First Responder Workbook

Question 1

Which of these is not a level recognized by the paramedic association of Canada?

a. Primary care paramedic
b. initial care paramedic
c. critical care paramedic
d. emergency medical responder

Answer 1

b. initial care paramedic

Question 2

When obtaining consent before caring for someone, which of the following do you not have to do?

a. Have the person sign and acceptance of treatment form.
b. Identify yourself with your name.
c. Indicate what you think may be wrong and what you plan to do.
d. State your level of training.

Answer 2

a. Have the person sign and acceptance of treatment form.

Question 3

Discontinuing care of a patient without their consent or without ensuring that someone with equal or greater treating will continue the care is called:

a. Abandonment.
b. Refusal of care.
c. Transfer of function.
d. Competence.

Answer 3

a. Abandonment.

Question 4

If you’re speaking with a physician is important that you:

a. Write down everything the physician says.
b. Repeat any orders back to the physician.
c. Present all information rapidly.
d. Verify that everything is said about the physician is covered in your writing protocols.

Answer 4

d. Verify that everything said by the position is covered in your writing protocols.

Question 5

Which of the following is good practice when using a radio?

a. Speaking slowly and clearly.
b. Beginning to speak at the same time you push the “push to talk”button.
c. Holding the radio right up to your mouth.
d. Relaying all information you have collected at the scene up to that point.

Answer 5

a. Speaking slowly and clearly.

Question 6

Which of the following is not a primary responsibility of the responder at an emergency scene?

a. Ensuring the safety for yourself and any bystanders.
b. Gaining access to the patients
c. Contacting the friends and/or family of the patient.
d. Determining any threats to the patient’s life.

Answer 6

c. Contacting the friend and/or family of the patient.

Question 7

If there is a down electrical wire and an emergency scene, how far away should any bystander be?

a. Twist the length of the span of the wire.
b. Half the distance between the two poles from which the broken wire has been strong
c. At least 15 metres (50 feet) from the downed wire
d. There is no specific distance that is safe.

Answer 7

c. At least 15 metres (50 feet) from the downed wire

Question 8

Which of the following is a clue that a hazardous material may be present at an emergency?

a. Chemical transport tanks and/or placards.
b. Clouds of vapour or spilled solids or liquid liquids.
c. Unusual orders.
d. All of the above.

Answer 8

d. All of the above.

Question 9

When is it acceptable to enter a confined space to help patient?

a. When you must access a patient to perform immediate life-saving interventions.
b. When there are no other responders on the scene.
c. When you have specialized training and dealing with confined spaces.
d. When you have confirmed that the confined space has adequate ventilation systems operating.

Answer 9

c. when you have specialized training in dealing with confined spaces.

Question 10

Which of the following can be transmitted by airborne particles?

a. HIV/ AIDS
b. Hepatitis and chickenpox.
c. Meningitis and tuberculosis.
d. Herpes and tetanus.

Answer 10

c. Meningitis and tuberculosis.

Question 11

If a patient’s intern becomes infected through particles expelled during coughing method of disease transmission would this be?

a. Direct contact.
b. Indirect contact.
c. Vector Borne transmission.
d. Airborne transmission.

Answer 11

d. Airborne transmission.

Question 12

If you think you’ve been exposed to an infectious disease at an emergency scene, the first step you should take is?

a. Go to the hospital to be tested.
b. Report the exposure immediately.
c. Determine what type of disease it is.
d. Contact the poison control center.

Answer 12

b. Report the exposure immediately.

Question 13

In which of the following cases, should you wear full protective equipment?

a. When wiping down a blood pressure cuff after a call.
b. When caring for bleeding that is spurting.
c. When caring for someone with signs of an infectious respiratory illness.
d. Both b and c

Answer 13

b. When caring for bleeding that is spurting

Question 14

Which of the following can be transmitted by contaminated food?

a. Tuberculosis and rubella.
b. Typhus and diphtheria
c. Meningitis and hepatitis A.
d. HIV/AIDS and herpes.

Answer 14

c. Meningitis and hepatitis A.

Question 15

Which two body systems interact to alert someone to their injury?

a. Nervous and respiratory.
b. Endocrine and nervous.
c. Nervous and integumentary.
d. Circulatory and digestive.

Answer 15

c. Nervous and integumentary.

Question 16

The epiglottis prevents liquids and solids from entering what

a. The stomach
b. The lungs
c. The sinuses
d. The intestines

Answer 16

b. The lungs

Question 17

Where do arteries carry blood?

a. From the heart to the body tissue.
b. From the lungs to the heart.
c. From the heart to the lungs.
d. Both a and c

Answer 17

d. Both a and c

Question 18

One of the main functions of the integumentary system is to?

a. Prevent infection.
b. Secrete hormones.
c. Produce white blood cells
d. Transport nutrients to cells.

Answer 18

a. Prevent infection.

Question 19

The respiratory system and cardiovascular system work together to:

a. Provide oxygen to the cells of the body.
b. Keep hormones distributed throughout the body.
c. Regenerate nervous tissue after injury.
d. Regulate blood flow to the digestive system.

Answer 19

a. Provide oxygen to the cells of the body

Question 20

The child’s babysitter is able to answer any questions you have regarding the child. Which of the following should you ask her about?

a. The child sleeping patterns, eating times, and vaccination records.
b. The event leading up to the collapse, as well as the child’s allergies, medical history, current medications, and last oral intake
c. The child’s age, address, and school.
d. The child’s normal, vital signs and typical behavior.

Answer 20

b. The event leading up to the collapse as well as the child’s allergies, medical history, current medication’s, and last oral intake.

Question 21

If you check the pillar refill and the nail bed does not return to its normal colour after you release what does this mean?

a. The patient has insufficient circulation.
b. You press on the fingernail too hard.
c. You did not press on the finger nail hard enough.
d. The patient’s heart is not beating.

Answer 21

a. The patient has insufficient circulation

Question 22

Which of the following should you treat before performing a secondary assessment?

a. A fracture of the elbow.
b. And peeled object in the right hand.
c. Severe bleeding from the left leg.
d. None of these injuries should be treated until after the secondary assessment.

Answer 22

c. Severe bleeding from the left leg.

Question 23

Forming a general impression which of the following, do you not need to determine?

a. Whether the patient is ill or injured.
b. The patient sex and approximate age.
c. Weather the patient takes any medication.
d. The patient, chief complaint or problem.

Answer 23

c. Whether the patient takes any medication.

Question 24

Which of the following patients should be in the rapid transport category?

a. A 30-year-old woman who has a bruise on her leg from a soccer ball.
b. A 50-year-old man experiencing numbness and tingling on the right side of his body and slurred speech
c. A 10-year-old girl who is crying because of a bee sting
d. 65 year-old man experiencing stiffness in his back after swimming 30 lengths of a pool

Answer 24

b. 50-year-old man experiencing numbness and tingling on the right side of his body and slurred speech.

Question 25

What is the purpose the primary and secondary assessment? a. Determine whether the patient is in shock; identify whether the patient is still in shock or if your treatment has helped b. Identify any hazards that are a threat to those at the scene; determine what else might be wrong with the patient c. Determine the initial vital sign to compare with during later monitoring; identify any allergies or medication’s patient might have d. Identify conditions that are in immediate threat to life or could become an immediate threat to life; identify conditions that are not immediately life-threatening

Answer 25

d. Identify conditions that are an immediate threat to life or could become an immediate threat to life; identify conditions that are not immediately life-threatening

Question 26

Which body systems can be affected by anaphylaxis? a. Nervous, endocrine, and genitourinary b. Integumentary, endocrine, musculoskeletal, and nervous. c. Digestive, respiratory and genitourinary. d. Integumentary, respiratory cardiovascular and digestive.

Answer 26

d. Integumentary, respiratory cardiovascular, and digestive.

Question 27

A person has experience anaphylactic reactions in the past often carry: a. A glucometer. b. And epinephrin auto injector. c. A pulse oximeter. d. A metre dose inhaler.

Answer 27

b. An epinephrin auto injector.

Question 28

General care for any respiratory disease can include: a. Assisting the patient with taking prescribed medication, reassuring the patient. b. Performing CPR. c. Having a patient lie down to keeping the patient cool d. Ensuring the area is well ventilated performing abdominal thrust.

Answer 28

a. Assisting the patient with taking prescribed medication, reassuring the patient

Question 29

A patient has no sense of breathing or circulation. After giving two one-second ventilations, what should you do? a. Check for signs of circulation, including a pulse, for no more than 5 to 10 seconds b. Check the patient’s level of responsiveness c. Continue providing assisted ventilation. d. Begin 30 chest compressions.

Answer 29

d. Begin 30 chest compressions.

Question 30

If an unresponsive, patient vomits while you are performing ventilations, this is probably because: a. The smell of the mask is bothering the patient. b. The head wasn’t tilt back appropriately, or you were ventilating to forcefully c. The patient had been poisoned, and the ventilations caused the stomach to expel the poison d. Lungs are reacting to the positive pressure of the ventilations.

Answer 30

b. That wasn’t took back appropriately, or you were ventilating to forcefully.

Question 31

If a patient is wearing dentures and you need to perform ventilation, what should you do? a. Remove them immediately to prevent them from obstructing the patient’s airway. b. Always keep them in; if you take them out, they will most likely get lost or broken c. Leave them in unless they have become loose, as this will give you a better seal around the mouth d. Check the patient’s wallet for a card that expresses what they want a rescuer to do with the dentures in case of an emergency

Answer 31

c. Leave them in unless they have become loose as this will give you a better seal around the mouth.

Question 32

You were starting care for someone who is unresponsive and choking. If your first ventilation does not go in, you should: a. Do 30 chest compressions. b. Attempt another ventilation with slightly more force. c. Do a finger sweep of the mouth. d. Reposition the patient’s head and attempt another ventilation.

Answer 32

d. Reposition the patient’s head an attempt another ventilation.

Question 33

When performing back blows and chest thrust on our response of choking infant, how should you position the patient? a. On a flat surface, such as the table. b. On a soft surface, such as a folded blanket. c. On your thigh with the head lower than the chest. d. Upside down, so gravity has the most effect.

Answer 33

c. On your thigh with the head lower than the chest.

Question 34

How long will it D cylinder of oxygen last given a gauge pressure of 2000 and a flow rate of 12 LPM? a. 12.6 minutes. b. 16 minutes. c. 20.4 minutes. d. 24 minutes.

Answer 34

d. 24 minutes.

Question 35

Children’s and babies hearts usually stop because: a. The hearts are not fully developed yet. b. There are a large number of disease that often affect their hearts. c. Their brains are not fully programmed to regulate the hearts electrical system. d. Their breathing stops.

Answer 35

d. Their breathing stops.

Question 36

During two responder CPR, the ventilator should: a. Periodically check the effectiveness of the compressions by checking the pulse. b. Have the compressor stop every minute to reassess the ABCs. c. Give one ventilation every five compressions. d. All of the above.

Answer 36

a. Periodically check the effectiveness of the compressions by checking the pulse.

Question 37

The main purpose of CPR is to: a. Reverse the damage, the myocardium may have sustained or deprived of oxygenated blood. b. Keep oxygenated blood circulating to the vital organs of the body. c. Prevent clinical death from occurring. d. None of the above.

Answer 37

b. Keep oxygenated blood circulating to the vital organs of the body.

Question 38

The surest sign of cardiac arrest is: a. Unresponsiveness. b. Absence of a pulse. c. In effective or absent breathing. d. Blueness around the lips.

Answer 38

b. Absence of a pulse.

Question 39

What should you do for a patient? Who is in shock? a. Provide a sugary, snack or drink. b. Give the patient plenty of water. c. Keep the patient as cool as possible. d. Place the patient in the Trendelenburg or supine position.

Answer 39

d. Place the patient in the Trendelenburg or supine position.

Question 40

Shock is life-threatening because: a. The blood becomes poisonous. b. The vital organs are not getting adequate oxygen rich blood. c. There’s not enough blood in the circulatory system. d. Carbon dioxide is not being released from the tissue in large enough quantities.

Answer 40

b. The vital organs are not getting adequate oxygen rich blood.

Question 41

Why does the skin of someone in shock appear pale and feel cool? a. The heart beats faster; therefore the bodies heat is used as energy b. The heart slows down, therefore less heat is produced. c. The blood vessels constrict in the arms, legs and skin. d. The body cools itself to conserve energy.

Answer 41

c. The blood vessels are constrict in the arms, legs and skin.

Question 42

Which of the following situations is likely to lead to shock? a. A teenager damages her spine in a diving incident. b. A worker loses his arm to piece of farming equipment. c. A child who has the flu has been unable to keep fluids down for several days. d. All of the above.

Answer 42

d. All of the above.

Question 43

Which position is recommended for a patient in shock? a. Supine with the head elevated. b. Supine or Trendelenburg. c. Seated comfortably in a chair. d. On a long backboard.

Answer 43

b. Supine or Trendelenburg.

Question 44

Which of the following is not included in the general care for shock? a. Administering oxygen. b. Maintaining normal body temperature. c. Giving assisted ventilations. d. Providing rest and reassurance.

Answer 44

c. Giving assisted ventilations.

Question 45

Three signs of external haemorrhage is: a. Blood oozing from a wound. b. Blood that fails to clot after you have tried to control it. c. Blood spurting from a wound. d. Both b and c

Answer 45

d. Both b and c

Question 46

Which of the following is not involved in the care for internal hemorrhaging? a. Obtaining more advanced medical care. b. Administrating supplemental oxygen. c. Giving the patient sips of water. d. Treating the patient for shock.

Answer 46

c. Giving the patient sips of water.

Question 47

If direct pressure and pressure bandages do not stop the bleeding which of the following can be used as a last resort? a. Arterial clamping. b. A tourniquet. c. Elastic bandaging. d. Hyperbaric recompression.

Answer 47

b. A tourniquet.

Question 48

Which of the following can a bandage be used for? a. Preventing air from reaching a wound. b. Providing a sterile covering for a wound. c. Applying pressure to control bleeding. d. Preventing germs from reaching a wound.

Answer 48

c. Applying pressure to control bleeding.

Question 49

If someone has been struck by lightning, which of the following injuries might you suspect? a. Burns. b. Spinal injuries. c. Entry and exit wounds. d. All of the above.

Answer 49

d. All of the above.

Question 50

If a patient has a burn that is black and charred with a white tissue in the middle, this is a: a. Superficial burn. b. Partial thickness burn c. Full thickness burn d. None of the above.

Answer 50

c. Full thickness burn

Question 51

A patient has dropped a chemical powder on her foot, causing a chemical burn. What should you do first? a. Brush the dry chemicals off the foot using a glove hand. b. Cool area with cool running water. c. Apply cold compress to the area. d. Cover the area with a nonstick sterile dressing.

Answer 51

a. Brush the dry chemical off the foot using a gloved hand.

Question 52

Which of the following patients required more advanced medical care? a. A 35-year-old man with a full thickness burn on his hand. b. A seven-year-old child with a sunburn on his back. c. A 72-year-old woman with a blistered burn on her leg. d. Both a and c

Answer 52

d. Both a and c

Question 53

The area around a recent wound is now red and swollen, and feels warm to the touch, this may indicate: a. An underlying chronic illness. b. Severe internal bleeding. c. An infection. d. A superficial burn.

Answer 53

c. An infection.

Question 54

Which of the following situations involving epistaxis (nosebleed) would indicate obtaining more advanced medical care? a. The epistaxis cannot be controlled within 10 to 15 minutes by pinching the nostrils. b. The epistaxis is the fourth nose bleed in a one-year period. c. The epistaxis is caused by low blood pressure. d. The epistaxis is the first nosebleed the patient has ever had.

Answer 54

a. The epistaxis cannot be controlled within 10 to 15 minutes by pinching the nostrils.