First Exam Flashcards
1
Q
What 3 things must a Veterinary Technician due to become license to practice?
A
Complete a 2 year AVMA accredited program, pass the VTNE , pass state boards
2
Q
What is a VPA?
A
Veterinary Practice Act
States the laws that govern the practice of Veterinary Medicine
3
Q
Triage
A
Assigns degrees of urgency to wounds or illnesses to decide the order of treatment
4
Q
SOAP
A
Subjective, Objective, Assessment and Plan
5
Q
Subjective
A
HIstory, mentation, dehydration, appetite
6
Q
Objective
A
Measurable data, TPR, laboratory results
7
Q
Assessment
A
Status of patient, differental diagnosis
8
Q
Plan
A
Course of action for the day; medications, diagnostic tests
9
Q
VCPR
A
Veterinary Client Patient Relationship
10
Q
Who is the father of veterinary technology
A
Dr. Walter Collins
11
Q
What year did the term Veterinary Technician first come to use?
A
1989
12
Q
What drug should not be given to a stallion
A
Acepromazine because it can cause penile prolapse
13
Q
What does AVMA stand for
A
American Veterinary Medical Association
14
Q
What does CVTEA stand for
A
Committee on Veterinary Technician Education and Activities
15
Q
What does AAVSB stand for
A
American Association of Veterinary State boards
16
Q
What are the 3Ps of professionalism
A
Professional appearance, professional conduct, professional communication
17
Q
Define Animal Welfare
A
How an animal is coping with the conditions in which it lives
18
Q
What does APHIS stand for
A
Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service
19
Q
What service promotes health, regulates GMOs , administers the AWA, regulates wildlife management and manages the import and export of plants and animals?
A
APHIS
The Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service
20
Q
What is the minimum acceptable standard of care
A
The AWA…animal welfare act
21
Q
What does IACUC stand for?
A
Institutional Animal Care and Use Committee.
22
Q
Who is responsible for the “Guide”
A
IACUC
23
Q
What is HPA
A
The Horse Protection Act
Prohibits Soaring
24
Q
Soaring
A
use of chemical agents to help accentuate their gates
25
Who are the two leading federal agencies for implementing the Endangered Species Act
FWS and NOAA
26
What is the goal of the Endangered Species Act? (ESA)
Prevent the extinction of animals and imperiled plant life
27
What are the 3 classification of ethics
Social, Personal and Professional ethics
28
What does NAVTA stand for?
National Association of Veterinary Technicians in America
29
What does the USDA stand for?
United States Department of Agriculture
30
What does DEA stand for
Drug Enforcement Administration
31
When was the controlled substance act enacted
1970
32
What does the FDA stand for?
Food and Drug Administration
33
What does the EPA stand for?
Environmental Protection Agency
34
What does OSHA stand for?
Occupational Safety and Health Administration
35
Examples of schedule 1 drugs
Heroin, peyote, marijuana, shrooms
36
What schedule of drugs do substances that have a high potential for abuse but currently have an accepted medical use fall into?
Schedule 2
37
Examples of schedule 3 drugs
Ketamine, anabolic steroids, hydrocodone
38
What are the 3 rules to follow when handling controlled substances and who enforces them?
1. Each controlled substance must be logged, and records "readily retrievable"
2. Records must be kept for two years
3. Anyone handling controlled substances should be aware of federal and state regulations
DEA enforces regulations
39
What is another name for Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy
Mad cow disease
40
What does CVM stand for?
Center for Veterinary Medicine
41
What is the CVM?
A branch of the FDA that regulates medications that are used in food animals and ensures that they do not affect the human food supply
42
What is AMDUCA
Animal Medicinal Drug Use Clarification Act
43
What is the FDA responsible for?
It is responsible for the labeling of prescription drugs and over the counter mediciations
44
What is the EPA responsible for
Controlling pesticides, disposal of hazardous and non-hazardous wastes
45
What is OSHA's mission
Assure safe and healthful working conditions for working men and women by setting and enforcing standards and by providing training, outreach, education and assistance
46
What are OSHA's leadership responsibilities
Provide a safe work environment, establish a safety program, provide safety training
47
What does OSHA's "Right to know" law require?
Requires you to be informed of all the chemicals you could potentially be exposed to
Require you to wear proper PPE
Requires safety equipment be provided to you
48
What does the blue square on the NFPA hazardous material identification system represent?
Health Hazard
49
What does SDS stand for
Safety Data Sheet
50
What key information is kept in a SDS binder
Chemical ID, Synonyms, chemical formula, physical properties, exposure limits, target organs, symptoms, first aid, how to handle spills
51
What is a zoonotic disease
A disease that is spread from an animal to a human
52
What is CLM
Cutaneous Larval Migrans caused by hookworms
53
What is OSHA's only approved way to recap a needle?
One handed needle capping
54
OSHA's 300A form is used to report what?
Work related injuries
55
When using a portable fire extinguisher remeber to use the mnemonic PASS
Pull the pin
Aim low
Squeeze the Handle
Sweep from side to side at the base of the fire
56
What does the ECP stand for in regards to Blood-Borne Pathogens
Exposure Control Plan
57
What does OPIM stand for in regards to blood borne pathogens
Other Potentially infectious Material
58
Examples of computer veterinary management systems
Avimark, Cornerstone, Infinity
59
What is primary purpose of a medical record
Medical care, identifies the client and patient
| Documents history, conditions, diagnosis, treatments
60
What is the secondary purpose of a medical record
supports buiness and legal activities
Records services rendered and billing
Documents inventory
LEGAL DOCUMENT
61
What other function does a medical record serve
Supports research
62
What does a comprehensive medical record support
Excellent care, communication, research and good business practices
Helps protect against a malpractice litigation
63
Who owns the medical record
The veterinary practice and its owner
64
What does SOVMR stand for
Source Oriented Veterinary Medical Record
65
True or False: Source Oriented Veterinary Medical Records are used with a card system and are often Free form
True
66
What does POVMR
Problem oriented medical record
67
What are two components of a Problem oriented medical record?
```
Client and Patient info
History
PE
Working Problem lists
Assesment
Plan
Logs
Case Summary
```
68
What are the two common types of organization of medical records?
Alphabetic and Numeric
69
What are the 3 R's for animal research
Reduction, refinement, replacement
70
What are the two major federal agencies that stepped in to regulate animal research
USDA, PHS
71
What were the 8 areas of minimum standards that the 1966 laboratory animal welfare act develope
Housing, feeding, watering, sanitation, shelter, separation of species, ventilation, adequate vet care
72
When was the Animal Welfare Act as we know it enacted
1970
73
Which species are excluded from the AWA
Cold blooded vertebrates, birds, mice and rates specifically bred for research, agriculture (Food, fur, fiber)
74
What year did the AWA establish IACUC
1985
75
IACUC: The attending Veterinarian is responsible for...
the health and well being of all laboratory animals used at the institution
76
What is the difference between major and minor surgery
Major penetrates and exposes a body cavity or produces substantial impairment or physical or physiological function
77
Associative Learning is dependent on what two factors
Contiguity and Contigency
78
What is Contiguity
relationship between two events in both time and space
79
What is contingency
The predictability of an association most easily learned
80
What was Pavlov's experiment
making a dog salivate to the ring of a bell
81
Respondent conditioning
Neutral stimulus elicits a reflexive response
Pavlov and classical
82
Operant conditioning
A type of learning in which behavior is strengthened if followed by a reinforcer or diminished if followed by a punisher
83
Positive reinforcement
Increasing behaviors by presenting positive stimuli
84
What is a positive reinforcer?
Any stimulus that when presented after a response, strengthens the response
85
Positive punishment
The application of an aversive stimulus after a response
86
Negative reinforcement
The reinforcement of a response by the removal, escape from or avoidance of an unpleasant stimulus
87
Negative punishment
The removal of a positive stimulus to decrease the probability of a behavior's recurring
88
Continuous reinforcement
Reinforcing the desired response every time it occurs
89
Intermittent reinforcement
When only some of the responses made are followed by reinforcement
90
Extinction of behavior
removing reinforcements to discourage behavior
91
Systemic Desensitization
Commonly used to treat phobias
| A type of exposure therapy that associates a pleasant relaxed state with gradually increasing anxiety-triggering stimuli
92
Counter conditioning
A classical conditioning procedure for changing the relationship between a conditioned stimulus and its conditioned response
93
Response blocking/flooding
Prevent animal from escaping fearful stimulus until it is no longer fearful; this is a less desirable approach
94
Positive pro-action plan Step 2
Prevent or minimize inappropriate behavior
95
What is habituation?
A decrease in response to a stimulus after repeated presentations
An animal should be exposed to frequently and in a nonthreatening manner to gentle handling that mimics commonly performed procedures
96
What are the two main uses of medications when in regards to behavioral problems
relieve stress and anxiety or phobias, aid with behavior modifications
97
What are the four stages of Canine development?
Neonatal, transition, socialization, juvenile
98
Positive Pro-action plan Step 1
Elicit and reinforce appropriate behavior
99
Positive Pro-action plan Step 3
Meet your pet's behavioral and developmental needs
100
Positive Pro-action plan Step 4
Use the "take-away" method (negative punishment) to discourage inappropriate behavior
101
Positive Pro-action plan Step 5
Minimize discipline (positive punishment), and use it correctly when necessary
102
What federal agency is APHIS under (animal and plant health inspection service)
USDA
103
Who makes up IACUC
1 veterinarian, 1 institutional member, 1 community member
104
What is the "Guide"
The Guide for the care and use of laboratory animals
105
Who is responsible for administering the VTNE
AAVSB American Association of Veterinary State Boards
106
Why is AMDUCA important
It is essential in exotic animal medicine, allows for extra label use of drugs
