First Responder Workbook #2 Flashcards

(48 cards)

1
Q

If you approach a patient, and you find that one leg is shorter than the other in the first pointed outward, this would indicate:

a. A hip injury.
b. A broken ankle.
c. A broken femur.
d. Shock.

A

c. A broken femur

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2
Q

When splinting a broken radius and ulna, your splint should:

a. Immobilize the elbow and wrist.
b. Consist of a sling only.
c. Ensure the arm is straight.
d. Include traction.

A

a. Immobilize the elbow and wrist.

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3
Q

Applying cold to a musculoskeletal injury is helpful because:

a. It freezes the skin to numb the pain.
b. It eases pain and discomfort.
c. It decreases the temperature of the area to an optimal healing temperature.
d. It kills any pathogens that may cause infection.

A

b. It eases pain and discomfort.

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4
Q

Which of the following is not a purpose of an immobilizing an injury?

a. reduce blood flow to the injured limb.
b. To lessen pain.
c. To prevent further damage or injury.
d. To reduce the risk of serious bleeding.

A

a. Reduce blood flow to the injured limb.

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5
Q

When treating a bent knee with a suspected fracture that is painful to move, you should:

a. Immobilize it in the position found.
b. Return it to the normal anatomical position and then immobilize it.
c. Have the patient extend the leg and hold it in place.
d. Avoid immobilizing the injury.

A

a. Immobilize it in the position found.

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6
Q

For immobilizing an injured extremity, you should always:

a. Return the limb to the normal anatomical position.
b. Control any external bleeding.
c. Push any exposed bones back under the skin.
d. Elevate the injury.

A

b. Control any external bleeding.

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7
Q

Which of the following patterns is effective for applying an elastic ruler bandage to a shoulder or knee?

a. Triangular pattern.
b. Joint hook pattern.
c. Extremity relief pattern.
d. Figure-eight pattern.

A

d. Figure-eight pattern.

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8
Q

What should you do when applying a rigid splint to a patient forearm?

a. Ensure that it allows, the patient arm to bend at the elbow.
b. Ensure that it does not extend beyond the patient’s wrist.
c. Ensure that it applies to track pressure to the injured area.
d. Ensure that it extends from the shoulder to beyond the hand.

A

d. Ensure that it extends from the shoulder to beyond the hand.

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9
Q

If air enters the pleural space, what condition may occur?

a. Flail chest.
b. Hemothorax.
c. Abdominal aortic aneurysm.
d. Pneumothorax

A

d. Pneumothorax.

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10
Q

If someone receives a penetrating trauma about 5 cm below the navel, which organ is most likely to be injured?

a. Pancreas.
b. Gallbladder.
c. Small intestine
d. Liver.

A

c. Small intestine.

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11
Q

A fractured pelvis may lead to the inability to move feel the legs. What else can cause the same condition?

a. Injury to the lower spine.
b. Rupture of the spleen.
c. Fracture of the femur.
d. Heart attack.

A

a. Injury to the lower spine.

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12
Q

Pneumothorax is caused by which of the following entering the pleural space around the lung?

a. Digestive enzymes.
b. Blood.
c. Air.
d. Tissue.

A

c. Air

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13
Q

When treating someone with a close abdominal injury, the patient’s leg should be:

a. Bent with knees pulled towards the chest.
b. Lower than the patient’s head.
c. Raised approximately 15 cm.
d. Slightly bent with a rolled up blanket or pillow out under the knees.

A

d. Slightly bent with a rolled up blanket or pillow under the knees.

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14
Q

To treat flail chest, you should:

a. Apply dressings to the flail segment.
b. Tightly behind the patient on the chest to form an anatomical splint.
c. Placed the patient in recovery position.
d. By the entire chest, ensuring you do not restrict the patient breathing.

A

a. Apply dressing to the flail segment.

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15
Q

If the abdomen is struck with a blunt object, there may be damage to the spleen, which may result in:

a. Infection.
b. Gastroenteritis.
c. Severe blood loss.
d. Difficulty breathing (dyspnea).

A

c. Severe blood loss.

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16
Q

In which of the following cases, should you not attempt in-line stabilization for someone with a suspected spinal injury?

a. Patient’s head is severely angulated to one side.
b. You encounter resistance when attempting to move the head
c. The patient complains of pain when you attempt to move the head.
d. All of the above.

A

d. All of the above.

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17
Q

Which of the following is an appropriate intervention for a patient with an orbit fracture?

a. Applying direct pressure to the injured area with your glove hand.
b. Placing cold packs around the injured area.
c. Bandaging the area securely.
d. Placing the patient in recovery position.

A

b. Placing cold packs around the injured area.

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18
Q

A change in which of the following vital signs may indicate a brain injury?

a. Pupils and level of responsiveness.
b. Pulse and blood pressure.
c. Respiration.
d. All of the above.

A

d. All of the above.

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19
Q

A patient has a seizure. How long should you remain with the patient?

a. Until he is fully responsive.
b. Until you’ve confirmed that his vital signs are normal.
c. Until he is able to respond to painful stimuli.
d. Until he enters the postictal phase.

A

a. Until he’s fully responsive.

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20
Q

What will happen if you give glucose to a hyperglycaemic patient?

a. It will have no effect on the patient’s condition.
b. The patient is likely to enter a diabetic coma.
c. The patient is located to develop tachypnea and tachycardia.
d. The patient’s condition will gradually improve over 5 to 10 minutes.

A

a. It will have no effect on the patient’s condition.

21
Q

Patient presents with pain near the umbilical area which later becomes intense and localized in the lower right quadrant. What condition should you suspect?

a. Appendicitis.
b. Hypoglycemia.
c. Gastrointestinal bleeding.
d. Urinary tract infection.

A

a. Appendicitis.

22
Q

When should a patient experiencing a diabetic emergency be placed in rapid transport category?

a. Signs and symptoms persist 5 to 10 minutes after taking glucose.
b. One signs and symptoms do not start to disappear immediately after taking glucose.
c. When the patient’s blood glucose level is less than 4mmol/L
d. When the patient has insulin independent diabetes

A

a. When signs and symptoms persist 5 to 10 minutes after taking glucose.

23
Q

What should you recommend for a patient who is experiencing chronic migraines?

a. The patient should consider a reduced sodium diet.
b. The patient should consult a physician for assessment and possibly prescription medication.
c. The patient should increase the amount of physical activity in the routine.
d. The patient should drink more water.

A

b. The patient should consult a physician for assessment and possibly prescription medication.

24
Q

If a patient who is under the effects of a drug becomes violent or threatening, you should:

a. Asking by standard to help you restrain the patient.
b. Withdraw from the area.
c. Attempt to provide as much care to the patient as possible.
d. Try to determine which drug the patient has taken.

A

b. Withdraw from the area.

25
Patient’s eyes are burning due to contact with a crowd management agent, what should you do? a. Cover the patient’s eyes with a cool damp cloth. b. Cover the patient’s eyes with dry dressing and bandage them gently in place. c. Rinse the patient’s eyes with water for 10 to 15 minutes. d. Place the patient in the rapid transport category.
c. Rinse the patient eyes with water for 10 to 15 minutes.
26
If the patient has a rash in a bulls pattern, what should you suspect as the cause? a. An overdose of an injected drug. b. Poisoning caused by an absorbed chemical powder. c. Exposure to a crowd management agent. d. Lime disease infection caused by a tick bite.
d. A Lyme disease infection caused by a tick bite.
27
A man working saddle day in the summer feels weak and dizzy, and needs to sit down. He has to feel sick and his stomach wipes, his forehead, which is sweaty and warm. The patient is most likely suffering from: a. Heat cramps. b. Heat exhaustion. c. Heat stroke. d. A heart attack.
b. Heat exhaustion.
28
During an assessment, you noticed that a patient’s fingers appear white and that small clear blisters are beginning to form. What should you do next? a. immerse the patients hand in cool water until sensation returns. b. When the patient’s hand under hot water for five minutes. c. Immerse the patient’s hand in warm water until the skin begins to turn red and is warm to the touch. d. keep the patient’s hand from fine until she can be examined by a physician.
c. Patient’s hand in a warm water until the skin begins to turn red and is warm to the touch.
29
Which of the following best describes the pulse and respiration of a patient suffering from severe hypothermia? a. Tachycardia and tachypnea. b. Bradycardia and bradypnea. c. Tachycardia and bradypnea d. Normal pulse and breathing.
b. Brachycardia and bradypnea
30
If you suspect that a patient has severe hypothermia, how should you modify your primary assessment? a. Take a patient’s temperature before checking for a pulse. b. Check for signs of pulse and respiration for up to 60 seconds. c. Check for the patient’s pulse before checking respiration d. Bring the patient into a warmer environment before beginning the assessment.
b. Check for signs of pulse and respiration for up to 60 seconds.
31
Refusing watera changing level of response, illness and vomiting are all signs that a heat stress patient: a. Has heat exhaustion? b. Should be in the rapid transport category. c. Has a pre-existing medical condition. d. Is recovering from the effects of heat exposure.
b. Should be in the rapid transport category.
32
When you assess a neonate, you find a pulse of 90; you should: a. Began CPR at a rate of 3:1 b. Begin ventilation, using a neonate or paediatric bag valve mask with room air. c. Continue with your assessment of the neonate. d. Treat the neonate for shock.
a. Begin CPR at a rate of 3:1
33
If you see a loop of umbilical cord coming out of the vaginal opening, this is called: a. Prolapsed cord. b. Breech birth. c. Placenta previa. d. Limit representation.
a. Prolapsed cord.
34
During which of the following childbirth complications, would you place your fingers in a “V” position around the babies, mouth and nose? a. Prolapsed cord. b. Breech birth. c. Placenta previa. d. Ectopic pregnancy.
b. Breech birth.
35
You see the umbilical cord wrapped around the baby’s neck, you should: a. gently move the cord over the head or slip it over the baby shoulders as they emerge. b. Pull gently on the baby shoulders as the emerged to speed up the delivery c. Apply for a pressure to the baby head to slow down the delivery, then unwrap the cord. d. Increase oxygen flow to the mother.
a. Gently move the cord over the head or slip it over the baby shoulders as they emerge.
36
If neonate is showing signs of respiratory distress, you should: a. Begin chest thrust and back blows. b. Flick the soles of the babies feet with your fingers. c. Suction the mouth or nose with a bulb syringe. d. Began CPR at a rate of 3:1.
c. Suction the mouth or nose with a bulb syringe.
37
To control vaginal bleeding after the delivery of the baby, you can: a. Pack the vagina with sterile dressing and elevate the mother‘s legs b. Massage the abdomen and have the mother assume a semi sitting position. c. Massage the abdomen, and include the mother to nurse the baby. d. Have the mother assume the recovery position
c. Massage the abdomen and encourage the mother to nurse the baby.
38
Normally, the placenta will come out of the vaginal opening: a. Within 20 minutes of the delivery of the baby. b. Immediately before the babies delivered. c. Approximately one hour after the delivery of the baby. d. During the fourth stage of labour.
a. Within 20 minutes of the delivery of the baby.
39
Which of the following is important to do when caring for someone with visual impairment? a. Stand directly in front of the patient so he or she can see your shadow. b. Stay very quiet so the patient can hear what else is going on nearby. c. Speak loudly and enunciate every word so the patient can hear you properly d. Explain what you’re doing especially before touching the patient.
d. Explain what you’re doing especially before touching the patient.
40
What is your main goal when treating a palliative care patient? a. To delay the depth of the patient for as long as possible. b. To encourage the patient to move into a hospital for a full-time care. c. To comfort the patient’s family and help them feel they are doing everything possible. d. To improve quality of life and make the patient as comfortable as possible.
d. To improve quality of life and make the patient as comfortable as possible.
41
When caring for a patient who has a service animal what should you do? a. Keep the animal close to the patient if possible, but avoid interacting with it. b. Close the animal in another room or have a bystander keep it out of sight c. Keep the animal close and reassure the animal by speaking calmly to it. d. Have a bystander keep the animal within sight of the patient but at least 15 feet away.
a. Keep the animal close to the patient if possible, but avoid interacting with it.
42
When dealing with a scene involving a physical assault, what is your first concern? a. The patient’s physical injuries. b. The emotional state of the patient in any bystanders. c. Documenting everything you see for the police reports d. Your own safety.
d. Your own safety.
43
If you suspect that a child has been a victim of assault, which of the following are you legally required to do? a. Look for clues to determine whether the child’s version of event is true. b. As the child’s caregiver whether they would like you to report the crime to police. c. Prevent anyone else from speaking to the child enforcement officer is present. d. Report the crime to your provincial or territorial child protection service.
d. Report the crime to your provincial or territorial child protection service.
44
If a patient makes statements about consider considering suicide, what should you do? a. Distract the patient by asking about topics of general interest. b. Attempt to convince the patient that life is worth living. c. Document the statements and report them when care is transferred. d. Placed the patient in the rapid transport category.
c. Documented the statements and report them when care is transferred.
45
If a patient seems to be experiencing psychotic episode and you believe there is a risk of violence. How should you ensure your own safety? a. Asking any bystanders to help you restrain the patient b. Remain at a safe distance and request the law-enforcement personnel. c. Leave the scene. d. Tell the patient that you are not provided care until he or she calms down.
b. Remain as a safe distance and request law-enforcement personnel.
46
A patient is a responsive and has a suspected spinal injury. You need to move him away from a fire. which of the following moves should you use? a. Clothes drag. b. Extremity lift. c. Walking assist. d. Any of the above.
a. Clothes drag
47
In which of the following situations would you move a patient before providing care? a. A patient has fainted in a narrow hallway and people are unable to get by. b. A patient is having a seizure in a shopping mall and a crowd has gathered around. c. A patient is sitting in a car in his driveway and not breathing. d. A patient is sitting on a busy sidewalk, complaining of breathing difficulties and chest pain.
c. A patient is sitting in a car in his driveway and not breathing.
48
If you’re required to break a vehicle window to gain access to an injured patient inside you should: a. Instruct the patient to move to the opposite side of the vehicle. b. Instructed patient to cover their face before you break the window. c. Instructed one of the patients to break the window from inside, so the glass will be pushed out and away. d. Break a small hole in the window, then pass PPE into the patient, then break the rest of the glass. Once the patients have donned the PPE.
a. Instruct the patient to move to the opposite side of the vehicle.