2024 Protocols Flashcards

(26 cards)

1
Q

How often should vital signs be assessed during transport for most STAT MedEvac patients?

A

Every 5 minutes from initiation to transfer of care.

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2
Q

Under what condition can vital signs be assessed every 15 minutes instead of 5?

A

If the patient is being discharged to a residence after acute care admission and has normal vital signs with no anticipated IV therapy or ventilation needs.

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3
Q

When should the Glasgow Coma Score be assessed?

A

At initiation, transfer of care, during transport, and if there is an acute change in condition.

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4
Q

What should be done if an automated BP cuff is inaccurate after two readings?

A

Obtain manual BP or use a doppler if necessary.

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5
Q

How often should invasive line readings be documented during transport?

A

Every 15 minutes if monitored, and at initiation and transfer of care.

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6
Q

What is the recommended action if pulmonary artery catheter is present during transport?

A

Ensure the balloon is down, locked, and air is removed from the syringe.

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7
Q

Who must administer all medications provided by STAT MedEvac?

A

A STAT MedEvac medical crew member.

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8
Q

Over what time should sedative or opioid medications be administered in patients without advanced airway or at risk for shock?

A

Over 2 minutes.

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9
Q

What is the goal skin temperature for infants <44 weeks gestational age during transport?

A

36.2–37.2°C.

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10
Q

When are wrist restraints required?

A

On all patients with an advanced airway (except cooperative patients with a chronic tracheostomy).

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11
Q

What should be done if a patient has a POLST, MOLST, DNR, or CMO order and may deteriorate?

A

Follow the documented order and consult MDOC if there’s any question before transport.

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12
Q

What is the appropriate device for securing pediatric patients ≥4.5 kg and under 8 years old?

A

Pedi-Mate Plus or pediatric immobilization device.

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13
Q

What must be done if bedside time exceeds 45 minutes?

A

Consult Medical Command.

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14
Q

What is the expected destination policy for scene burn patients?

A

Transport to the closest verified burn center within 45 minutes if serious burns are present.

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15
Q

What must be done before changing mode of transport due to clinical concerns?

A

Consult the MDOC.

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16
Q

What is the initial oxygen therapy for a patient with SpO2 <95% or respiratory distress?

A

Administer oxygen via nasal cannula at 2–6 LPM to maintain saturation 95–99%.

17
Q

What should be done if oxygen saturation remains <95% despite nasal cannula?

A

Apply a non-rebreather face mask with oxygen at 15 LPM.

18
Q

What oxygen therapy is indicated for suspected carbon monoxide poisoning?

A

Apply non-rebreather face mask with oxygen at 15 LPM.

19
Q

What type of IV access is preferred for most patients?

A

Peripheral or external jugular venous access.

20
Q

When should an IO be established?

A

If unable to obtain IV access after 2 attempts and/or patient is in extremis.

21
Q

When should calcium be administered during transfusion?

A

If ≥2 units (adult) or ≥20 ml/kg (pediatric) of blood products are administered within 2 hours.

22
Q

What are signs of a transfusion reaction?

A

Fever, hypotension, hives, dyspnea, wheezing, tachycardia, rigors, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea.

23
Q

When should spinal motion restriction be applied?

A

When patient has spine pain, altered mental status, intoxication, or neurologic deficits after trauma.

24
Q

Is a long backboard required for interfacility transport with spinal injury?

A

No, supine positioning with spinal precautions is sufficient if a spinal injury is diagnosed or suspected.

25
What medication is administered for pediatric croup with stridor?
Racemic Epinephrine aerosol 0.5 ml 2.25% solution diluted in 2 ml NSS.
26
What is the max number of Racemic Epinephrine doses for croup?
Two doses, 15 minutes apart if improvement is seen after the first.