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FISO Validation Flashcards

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1
Q

What are the objectives of the Air Traffic Service?

A

1) Prevent collisions of Aircraft
2) Prevent collisions of Aircraft on the Manoeuvring Area
3) Expedite and maintain an orderly flow of traffic
4) provide relevant traffic info so flights are safe and efficient
5) notify appropriate organisations for aircraft needing SAR

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2
Q

What is QNH?

A

Altitude above sea level

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3
Q

What is QFE?

A

Height above the airfield

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4
Q

What is QNE?

A

Is a pressure setting that will produce a standard atmosphere and provides the basis for flight levels

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5
Q

What is a regional pressure setting (ASR) ?

A

A forecast of the lowest QNH within an ASR

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6
Q

What is the transition altitude and level?

A

Altitude is when the vertical position of an aircraft is normally controlled by QNH or QFE and Level is when the vertical position is controlled by as flight levels

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7
Q

For flight priorities, what flights operate under category A, B, C and D?

A

A - Emergency and Search & Rescue
B - Post Accident flight checks
C - Royal Flights
D - Heads of government

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8
Q

What happens if a pilot declares minimum fuel?

A

Unless the pilot has declared a mayday or a pan then there is no requirement to provide priority

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9
Q

What categories do police helicopters operate under and and what do the categories mean?

A

The categories are A, B & Z

A is for emergencies
B for normal operations
Z for training flights

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10
Q

What categories do medical helicopters operate under and and what do the categories mean?

A

The categories are A, E & Z

A for emergencies
E for aircraft positioning such as returning to base after delivering casualty to hospital
Z for training

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11
Q

What is the FISO’s response when a Pilot says TCAS RA?

A

The FISO simply replies, “Roger”

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12
Q

What happens if the aircraft has a failure of nav lights?

A

An aircraft shall not depart at night if there is a failure of any light that needs to be displayed and the light cant be repaired immediately. If the aircraft is in flight, the aircraft must land as soon as possible

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13
Q

What service can a FISO provide and when can they provide traffic information?

A

A basic service only and when the aircraft is within the vicinity of the aerodrome

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14
Q

What is the correct phraseology regarding wake turbulence?

A

“Caution wake turbulence”

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15
Q

What are the signals for aircraft on the ground?

A

Steady green - take off
Flashing green - taxi
Steady red - stop
Flashing red - move clear of runway
Flashing white - return to starting point at airfield

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16
Q

What are the signals for aircraft in the air?

A

Steady green - land
Flashing green - return for landing
Steady red - give way/continue circling
Flashing red - do not land

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17
Q

Who should be informed of a runway change?

A

The aircraft, airfield fire service and any other airfield who will be affected by the change

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18
Q

When should a licensed aerodrome be notified about racing pigeons?

A

1) If they are released within 13km of the airfield
2) At least 14 days prior to release.
3) Should be notified on day 30 mins before they’re released
4) The FIS unit can only delay them once for up to 30 minutes

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19
Q

The periods of display of AGL?

A

Day - when the visibility is less than 5km and cloud base is less than 700 feet

Night - irrespective of weather conditions

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20
Q

When and why do we have aerodrome and lighting inspections? And who does the inspections at Fairoaks?

A

We have them before flying commences and then before night flying. We have them to so we’re aware of any unserviceabilities or obstructions that may affect operations and

The ground/fire crew will do the runway inspections

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21
Q

When should there be any additional surface inspections?

A

1) after an aircraft accident due to possible debris
2) following an abandoned take-off by a turbine-engine aircraft
3) prior to any movement by a jet aircraft

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22
Q

The purpose of an Alerting Service?

A

To notify appropriate organisations regarding aircraft in need of an SAR aid and to assist the organisations when required

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23
Q

What should a FISO do if they know of a possible active ballistic recovery system?

A

The FISO should inform the RFFS due to the possibility of a live rocket

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24
Q

When would a FISO suspect an aircraft is in an emergency situation?

A

1) overdue at an aerodrome
2) loss of radio contact
3) erratic behaviour of an aircraft
4) short on fuel

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25
What do you do when two-way communication has failed and establishing communication has also failed?
1) ask other aircraft to make contact 2) transmit weather and traffic info prefixing the transmission with “transmitting blind” 3) Ask heathrow or farnborough if they have the aircraft on radar
26
What happens if there is unauthorised use of the frequency?
1) correct any false information 2) inform all aircraft that false information is being transmitted 3) request all aircraft to verify information 4) if possible change to a different frequency 5) inform all aircraft affected when the false information is no longer being transmitted
27
What to do if there is use of lasers against the FIS unit?
1) look away from beam, shield eyes and avoid rubbing 2) advise aircraft of situation and minimise traffic 3) consider increasing ambient light levels 4) record in watch log, submit MOR and call 999
28
What is an aircraft accident?
An occurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft which, in the case of a manned aircraft, takes place between the time any person boards the aircraft with the intention of flight until such time as all such persons have disembarked.
29
What is an aircraft ground incident?
An aircraft in an emergency situation and requires the emergency services
30
What is a full emergency definition?
When an aircraft in the air is approaching an aerodrome and there is a danger of an accident occuring
31
What is a local standby?
When an aircraft has developed a defect but would not involve difficulty of a safe landing
32
What category RFFS does fairoaks operate?
RFF category 2 and 3 is accepted under remission. CAT 3 is accepted if there have been less than 700 movements in the busiest 3 months
33
What are the widths of the taxiways
Taxiway Alpha - 10M concrete and asphalt Taxiway Bravo - 11M concrete and asphalt Taxiway Charlie - 10M concrete
34
What lights do we have on the taxiways?
Green centre lights on Alpha Green centre and blue edge reflectors on Bravo and charlie
35
What is the true bearing and threshold elevation of runway 06?
058 degrees and 78 feet
36
What is the true bearing and threshold elevation of runway 24?
238 degrees and 76 feet
37
What are the declared distances of runway 06?
TORA - 810 TODA - 873 (63 metre clearway) ASDA - 810 LDA - 757 (53 metre displaced threshold)
38
What are the declared distances of runway 24?
TORA - 810 TODA - 810 ASDA - 810 LDA - 799 (11 metres displaced threshold)
39
What approach and runway lighting does Fairoaks have?
- low intensity edge lights - APAPI’s both left hand side, 4 degrees G/S RWY 24 and 3.5 degrees G/S 06 - RWY24 has 3 runway edge lights that are cautionary yellow for the last 150 metres.
40
What are the other light sources at fairoaks?
1) Identification beacon 2) Anemometer 3) windsock
41
What are the vertical limits of the ATZ?
Part of the ATZ is restricted to 1500 feet due to the london CTR and the other part of the ATZ is restricted to 2000 feet due too Farnborough’s class D airspace
42
What is the frequency and designated operational coverage?
123.430 and 10 NM / 3000 feet
43
What happens in the event of a CCTV failure?
When issuing taxi instructions, initially say “taxi at your discretion” A4 or Fuel Farm
44
What are the FISO responsibilities?
Maintain an up-to-date record of flights. Brief pilots on local operating procedures. Process any noise complaints and pass details to the Airport Manager Liaise with the Aerodrome Ground Crew and Fire Service. Co-ordinate with Customs, Special Branch and Immigration.
45
For the standard ascot north route, what is the clearance limit and altitude restriction
The clearance limit is the northern part of the fairoaks LFA and 1500 feet when south of ascot
46
For the standard ascot south route, what is the clearance limit and altitude restriction
There is no clearance limit and the altitude restriction is 1900 feet south of ascot
47
A Mareva Injunction is a court order, what would a FISO say to an aircraft?
“You are subject to a court order prohibiting the aircraft from leaving the United Kingdom, what are your intentions?”
48
What is the IFR squawk when remaining outside of controlled airspace?
2000
49
What do you do if an aircraft is departing on a Z flight plan?
Pre-note the south co-ordinator what G-ABCD will be departing on a Z flight plan and joining at XYZ
50
What are dimensions of the runway strip?
The width is 28 metres from the edge of the runway and the length is 60 metres from the ends of the runway
51
When do low visibility procedures become in force?
LVP’s will be initiated when the FISO cant see all taxiways or the runway from the ATSU directly or by CCTV and shall be inforce from taxi and once the aircraft has reported airborne
52
What happens if the visibility is 200 metres or less?
There shall be no movements and only emergency vehicles and RFFS are allowed on the manoeuvring area
53
Where are the obstacle lights at Fairoaks?
1) hangar E7 2) CCTV mast near hangar E7 3) Met mast north of the runway 4) Tele comms mast south east of airfield
54
What is the process of removing an aircraft?
Phone the AAIB as soon as possible. If the accident is within the aerodrome strip then you must close the runway and inform farnborough, Heathrow and D&D. The RFFS or emergency services can be moved for the purpose of saving a life of people or animals
55
What is the procedure for an aircraft deprating during low visibility procedures?
1) An aircraft must not taxi until the RFFS vehicle proceeds ahead of the aircraft 2) Once at the holding point, the RFFS vehicle will inspect the runway and report vacated at the end 3) The RFFS vehicle will hold at the holding point to prevent any traffic entering the RWY 4) The aircraft must report airborne
56
If there is an emergency, what are the stages?
1) Alert the aerodrome RFFS by radio or/and crash alarm 2) Inform RFFS of aircraft type, how many on board and nature of problem using ‘NITS’ 3) Call the emergency services get a member of staff to the RVP to direct the emergency services
57
What are the frequencies, distances and bearings of the OCK, MID & LON VOR/DME’s?
OCK - 115.3 - 5NM - 120/300 MID - 114.0 - 18NM - 190/010 LON - 113.6 - 9NM - 020/200
58
What are the runway orientations of Blackbushe, Redhill, Biggin and White Waltham?
Blackbushe - 07/25 Redhill - 18/36 & 08/26 Biggin - 03/21 WW - 03/21, 07/25 & 11/29
59
What runway can you use for a simulated engine failure after take off?
RWY 24
60
What is the MEHT?
The MEHT is the minumum eye-height above the threshold. It is made up of two values which are eye to wheel height and wheel to threshold height. Both values are for aircraft in an approach configuration
61
What do you do if you need to evacuate the ATSU?
Evacuate as soon as possible, retrieve the grab bag and radio. The service is now downgraded to Air/Ground and a NOTAM will need to be issued when possible
62
What are the different categories of Emergencies starting with the most severe?
1) Aircraft accident/Aircraft accident imminent 2) Ground incident 3) Full emergency 4) Local Standby 5) Weather Standby
63
What is an aircraft accident?
An occurrence that is associated with the operation of an aircraft of which... 1) A person is fatally or seriously injured 2) the aircraft sustains damage or structural failure 3) the aircraft is missing
64
What are the different stages of overdue action and what do you?
1) Uncertainty phase — 30 minutes after ETA — call D&D, Farnborough and Heathrow 2) Alert Phase — no information on above — fails to land after 5 minutes of expected ETA (downwind) — immediate action taken from JRCC for 1 hour 3) Distress phase — no news from Alert phase — fuel onboard is considered zero — known to have crashed — JRCC puts widespread plan in force until aircraft found
65
What are the dimensions of the taxiway protected area?
19.5 metres from the taxiway centreline
66
What are the VFR visibility operations?
5KM, clear of cloud and surface in sight.
67
What will work on the standby power?
1) Main and standby radio 2) VCR Lights 3) ATOTN 4) Weather display
68
What to do if there is use of lasers against aircraft?
1) Note the time, position and altitude 2) Obtain details of Laser (continious or pulsing) 3) Advise all aircraft and call 999 4) Record in watch log and submit MOR
69
What aircraft are not allowed at Fairoaks?
1) Balloons 2) Banner Towing 3) Gliders 4) Non-radio 5) Parachute dropping
70
When must you file a flight plan?
1) Flying at night away from an aerodrome 2) Any flight across international borders and UK FIR boundary 3) IFR flights in advisory airpsace 4) Any flight under an ATC service
71
What are the fire categories at Fairoaks?
Category 2 but can accept category 3 under remission if there has been less than 700 movements in the busiest 3 months
72
What are the wake turbulence categories?
Light < 7000 Medium > 7000 < 136000 High > 136000
73
What are the danger areas at farnborough and their limits?
D133 alpha and bravo SFC to 1200 and is always active D132 SFC to 2500 by NOTAM only HIRTA SFC to 3800
74
What procedures apply to movements of jet aircraft?
A runway inspection is required before take-off and landing
75
What is the highest spot height within 25 NM?
965 feet AMSL
76
What is the height of the bagshot mast?
765 feet
77
What are the flight plan tolerances?
VFR +/- 30 minutes IFR +/- 15 minutes CTOT -5/+10

FISO Validation (1 decks)

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