First 200 cards STAT protocols Flashcards
(200 cards)
1
Q
(CC401 – Airway Management) What is the RSI dose of Etomidate?
A
0.3 mg/kg IV/IO, max 30 mg.
2
Q
(CC401 – Airway Management) What is the RSI dose of Ketamine?
A
1–2 mg/kg IV/IO, max 200 mg.
3
Q
(CC401 – Airway Management) What is the RSI dose of Succinylcholine?
A
1–2 mg/kg IV/IO.
4
Q
(CC401 – Airway Management) What waveform capnography confirms tube placement?
A
Sustained ETCO₂ waveform >10 mmHg.
5
Q
(CC401 – Airway Management) What is the preferred backup airway?
A
Supraglottic airway (i-gel or King).
6
Q
(CC402 – Sedation/Analgesia) What is the infusion dose of Midazolam?
A
1 mg/ml; 2–20 mg/hr, titrate by 2 mg/hr.
7
Q
(CC402 – Sedation/Analgesia) What is the fentanyl infusion range?
A
50–500 mcg/hr, titrate by 50 mcg/hr.
8
Q
(CC402 – Sedation/Analgesia) How is dexmedetomidine titrated?
A
0.2–1.4 mcg/kg/hr, titrate by 0.2 mcg/kg/hr.
9
Q
(CC402 – Sedation/Analgesia) Which sedative is preferred if hypotension is present?
A
Ketamine.
10
Q
(CC402 – Sedation/Analgesia) What is a key side effect of propofol?
A
Hypotension.
11
Q
(CC520 – Cardiac Dysrhythmias) What is the amiodarone dose for stable VT?
A
150 mg in 100 ml D5W over 10 min.
12
Q
(CC520 – Cardiac Dysrhythmias) What is the synchronized cardioversion dose for SVT?
A
50–100 J.
13
Q
(CC520 – Cardiac Dysrhythmias) What is the atropine dose for bradycardia?
A
0.5 mg IV every 3–5 min, max 3 mg.
14
Q
(CC520 – Cardiac Dysrhythmias) What rhythm is treated with magnesium sulfate?
A
Torsades de Pointes.
15
Q
(CC520 – Cardiac Dysrhythmias) When is transcutaneous pacing indicated?
A
Unstable bradycardia not responding to atropine.
16
Q
(CC705A – Shock) What is the norepinephrine starting dose?
A
0.05–0.1 mcg/kg/min.
17
Q
(CC705A – Shock) What is the dose of vasopressin?
A
0.03–0.04 units/min, not titrated.
18
Q
(CC705A – Shock) What MAP should be targeted in shock?
A
≥ 65 mmHg.
19
Q
(CC705A – Shock) What is the initial fluid bolus?
A
500–1000 ml NSS or LR.
20
Q
(CC705A – Shock) What vasopressor is first-line in septic shock?
A
Norepinephrine.
21
Q
(CC212 – Blood Products) When should calcium be administered during transfusion?
A
Every 2 units PRBCs or 20 ml/kg in peds.
22
Q
(CC212 – Blood Products) What is the dose of calcium chloride?
A
20 mg/kg IV/IO, max 1 g.
23
Q
(CC212 – Blood Products) What medication treats allergic transfusion reactions?
A
Diphenhydramine 1 mg/kg IV/IO (max 50 mg).
24
Q
(CC212 – Blood Products) What are signs of transfusion reaction?
A
Fever, hypotension, dyspnea, rash.
25
(CC212 – Blood Products) How many units of PRBCs may be given without MDOC consult?
Up to 4 units.
26
(CC211 – Electrolytes) What is the KCl rate via peripheral IV?
10 mEq/hr.
27
(CC211 – Electrolytes) What is the KCl rate via central line?
20 mEq/hr.
28
(CC211 – Electrolytes) What is the magnesium sulfate max dose?
4 g total.
29
(CC211 – Electrolytes) What is the potassium concentration warning?
Never give undiluted IV push.
30
(CC211 – Electrolytes) When should electrolytes be rechecked?
After 40–60 mEq KCl or clinical improvement.
31
(CC831 – Toxicology) What is the naloxone dose for opioid overdose?
0.4–2 mg IV/IO every 2–3 min as needed.
32
(CC831 – Toxicology) What is the flumazenil initial dose?
0.2 mg IV over 15 sec, repeat q1min up to 1 mg.
33
(CC831 – Toxicology) What is the hydroxocobalamin dose?
5 g in 200 ml over 15 min.
34
(CC831 – Toxicology) When is sodium bicarbonate used?
For TCA overdose or severe acidosis.
35
(CC831 – Toxicology) What is a contraindication to flumazenil?
History of seizures or benzodiazepine dependence.
36
(CC310 – Croup/Stridor) What is the dose of racemic epinephrine?
0.5 ml of 2.25% in 2 ml NSS nebulized.
37
(CC310 – Croup/Stridor) What is the dexamethasone dose?
0.6 mg/kg IV/IO/PO, max 10 mg.
38
(CC310 – Croup/Stridor) When is heliox indicated?
Moderate to severe upper airway obstruction.
39
(CC310 – Croup/Stridor) What is the age cutoff for croup protocol?
Generally <6 years old.
40
(CC310 – Croup/Stridor) What is the observation period post-racemic epi?
At least 2 hours.
41
(CC603 – Pain Management) What is the ketamine infusion for pain?
2–4 mg/kg/hr, titrate by 1 mg/kg/hr.
42
(CC603 – Pain Management) What is the fentanyl bolus dose?
1 mcg/kg IV/IO.
43
(CC603 – Pain Management) When is acetaminophen used?
Mild-moderate pain if no IV access.
44
(CC603 – Pain Management) What is the morphine bolus dose?
0.1 mg/kg IV/IO, max 10 mg.
45
(CC603 – Pain Management) What pain scale is used?
Numeric Rating Scale (NRS) or FLACC for peds.
46
(Appendix A – Special Infusions) What is the dose for TXA?
1000 mg in 100 ml NSS over 10 minutes.
47
(Appendix A – Special Infusions) What is the infusion dose for insulin?
0.05–0.1 units/kg/hr IV infusion.
48
(Appendix A – Special Infusions) What is the dose for sodium bicarbonate?
75–300 ml/hr based on indication.
49
(Appendix A – Special Infusions) What is the dose for CroFab?
4–6 vials in 250 ml NSS over 1 hour.
50
(Appendix A – Special Infusions) What is the alteplase (tPA) dose for PE?
100 mg over 2 hours.
51
(CC401 – Airway Management) What is the RSI dose of Etomidate?
0.3 mg/kg IV/IO, max 30 mg.
52
(CC401 – Airway Management) What is the RSI dose of Ketamine?
1–2 mg/kg IV/IO, max 200 mg.
53
(CC401 – Airway Management) What is the RSI dose of Succinylcholine?
1–2 mg/kg IV/IO.
54
(CC401 – Airway Management) What waveform capnography confirms tube placement?
Sustained ETCO₂ waveform >10 mmHg.
55
(CC401 – Airway Management) What is the preferred backup airway?
Supraglottic airway (i-gel or King).
56
(CC402 – Sedation/Analgesia) What is the infusion dose of Midazolam?
1 mg/ml; 2–20 mg/hr, titrate by 2 mg/hr.
57
(CC402 – Sedation/Analgesia) What is the fentanyl infusion range?
50–500 mcg/hr, titrate by 50 mcg/hr.
58
(CC402 – Sedation/Analgesia) How is dexmedetomidine titrated?
0.2–1.4 mcg/kg/hr, titrate by 0.2 mcg/kg/hr.
59
(CC402 – Sedation/Analgesia) Which sedative is preferred if hypotension is present?
Ketamine.
60
(CC402 – Sedation/Analgesia) What is a key side effect of propofol?
Hypotension.
61
(CC520 – Cardiac Dysrhythmias) What is the amiodarone dose for stable VT?
150 mg in 100 ml D5W over 10 min.
62
(CC520 – Cardiac Dysrhythmias) What is the synchronized cardioversion dose for SVT?
50–100 J.
63
(CC520 – Cardiac Dysrhythmias) What is the atropine dose for bradycardia?
0.5 mg IV every 3–5 min, max 3 mg.
64
(CC520 – Cardiac Dysrhythmias) What rhythm is treated with magnesium sulfate?
Torsades de Pointes.
65
(CC520 – Cardiac Dysrhythmias) When is transcutaneous pacing indicated?
Unstable bradycardia not responding to atropine.
66
(CC705A – Shock) What is the norepinephrine starting dose?
0.05–0.1 mcg/kg/min.
67
(CC705A – Shock) What is the dose of vasopressin?
0.03–0.04 units/min, not titrated.
68
(CC705A – Shock) What MAP should be targeted in shock?
≥ 65 mmHg.
69
(CC705A – Shock) What is the initial fluid bolus?
500–1000 ml NSS or LR.
70
(CC705A – Shock) What vasopressor is first-line in septic shock?
Norepinephrine.
71
(CC212 – Blood Products) When should calcium be administered during transfusion?
Every 2 units PRBCs or 20 ml/kg in peds.
72
(CC212 – Blood Products) What is the dose of calcium chloride?
20 mg/kg IV/IO, max 1 g.
73
(CC212 – Blood Products) What medication treats allergic transfusion reactions?
Diphenhydramine 1 mg/kg IV/IO (max 50 mg).
74
(CC212 – Blood Products) What are signs of transfusion reaction?
Fever, hypotension, dyspnea, rash.
75
(CC212 – Blood Products) How many units of PRBCs may be given without MDOC consult?
Up to 4 units.
76
(CC211 – Electrolytes) What is the KCl rate via peripheral IV?
10 mEq/hr.
77
(CC211 – Electrolytes) What is the KCl rate via central line?
20 mEq/hr.
78
(CC211 – Electrolytes) What is the magnesium sulfate max dose?
4 g total.
79
(CC211 – Electrolytes) What is the potassium concentration warning?
Never give undiluted IV push.
80
(CC211 – Electrolytes) When should electrolytes be rechecked?
After 40–60 mEq KCl or clinical improvement.
81
(CC831 – Toxicology) What is the naloxone dose for opioid overdose?
0.4–2 mg IV/IO every 2–3 min as needed.
82
(CC831 – Toxicology) What is the flumazenil initial dose?
0.2 mg IV over 15 sec, repeat q1min up to 1 mg.
83
(CC831 – Toxicology) What is the hydroxocobalamin dose?
5 g in 200 ml over 15 min.
84
(CC831 – Toxicology) When is sodium bicarbonate used?
For TCA overdose or severe acidosis.
85
(CC831 – Toxicology) What is a contraindication to flumazenil?
History of seizures or benzodiazepine dependence.
86
(CC310 – Croup/Stridor) What is the dose of racemic epinephrine?
0.5 ml of 2.25% in 2 ml NSS nebulized.
87
(CC310 – Croup/Stridor) What is the dexamethasone dose?
0.6 mg/kg IV/IO/PO, max 10 mg.
88
(CC310 – Croup/Stridor) When is heliox indicated?
Moderate to severe upper airway obstruction.
89
(CC310 – Croup/Stridor) What is the age cutoff for croup protocol?
Generally <6 years old.
90
(CC310 – Croup/Stridor) What is the observation period post-racemic epi?
At least 2 hours.
91
(CC603 – Pain Management) What is the ketamine infusion for pain?
2–4 mg/kg/hr, titrate by 1 mg/kg/hr.
92
(CC603 – Pain Management) What is the fentanyl bolus dose?
1 mcg/kg IV/IO.
93
(CC603 – Pain Management) When is acetaminophen used?
Mild-moderate pain if no IV access.
94
(CC603 – Pain Management) What is the morphine bolus dose?
0.1 mg/kg IV/IO, max 10 mg.
95
(CC603 – Pain Management) What pain scale is used?
Numeric Rating Scale (NRS) or FLACC for peds.
96
(Appendix A – Special Infusions) What is the dose for TXA?
1000 mg in 100 ml NSS over 10 minutes.
97
(Appendix A – Special Infusions) What is the infusion dose for insulin?
0.05–0.1 units/kg/hr IV infusion.
98
(Appendix A – Special Infusions) What is the dose for sodium bicarbonate?
75–300 ml/hr based on indication.
99
(Appendix A – Special Infusions) What is the dose for CroFab?
4–6 vials in 250 ml NSS over 1 hour.
100
(Appendix A – Special Infusions) What is the alteplase (tPA) dose for PE?
100 mg over 2 hours.
101
(CC401 – Airway Management) What is the RSI dose of Etomidate?
0.3 mg/kg IV/IO, max 30 mg.
102
(CC401 – Airway Management) What is the RSI dose of Ketamine?
1–2 mg/kg IV/IO, max 200 mg.
103
(CC401 – Airway Management) What is the RSI dose of Succinylcholine?
1–2 mg/kg IV/IO.
104
(CC401 – Airway Management) What waveform capnography confirms tube placement?
Sustained ETCO₂ waveform >10 mmHg.
105
(CC401 – Airway Management) What is the preferred backup airway?
Supraglottic airway (i-gel or King).
106
(CC402 – Sedation/Analgesia) What is the infusion dose of Midazolam?
1 mg/ml; 2–20 mg/hr, titrate by 2 mg/hr.
107
(CC402 – Sedation/Analgesia) What is the fentanyl infusion range?
50–500 mcg/hr, titrate by 50 mcg/hr.
108
(CC402 – Sedation/Analgesia) How is dexmedetomidine titrated?
0.2–1.4 mcg/kg/hr, titrate by 0.2 mcg/kg/hr.
109
(CC402 – Sedation/Analgesia) Which sedative is preferred if hypotension is present?
Ketamine.
110
(CC402 – Sedation/Analgesia) What is a key side effect of propofol?
Hypotension.
111
(CC520 – Cardiac Dysrhythmias) What is the amiodarone dose for stable VT?
150 mg in 100 ml D5W over 10 min.
112
(CC520 – Cardiac Dysrhythmias) What is the synchronized cardioversion dose for SVT?
50–100 J.
113
(CC520 – Cardiac Dysrhythmias) What is the atropine dose for bradycardia?
0.5 mg IV every 3–5 min, max 3 mg.
114
(CC520 – Cardiac Dysrhythmias) What rhythm is treated with magnesium sulfate?
Torsades de Pointes.
115
(CC520 – Cardiac Dysrhythmias) When is transcutaneous pacing indicated?
Unstable bradycardia not responding to atropine.
116
(CC705A – Shock) What is the norepinephrine starting dose?
0.05–0.1 mcg/kg/min.
117
(CC705A – Shock) What is the dose of vasopressin?
0.03–0.04 units/min, not titrated.
118
(CC705A – Shock) What MAP should be targeted in shock?
≥ 65 mmHg.
119
(CC705A – Shock) What is the initial fluid bolus?
500–1000 ml NSS or LR.
120
(CC705A – Shock) What vasopressor is first-line in septic shock?
Norepinephrine.
121
(CC212 – Blood Products) When should calcium be administered during transfusion?
Every 2 units PRBCs or 20 ml/kg in peds.
122
(CC212 – Blood Products) What is the dose of calcium chloride?
20 mg/kg IV/IO, max 1 g.
123
(CC212 – Blood Products) What medication treats allergic transfusion reactions?
Diphenhydramine 1 mg/kg IV/IO (max 50 mg).
124
(CC212 – Blood Products) What are signs of transfusion reaction?
Fever, hypotension, dyspnea, rash.
125
(CC212 – Blood Products) How many units of PRBCs may be given without MDOC consult?
Up to 4 units.
126
(CC211 – Electrolytes) What is the KCl rate via peripheral IV?
10 mEq/hr.
127
(CC211 – Electrolytes) What is the KCl rate via central line?
20 mEq/hr.
128
(CC211 – Electrolytes) What is the magnesium sulfate max dose?
4 g total.
129
(CC211 – Electrolytes) What is the potassium concentration warning?
Never give undiluted IV push.
130
(CC211 – Electrolytes) When should electrolytes be rechecked?
After 40–60 mEq KCl or clinical improvement.
131
(CC831 – Toxicology) What is the naloxone dose for opioid overdose?
0.4–2 mg IV/IO every 2–3 min as needed.
132
(CC831 – Toxicology) What is the flumazenil initial dose?
0.2 mg IV over 15 sec, repeat q1min up to 1 mg.
133
(CC831 – Toxicology) What is the hydroxocobalamin dose?
5 g in 200 ml over 15 min.
134
(CC831 – Toxicology) When is sodium bicarbonate used?
For TCA overdose or severe acidosis.
135
(CC831 – Toxicology) What is a contraindication to flumazenil?
History of seizures or benzodiazepine dependence.
136
(CC310 – Croup/Stridor) What is the dose of racemic epinephrine?
0.5 ml of 2.25% in 2 ml NSS nebulized.
137
(CC310 – Croup/Stridor) What is the dexamethasone dose?
0.6 mg/kg IV/IO/PO, max 10 mg.
138
(CC310 – Croup/Stridor) When is heliox indicated?
Moderate to severe upper airway obstruction.
139
(CC310 – Croup/Stridor) What is the age cutoff for croup protocol?
Generally <6 years old.
140
(CC310 – Croup/Stridor) What is the observation period post-racemic epi?
At least 2 hours.
141
(CC603 – Pain Management) What is the ketamine infusion for pain?
2–4 mg/kg/hr, titrate by 1 mg/kg/hr.
142
(CC603 – Pain Management) What is the fentanyl bolus dose?
1 mcg/kg IV/IO.
143
(CC603 – Pain Management) When is acetaminophen used?
Mild-moderate pain if no IV access.
144
(CC603 – Pain Management) What is the morphine bolus dose?
0.1 mg/kg IV/IO, max 10 mg.
145
(CC603 – Pain Management) What pain scale is used?
Numeric Rating Scale (NRS) or FLACC for peds.
146
(Appendix A – Special Infusions) What is the dose for TXA?
1000 mg in 100 ml NSS over 10 minutes.
147
(Appendix A – Special Infusions) What is the infusion dose for insulin?
0.05–0.1 units/kg/hr IV infusion.
148
(Appendix A – Special Infusions) What is the dose for sodium bicarbonate?
75–300 ml/hr based on indication.
149
(Appendix A – Special Infusions) What is the dose for CroFab?
4–6 vials in 250 ml NSS over 1 hour.
150
(Appendix A – Special Infusions) What is the alteplase (tPA) dose for PE?
100 mg over 2 hours.
151
(CC401 – Airway Management) What is the RSI dose of Etomidate?
0.3 mg/kg IV/IO, max 30 mg.
152
(CC401 – Airway Management) What is the RSI dose of Ketamine?
1–2 mg/kg IV/IO, max 200 mg.
153
(CC401 – Airway Management) What is the RSI dose of Succinylcholine?
1–2 mg/kg IV/IO.
154
(CC401 – Airway Management) What waveform capnography confirms tube placement?
Sustained ETCO₂ waveform >10 mmHg.
155
(CC401 – Airway Management) What is the preferred backup airway?
Supraglottic airway (i-gel or King).
156
(CC402 – Sedation/Analgesia) What is the infusion dose of Midazolam?
1 mg/ml; 2–20 mg/hr, titrate by 2 mg/hr.
157
(CC402 – Sedation/Analgesia) What is the fentanyl infusion range?
50–500 mcg/hr, titrate by 50 mcg/hr.
158
(CC402 – Sedation/Analgesia) How is dexmedetomidine titrated?
0.2–1.4 mcg/kg/hr, titrate by 0.2 mcg/kg/hr.
159
(CC402 – Sedation/Analgesia) Which sedative is preferred if hypotension is present?
Ketamine.
160
(CC402 – Sedation/Analgesia) What is a key side effect of propofol?
Hypotension.
161
(CC520 – Cardiac Dysrhythmias) What is the amiodarone dose for stable VT?
150 mg in 100 ml D5W over 10 min.
162
(CC520 – Cardiac Dysrhythmias) What is the synchronized cardioversion dose for SVT?
50–100 J.
163
(CC520 – Cardiac Dysrhythmias) What is the atropine dose for bradycardia?
0.5 mg IV every 3–5 min, max 3 mg.
164
(CC520 – Cardiac Dysrhythmias) What rhythm is treated with magnesium sulfate?
Torsades de Pointes.
165
(CC520 – Cardiac Dysrhythmias) When is transcutaneous pacing indicated?
Unstable bradycardia not responding to atropine.
166
(CC705A – Shock) What is the norepinephrine starting dose?
0.05–0.1 mcg/kg/min.
167
(CC705A – Shock) What is the dose of vasopressin?
0.03–0.04 units/min, not titrated.
168
(CC705A – Shock) What MAP should be targeted in shock?
≥ 65 mmHg.
169
(CC705A – Shock) What is the initial fluid bolus?
500–1000 ml NSS or LR.
170
(CC705A – Shock) What vasopressor is first-line in septic shock?
Norepinephrine.
171
(CC212 – Blood Products) When should calcium be administered during transfusion?
Every 2 units PRBCs or 20 ml/kg in peds.
172
(CC212 – Blood Products) What is the dose of calcium chloride?
20 mg/kg IV/IO, max 1 g.
173
(CC212 – Blood Products) What medication treats allergic transfusion reactions?
Diphenhydramine 1 mg/kg IV/IO (max 50 mg).
174
(CC212 – Blood Products) What are signs of transfusion reaction?
Fever, hypotension, dyspnea, rash.
175
(CC212 – Blood Products) How many units of PRBCs may be given without MDOC consult?
Up to 4 units.
176
(CC211 – Electrolytes) What is the KCl rate via peripheral IV?
10 mEq/hr.
177
(CC211 – Electrolytes) What is the KCl rate via central line?
20 mEq/hr.
178
(CC211 – Electrolytes) What is the magnesium sulfate max dose?
4 g total.
179
(CC211 – Electrolytes) What is the potassium concentration warning?
Never give undiluted IV push.
180
(CC211 – Electrolytes) When should electrolytes be rechecked?
After 40–60 mEq KCl or clinical improvement.
181
(CC831 – Toxicology) What is the naloxone dose for opioid overdose?
0.4–2 mg IV/IO every 2–3 min as needed.
182
(CC831 – Toxicology) What is the flumazenil initial dose?
0.2 mg IV over 15 sec, repeat q1min up to 1 mg.
183
(CC831 – Toxicology) What is the hydroxocobalamin dose?
5 g in 200 ml over 15 min.
184
(CC831 – Toxicology) When is sodium bicarbonate used?
For TCA overdose or severe acidosis.
185
(CC831 – Toxicology) What is a contraindication to flumazenil?
History of seizures or benzodiazepine dependence.
186
(CC310 – Croup/Stridor) What is the dose of racemic epinephrine?
0.5 ml of 2.25% in 2 ml NSS nebulized.
187
(CC310 – Croup/Stridor) What is the dexamethasone dose?
0.6 mg/kg IV/IO/PO, max 10 mg.
188
(CC310 – Croup/Stridor) When is heliox indicated?
Moderate to severe upper airway obstruction.
189
(CC310 – Croup/Stridor) What is the age cutoff for croup protocol?
Generally <6 years old.
190
(CC310 – Croup/Stridor) What is the observation period post-racemic epi?
At least 2 hours.
191
(CC603 – Pain Management) What is the ketamine infusion for pain?
2–4 mg/kg/hr, titrate by 1 mg/kg/hr.
192
(CC603 – Pain Management) What is the fentanyl bolus dose?
1 mcg/kg IV/IO.
193
(CC603 – Pain Management) When is acetaminophen used?
Mild-moderate pain if no IV access.
194
(CC603 – Pain Management) What is the morphine bolus dose?
0.1 mg/kg IV/IO, max 10 mg.
195
(CC603 – Pain Management) What pain scale is used?
Numeric Rating Scale (NRS) or FLACC for peds.
196
(Appendix A – Special Infusions) What is the dose for TXA?
1000 mg in 100 ml NSS over 10 minutes.
197
(Appendix A – Special Infusions) What is the infusion dose for insulin?
0.05–0.1 units/kg/hr IV infusion.
198
(Appendix A – Special Infusions) What is the dose for sodium bicarbonate?
75–300 ml/hr based on indication.
199
(Appendix A – Special Infusions) What is the dose for CroFab?
4–6 vials in 250 ml NSS over 1 hour.
200
(Appendix A – Special Infusions) What is the alteplase (tPA) dose for PE?
100 mg over 2 hours.
