26
If there are openings in the walls, ducts or floors, they must be covered if they are within how many feet of welding operations?
Within 35 feet
27
The filters that are used in air conditioning and ventilation systems are classified by Underwriters Laboratories contingent upon their flame propagation and smoke development. Which of the following ratings is given to those filters that, when clean, will not contribute fuel to a fire and will give off a very small amount of smoke when impinged by flames?
Class 1
28
Freeboard is the distance from the liquid surface to the top of the tank. The freeboard should never be less than ____ inches.
6
29
Tar kettles must have two approved fire extinguishers rated 20B:C with _______ feet.
25
30
In no case should tar kettles be closer than ________ feet from exits or means of egress.
10
31
In order to comply with NFPA 102, Standards for Grandstands, Folding and Telescopic Seating, Tents, and the Membrane Structures, how much of the premises can be covered by a tent?
No more than 75 percent
32
What is the minimum distance between stake lines for tents?
10 feet
33
NFPA 220, Standard on Types of Building Construction, places types of construction into how many classifications?
Five
34
The Standard Building Code requires that when heavy timbers are used to support roofs, what is the minimum size of these timbers?
8 x 8 inches
35
What is described by the Life Safety Code as a "continuous and unobstructed way of exit travel from any point in a building or structure to a public way"?
A means of egress
36
A public way is specified by the codes as having a minimum height of 10 feet. How wide should the public way be?
10 feet wide
37
The Life Safety Code classifies two main classes of ramps. Which of the following identifies the requirements of a Class B ramp?
Class B ramps must be at least 30 inches wide with a maximum slope of 1 to 8
38
In new buildings, doors serving as the means of exit must be at least ______ inches clear width.
32
39
All smoke enclosures must discharge into a public way. The stairway barrier must have a ______ hour rating in buildings that are three stories or less.
1
40
All smoke enclosures must discharge into a public way. The stairway barrier must have a ____ hour rating in buildings that are four stories or taller.
2
41
The Life Safety Code classifies two main classes of ramps. Which of the following identifies the requirements of a Class A ramp?
Class A ramps must be at least 30 inches wide with a maximum slope of 1 to 10
42
According to fire loss data, what percentage of all fires were either controlled or extinguished in buildings with automatic sprinklers?
96%
43
What is the primary purpose of a check valve in an automatic sprinkler system?
The check valve prevents water in the system from back-flowing into the potable water supply
44
The temperature rating for an ordinary sprinkler head is from ______ to _______
135 to 170
45
What is the color code for a fusible link sprinkler with a temperature range from 500 to 575 degrees F?
Orange
46
What is the color code for a fusible link sprinkler with a temperature range from 250 to 300 degrees F?
Blue
47
What type of dry-pipe system utilizes a deluge-type valve, fire detection devices and closed sprinklers?
Pre-action system
48
What is the function of the retard chamber in an automatic sprinkler system?
This chamber helps to eliminate false alarms in the system caused by surges in pressure
49
Each sprinkler system must have a water supply capable of an adequate volume of water, pressure and a certain degree of reliability. This water supply must be able to deliver the appropriate amount of water to the highest sprinkler in a building at a minimum of what residual pressure for those systems that are designed by the pipe schedule method?
15 PSI
50
Sprinkler systems that are designed by the hydraulic calculation method must have a minimum residual pressure of ___________ psi at the highest sprinkler.
7
51
When a gravity tank is used to supply the water at the required pressure to an automatic sprinkler system, how high must the bottom of the tank be above the highest sprinkler in the building?
At least 35 feet
52
Pressure tanks are sometimes used as either the main or secondary independent water supply. Which of the following best depicts these types of tanks?
Pressure water tanks are filled two-thirds with water and air pressurized to at least 75 psi
53
How much clearance should be maintained between light fixtures, stock, partitions, or other objects and the sprinkler (as measured from the deflector)?
At least 18 inches
54
All of the piping of a sprinkler system, including that which may be underground must be hydrostatically tested to which of the following?
200 psi for two hours
55
If the sprinkler system is equipped with a fire pump, how often must this pump be flow tested?
Annually
56
How often should the alarms of the sprinkler system be tested?
Quarterly
57
How often should the main drain test of the sprinkler system be conducted?
Quarterly
58
If the risers of a sprinkler system are four (4) inches or larger in diameter, what size main drain will that system require?
A 2-inch main drain
59
To perform a main drain test, the following test steps should be followed:
Observe and record the pressure on the system gauge, open the drain fully, observe and record the pressure drop, close the main drain slowly
60
How often is a flow test of the fire pump assembly required?
Annually
61
In a dry-pipe system, how much air pressure is in the system lines?
15 to 20 psi above the trip point
62
What is considered to be the basic spacing for sprinklers in a residential system?
144 square feet per sprinkler
63
Water mist fire protection systems are designed to operate in which of the following pressure ranges?
A. High pressure systems: 500psi or greater
B. Low pressure systems: 175psi or less
C. Intermediate pressure systems: 175 to 500 psi
64
The ________ pump is the most common type of fire pump found in the fixed fire suppression systems.
Horizontal shaft
65
The most common gallon age rating for horizontal shaft pumps in use today in fixed fire suppression systems are those in the _____ to ______ gpm range.
500 to 1500
66
A diesel engine is required to be tested on a weekly basis. During this weekly test, how long is the engine required to run?
30 minutes
67
The recommended frequency for pump operation is ____________.
Weekly
68
Which of the following signifies Class A fires under the letter-symbol identification system?
Green triangle
69
Which of the following signifies Class B fires under the letter-symbol identification system?
Red square
70
Which of the following signifies Class C fires under the letter-symbol identification system?
Blue Circle
71
Which of the following signifies Class D fires under the letter-symbol identification system?
Yellow star
72
What is the recommended maximum travel distance for Class D extinguishers?
75 feet
73
What is the expected height when installing an extinguisher that weighs more than 40 gross pounds (except for wheeled units)?
The top of the extinguisher should be no more than three and one-half feet above the floor
74
What is the minimum clearance between the bottom of an extinguisher and the floor?
It should never be less than 4 inches
75
At which of the following weights should a fire extinguisher (CO2) be removed from service and replaced?
When it is found to be deficient in weights by 10 percent.
76
Which of the following statements concerning dry chemical extinguishing systems is incorrect?
The residue does not leave a residue and can be used on sensitive electronic equipment
77
If the dry-chemical system actuator is controlled by a fusible link device, how often should this fusible link be replaced?
At least annually or as required by the manufacturer
78
Dry-chemical cylinders that are less than 150 pounds must be hydrostatically tested every 12 years. How often are cylinders larger than 150 pounds hydrostatically tested?
There are no hydrostatic test requirements
79
For a storage tank fire, fluoroprotein foams can be introduced at the base of a burning storage tank and allowed to rise to the surface, extinguishing the fire. What is this method of foam application called?
Subsurface injection
80
When an alcohol-type AFFF is applied to ________ fuels, it creates a membrane rather than a film over the fuel.
Polar solvent
81
Which of the following is considered to be the "brain" of fire detection and alarm systems, responsible for the processing of alarm signals from actuating devices and relaying them to either local or other signaling systems?
The system control unit
82
A pre-signal alarm may be employed in:
Hospitals
83
What type of alarm system is designed to protect large industrial and commercial buildings, high rises and groups of commonly-owned facilities in one location, such as can be found on a college campus of in an industrial complex (the receiving point is somewhere on the facility site and the employees report are employees of the site)?
Proprietary system
84
What type of alarm system protects large commercial and industrial buildings, high rises and groups of commonly-owned facilities in one location, which the receiving point being an outside, contracted agency not located on the facility site?
Central station system
85
In all cases, travel distances to the nearest pull station should not exceed which of the following?
200 feet
86
What type of heat detector works on the principle that the temperature from a fire rises more rapidly in a given area?
Rate-of-rise heat detector
87
Normally, what is the temperature range that most heat-of-rise detectors will initiate a signal?
When the temperature exceeds 12 to 15 Fahrenheit per minute
88
This detector is a rate of rise detector that is designed for use in areas that are subject to regular, but slower than fire condition, temperature changes under normal conditions.
Rate compensated
89
Which of the following shows the conditions that exists on the site and contains information needed to locate the building (including information such as the north direction, telephone and utility lines, gas water and sewer and portions of the grounds that will be landscaped)?
The site plan
90
What inspection drawing is generally used to show how the building is situated with respect to other buildings and the streets in the area?
Plot plan
91
What type of inspection drawing is used to how the number of stories (floors) in the building and the grade of the terrain around the building?
Elevation drawing
92
What is used to show a feature in the plans in a larger scale so that the information concerning this feature is not crowded into the space of a smaller scale drawing (i.e. the construction of a fire door)?
The detailed view
93
What term is used to describe the vertical openings in a building that are allowed by code if they are equipped with adequate smoke control measures, fire barriers and automatic sprinkler protection?
Atriums
94
How many classifications categorize and identify hazardous materials according to the United Nations (UN) Classification System?
Nine
95
Which of the following was developed primarily to be utilized by first responders (such as fire fighters, police and emergency medical services personnel) to hazardous materials incidents, outlining the basic guidelines for initial actions to be taken?
The North American Emergency Response Guidebook (NAERG)
96
The NFPA 704 system used a rating system described by which of the following?
Number zero (0) to four (4)
97
What is the term used to describe the minimum temperature at which a liquid fuel will give off enough vapors to form an ignitable mixture with the air near the surface of the fuel (not enough vapors are being released to support continued combustion)?
The flash point
98
The temperature at which a liquid produces sufficient vapors to support combustion once the fuel is ignited.
The fire point
99
Most hydrocarbons have a specific gravity less than
1
100
When evaluating flammable liquid tanks ____ is relatively unimportant.
The size of the tank
101
Concerning the storage receptacles utilized with flammable or combustible liquids, what is the storage capacity of a container?
sixty (60) gallons or less
102
Portable tanks are _________ and are not intended for a fixed location.
Larger than 60 gallons
103
Which of the following describes a receptacle that is greater than sixty (60) gallons and is in a fixed location?
A fixed storage tank
104
Atmospheric tanks are designed for pressure of ____ to ___ psi.
0 to 0.5
105
Low pressure tanks are designed for pressures of ___ to ____ psi.
0.5 to 15 psi
106
High pressure vessels are designed for pressures of ___ to ____ psi.
15 or greater
107
Exposed supports under fixed tanks must be protected by fire-resistant materials with ratings of ____ or more.
2
108
For tanks containing Class I, II or IIIA liquids, the distances between tanks should be:
1/6 the sum of their diameters
109
Tanks containing unstable flammable or combustible liquids the distance between them must be:
1/2 the sum of their diameters
110
What is the minimum spacing between two above ground tanks?
Thirty-six (36) inches
111
If liquefied petroleum gas (LPG) containers are located in the same vicinity as flammable or combustible liquid storage tanks, how much space should be separating the gas containers and storage tanks?
At least 20 feet
112
The inside nominal diameter of an above ground storage tank vent is _______ inches minimum, with the size dependent of the size of the tank.
1 1/4
113
Above ground storage tanks vents located near buildings or public places must be _____ feet from the ground and arranged so that vapors are released outside and in a safe manner.
12
114
If dikes are used to contain a spill, the volume of the dike area should be large enough to contain the entire amount that could be released from:
The largest tank
115
If dikes made of earth are used to surround the above ground storage tanks for Class I, II or IIIA liquids, which of the following dimensions apply to the dike wall?
The dike should be 3 feet high or more and have a 2-foot wide flat section at the top
116
If underground storage tanks will have vehicular traffic passing over them, which of the following best identifies the material(s) the tanks must be covered with to protect them from damage?
The tanks must be covered with either A, B, or C
117
What is the capacity of storage tanks located inside the structure before they must be located in a fire-resistant room or enclosure to isolate them from the rest of the building?
660 gallons
118
What is the maximum allowable size for an approved safety can for storing flammable or combustible liquids?
Five gallons
119
Portable tanks must be designed with an emergency venting device to limit internal pressures to ___ psig or ___% of the bursting pressure of the tank, whichever is greater.
10, 30
120
If fusible links are used on portable tanks for emergency venting, the fusible links must be designed to operate at a temperature not exceeding ____ degrees F.
300
121
Loading racks should be at least ____ feet from storage areas.
25
122
Regulations concerning the manufacture, distribution and storage of explosives are issued by _____.
BATF
123
Vehicles used to transport explosives should be equipped with two extinguishers with a combined rating of:
2-A: 10-B:C
124
__________ is not used to store cryogenic liquids because it becomes too brittle at these temperatures.
Carbon steel
125
What is the most penetrating form of radiation, is identical to medical x-rays and requires lead or concrete shielding to block the rays?
Gamma radiation
126
Hazmat fires can be broken down into two broad categories: transportation and fixed site. Placarding and labeling requirements can be further broken down into:
A. Bulk
B. Non-Bulk
C. International
127
Incinerators should be at least _______ feet from a structure.
15
128
Dry chemical fixed systems are not recommended for:
Delicate electronic equipment
129
The NFPA standard for the minimum qualifications for firefighting is:
1001
130
Which National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) standard provides the minimum design and installation requirements of sprinkler systems found in most buildings?
NFPA 13
131
Which National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) standard provides the minimum design and installation requirements of sprinkler systems found in one and two family dwellings?
NFPA 13D
132
Which National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) standard provides the minimum design and installation requirements of sprinkler systems found in residential occupancies up to four stories in height.
NFPA 13R
133
What is the present operating temperature range for sprinklers?
135-575 degrees F
134
The temperature rating for an ordinary sprinkler head most frequently used is _____ F.
165
135
The temperature rating for an orange color-coded sprinkler head is _______ F.
135
136
The most common sprinkler head deflector is:
Pendant-circular pattern
137
What is the most common size of orifice used in automatic sprinklers?
1/2 inch
138
The _____ is the vertical supply pipe that extends up from the sprinkler valve until it reaches the first horizontal feed main.
Riser
139
How many sprinkler heads are allowed on any one branch line in ordinary hazard occupancies?
8
140
Which of the following is the most common type of indicator control valves used in sprinkler systems?
Outside screw & yoke valve
141
Which of the following is not a gate valve?
PIVA
142
Which component of a sprinkler system is used to limit the flow of water to one direction?
Check valve
143
In hydraulically calculated systems, the minimum residual pressure is _____ psi.
7 psi
144
National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) records indicate that 89 percent of fires are controlled with less than how many sprinklers operating?
10
145
A ___________ is provided on systems with alarm check valves to prevent false alarms.
Retard chamber
146
What type of device creates an alarm with a vane that protrudes through the riser into the waterway?
Water flow indicator
147
Which of the following piping configurations is necessary when antifreeze systems are used?
U-loop
148
What is the typical size ration between the upper "air" clapper and the lower "water" clapper in a dry-pipe valve?
6 to 1
149
In a dry pipe system equipped with an _____, air escapes to the outside and allows the dry pipe valve to escape.
Exhauster
150
What type of water-based system is used for computer rooms and document storage areas
Pre-action system
151
What type of dry-pipe system utilizes a deluge-type valve, fire detection devices and closed sprinklers?
Pre-action system
152
In light hazard occupancies, individual sprinklers may protect an area up to _____ square feet.
225
153
What is the maximum recommended distance between branch lines in light and ordinary hazard occupancies?
15 feet
154
If rack storage exceeds what height, sprinklers are required within the racks in all cases?
25 feet
155
True or False:
| The inspector must obtain permission for the plant management before performing and inspection activity.
True
156
A clearance of at least _____ inches, which is measured from the deflector, should be maintained under sprinklers.
18
157
On a wet-pipe system with an alarm valve, the inspector should open the ____________ to test the alarm without unseating the valve.
Alarm bypass valve
158
What is the inspector's test connection designed to stimulate?
Operation of a single sprinkler
159
On a wet pipe system with an alarm bypass valve, if the bypass valve is opened, water will flow to the __________.
Retard chamber
160
What percentage of fire fatalities occur in residential occupancies?
80%
161
What is the minimum pipe size for use in residential sprinkler systems?
3/4 inch
162
In single family dwellings, sprinklers can be omitted from bathrooms of how many square feet or less?
55 square feet
163
The maximum spacing between sprinklers is _____ feet
12
164
In what type of structures are standpipe systems required by fire codes?
High-rise buildings beyond the reach of aerial ladders
165
Class I standpipe systems are primarily for use by:
Fire fighting personnel
166
Class II standpipe systems are primarily for use by:
Buildings occupants
167
Class III standpipe systems must provide _____ gpm for at least ______ minutes, with a residual pressure of _____ psi.
500, 30, 65
168
Standpipe systems are divided into zones when the height of a building exceeds what height?
275 feet
169
What system component helps to maintain safe discharge pressure at a standpipe hose outlets?
Pressure-regulating devices
170
Where in a high-rise should the hose be connected to the standpipe system?
One floor below the fire floor
171
The standpipe system must be hydrostatically tested at a pressure of at least ____ for _____ hours to ensure the tightness and integrity of fittings.
200, 2
172
Standpipes need to be visually inspected at least ______ by the building management.
Monthly
173
What is the main function of a fire pump in relation to a suppression system?
It boosts the water pressure
174
Which NFPA standard addresses fire pumps and their installation?
NFPA 20
175
Which of the following is not one of the three major types of stationary fire pumps?
Reversible function
176
The most common gallon age rating for horizontal shaft in use today are in the __________ range.
500 to 1500
177
What type of fire pump is most useful when the water source is below grade?
Vertical turbine pump
178
Which of the following is not an accurate statement as it concerns "booster pumps"
Booster pumps can take water from a static supply source
179
What is the most common source of power for fire pumps today?
Electric motors
180
What device allows a stationary fire pump to start and stop automatically?
Fire pump controller
181
What particular activity is detected by the pressure-sensing switch that causes the fire pump to start up?
Drop in pressure as water begins to flow
182
How often should fire pumps undergo operational tests?
weekly
183
What is the name of the most widely used extinguisher labeling system?
Picture-symbol
184
Which class of fire is not assigned a symbol under the picture-symbol method?
Class D
185
What is the maximum effective discharge time for any indoor-rated (20-B or less) Class B extinguisher?
8 seconds
186
What is the maximum travel distance to an extinguisher for a Class A hazard, according to NFPA 10?
75 feet
187
At which of the following does NFPA 10 consider a flammable liquid fire to be "with depth"?
1/4 inch deep
188
How often, according to NFPA 10, should fire extinguishers be inspected?
Monthly
189
Which of the following can be used on Class C fires?
Potassium bicarbonate
190
The installation of fire detection and signaling system must conform to the provisions of which of the following?
NFPA 70, National Electric Code
191
Which NFPA code specifically addresses all fire alarms and protective signaling systems?
NFPA 72
192
A(n) ________ system is used only in communities that are served by a municipal fire box system.
Auxiliary
193
A manual pull box should be mounted so that the bottom edge is what distance from the floor?
between 3 1/2 and 4 1/2 feet
194
What is the recommended placement of pull boxes in a multi-story building?
At least one pull box per floor
195
Which fire detection system is the least prone to false activation?
Heat detector
196
Which fire detection system is typically the slowest to activate under actual fire conditions?
Heat detectors
197
How often should smoke detectors be tested, in accordance with manufacturer's recommendations?
Semiannually
198
When oxygen has been depleted by fire in a confined area, and there is a sudden rush of oxygen into this situation, what condition has been created?
Backdraft
199
Which of the following is descried by flames spreading over one or more surfaces very rapidly?
Flameover
200
What is the void space between the roof and the ceiling of the top floor of a building known as?
Cockloft
201
What is the weight of a building and any equipment permanently attached to it or build in the building called?
Dead Load
202
Loads which are delivered in a short time are termed as which of the following?
Impact loads
203
Construction elements which are easily disintegrated and are used to construct buildings that house hazardous processes are known as which of the following?
Friable
204
A very heavy load located at one point in a building is known as which of the following?
A concentrated load
205
What type of force passes through the centric of a section under consideration?
Axial load
206
What is the amount of heat required to raise ONE pound of water ONE degree Fahrenheit known as?
British thermal unit (BTU)
207
Wood, paper, and similar materials are estimated to have a caloric value of which of the following?
8,000 BTU/pound
208
When bricks that are exposed to fire begin to lose surface materials, what is said to have happened?
Spalling
209
Structural steel will start to weaken at approximately which of the following temperatures?
1,000 degrees Fahrenheit
210
Cold-drawn steel, such as cable, will fail at which of the following temperatures?
800 degrees Fahrenheit
211
Concrete provides what type of strength in building construction?
Compressive
212
Steel provides what type of strength in building construction?
Tensile
213
Which NFPA standard is entitled "Standard Types of Building Construction?"
NFPA 220
214
What are the internal forces which resist the load called?
Stress
215
What is the percent of elongation which occurs when a material is stressed?
Strain
216
What is an example of a material that provides only tensile strength?
Manila rope
217
Loaded beams will deflect causing which of the following to occur?
The top of the beam to shorten and the bottom of the beam to elongate
218
What is supported at three or more points?
Continuous beam
219
Which of the following is any beam, of any material, that supports other beams?
Girder
220
What type of girder is a beam which carries the load on the exterior of a framed building between the top of one window and the bottom of the window above?
Spandrel
