Fixed Income Flashcards

1
Q

In using matrix pricing to estimate the required yield spread on a new corporate bond issue, the benchmark rate used is:

A

the YTM on a government bond with similar time to maturity

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2
Q

A source of

  • interim financing for long term projects, until permament financing is found
  • funding for working capital and seasonal demand for cash
  • Only available to large corporations with high credit ratings
  • supported by credit enhancement
A

Commercial paper

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3
Q

Sinking fund:

Requires that the issuer retire a portion of the ____ through a series of principal payments over the life of the bond

A

Requires that the issuer retire a portion of the principal through a series of principal payments over the life of the bond

Similar to serial maturity bond structures

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4
Q

US company, issuing a bond in the US, in dollars

Is an example of:

A

Domestic bond

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5
Q

Japanese company, issuing a bond in the US, in dollars

Is an example of:

A

Foreign bond

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6
Q

Bond issued internationally, outside the jurisdiction of the country in whose currency the bond is denominated

A

Eurobonds

Japanese company, issuing a bond in the US, in Yen

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7
Q
  • buy and sell orders are initiated from various locations and then matched through a communications network;
  • most bonds are traded in this market
A

OTC/dealer market

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8
Q

Bonds settle how many days after the trade date?

A
  • Corporate bonds: T + 2 or T + 3
  • Government bonds: T+1
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9
Q
  • unsecured obligations of the national government issuing the bonds;
  • not backed by collateral, but by the taxing authority of the national government
A

sovereign bonds

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10
Q

Bonds with a floating rate of interest that resets periodically based on changes in the level of a reference rate, such as Libor.

A

Floating rate bonds

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11
Q

Which type of sovereign bond has the lowest interest rate risk for an investor?

A

Floaters

Because changes in the reference rate reflect changes in market interest rates, price changes of floaters are far less pronounced than those of fixed-rate bonds, such as coupon bonds and discount bonds.

Thus, investors holding floaters are less exposed to interest rate risk than investors holding fixed-rate discount or coupon bonds

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12
Q

Bonds issued by a government sponsored/owned issuer, that typically have higher yields

A

Quasi government bonds

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13
Q

Agency bonds are issued by:

A

quasi government

government sponsored/owned

 Issued by federal agency: Government national mortgage association (Ginnie Mae)

 Issued by government sponsored agencies: Federal national mortgage association (Fannie Mae) & federal home loan mortgage corporation (Freddie Mae)

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14
Q

A sinking fund arrangement is a way to reduce ____ risk, but increases _ risk:

A

Credit risk
* Sinking funds add an element of security and lowers default risk
* Due to the lower interest rates on the bonds, the company is usually seen as creditworthy, which can lead to positive credit ratings for its debt
* Sinking funds have higher reinvestment risk

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15
Q

the difference between the market value of the underlying collateral and the value of the loan

A

repo margin

supply & demand conditions of collateral

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16
Q

When the credit quality of the counterparty decreases, the repo margin will:

A

Increase

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17
Q

If the collateral is in short supply or if there is a high demand for it, repo margins are ?

A

lower

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18
Q

The market for loans and deposits between banks, for maturities up to one year

A

interbank money market

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19
Q
  • The most recently issued sovereign securities, of a particular maturity
  • Are the most active in the secondary market because they are highly liquid
A

on the run Treasury bonds of a particular maturity

benchmark issue for other bond yields

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20
Q

A form of short-term collateralized borrowing in which a bondholder sells a security and agrees to buy it back at a higher price:

A

Repurchase agreement

A source of short-term funding for a bondholder

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21
Q

Rate based on the actual rates of repurchase transactions and reported daily by the federal reserve

A

structured overnight financing rate (SOFR)

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22
Q

Unsecured short-term loans from one bank to another

A

interbank funds market

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23
Q

issuance of sovereign debt is usually issued in which market?

A

primary market, by auctions

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24
Q

Do fixed or floating rates have more price variability?

A

fixed, since the coupon is fixed, the price changes as interest rates change
floating prices are more fixed, because the coupons are adjusting to interest rates

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25
Q

An entire issue is registered with securities regulators but the bonds are sold to the public over a period of time as the issuer needs to raise funds

A

Shelf registration

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26
Q

Issuer can offer additional bonds to the general public without preparing a new and separate offering

A

shelf registration;
as a part of auctions in the primary market

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27
Q

The risk of future interest rates being less than the YTM at the time the bond is purchased:

A

reinvestment risk;
* the investor reinvests the coupons at the market interest rate and the risk is that reinvesting will earn less when putting the coupons into a new investment
* the potential that the investor will be unable to reinvest cash flows at a rate comparable to their current rate of return
* More problematic when the current coupons being reinvested are large

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28
Q

Convexity:

  • Demonstrates how the duration of a bond changes as the:
  • If a bond’s duration increases as yields increase, the bond is said to have:
  • If a bond’s duration rises and yields fall, the bond is said to have:
A
  • Demonstrates how the duration of a bond changes as the interest rate changes
  • If a bond’s duration increases as yields increase, the bond is said to have negative convexity
  • If a bond’s duration rises and yields fall, the bond is said to have positive convexity
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29
Q

Conevexity effect

When interest rates rise & fall by the same amount:

  • Rise: bond price decrease by:
  • Fall: bond price increases by:
A
  • interest rates rise = price falls by less (overestimate)
  • Interest rates fall= price increase by more
    moreconvexity effect (underestimate)
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30
Q

Flat price of a bond=

A

Flat price (clean) = Full price (dirty) - Accrued interest

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31
Q

Bond dealers most often quote the:

A

flat (clean) price; to avoid misleading investors about the market price, since the full (dirty) price includes the accrued interest

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32
Q

Z-spread:

  • Z-spread is the spread that is added to each:
  • Cause the present value of the bond cash flows to equal:
A
  • Z-spread is the spread that is added to each zero-coupon bond spot rate (treasury bond)
  • Cause the present value of the bond cash flows to equal:the bond’s price

does not include value of embedded options

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33
Q

Nominal spread:

  • The difference between _ & _ , with a similar maturity
A
  • A nominal yield spread is the difference between a Treasury and non-Treasury security with the same maturity

Nominal Spread = Treasury YTM - Corporate bond YTM

  • The spread is frequently used in pricing certain types of mortgage-backed securities
  • It is the amount that, when added to the yield at one point on the Treasury yield curve represents the discount factor that will make a security’s cash flows equal to its current market price
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34
Q

If the I-spread increases, credit risk:

A

If the I-spread increases, the credit risk also increases

We can use LIBOR as an example. It shows the difference between a bond’s yield and a benchmark curve

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35
Q

Interpolated spreads (I-spreads) are:

  • The difference between:
A
  • The difference between a bond’s yield and the swap rates

We can use LIBOR as an example. It shows the difference between a bond’s yield and a benchmark curve

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36
Q

An obligation of the corporation that issues them, but their interest and principal payments are provided by a pool of assets that are legally recognized as bankruptcy remote:

A

Covered Bonds

Oftenly used in Europe

  • Similar to ABS, but the underlying assets remain on the balance sheet of the issuer
  • Thus, no SPE is created
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37
Q

Issued by a special purpose entity to which the underlying assets are sold:

A

Securitized bonds (i.e., asset-backed securities)

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38
Q

Bonds with multiple maturity dates are issued at the same time

A

Serial bond issue

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39
Q

Unsecured debt, in the United States is referred to as:

A

Debentures

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40
Q

Backed by a claim to specific assets of a corporation:

A

Secured Bonds

Reduces default risk, and thus lowering yield

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41
Q
  • Overcollateralization
  • Cash reserve fund
  • Excess spread account: setting aside amounts to protect against losses
  • Tranches
A

Internal Credit Enhancement methods

Built into the structure of a bond issue

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42
Q
  • Surety bonds
  • Bank gaurantees
  • Letters of credit
A

External Credit Enhancement methods

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43
Q

90-day LIBOR plus 125 bps

A

Floating rate note

125 bps in constant (fixed)

For a reference rate note:
For a variable rate note: there is a spread above the reference rate, that fluctuates

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44
Q

A bond initially does not make periodic payments but instead accrues them over a pre-determined period and then pays a lump sum at the end of that period. The bond subsequently makes regular periodic payments until maturity:

A

Deferred-coupon bonds

Deferred coupon bonds carry coupons, but the initial coupon payments are deferred for some period. The coupon payments accrue, at a compound rate, over the deferral period and are paid as a lump sum at the end of that period. After the initial deferment period has passed, these bonds pay regular coupon interest for the rest of the life of the issue (i.e., until the maturity date)

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45
Q

Has a coupon rate that increases on one or more specified dates during the note’s life:

A

Step-up note

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46
Q

The Lender is the:

A

Bondholder

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47
Q

The Borrower is the:

A

Bond Issuer

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48
Q

What all is included in a bond indenture?

A
  • Obligations of the issuing firm (positive covenants)
  • Restrictions of the issuing firm (negative covenants)
  • Source of funds for repayment

Not included: the identity of the lender (bondholder) since bonds can be traded throughout their lives

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49
Q

Clause that states that a bond will have the same priority of claims as the issuer’s other senior debt issues:

A

Pari Passu

Affirmative Covenant

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50
Q

Clause that states that if the issuer defaults on any other debt obligation, they will also be considered in default on this bond:

A

Cross-default

affirmative covenant

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51
Q

A corporation has borrowed $10 million. It will repay this by making payments of $1.3 million each year for 9 years and a payment of $8 million at the end of the 10th year. This type of bond is referred to as:

A

Partially amortizing bond

8M at year 10 is the balloon payment

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52
Q

If two banks fund a loan to a corporation, the loan is most accurately described as a:

A

Syndicated Loan

Loans funded by more than one bank

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53
Q

A bilateral loan involves:

A

One bank

Bilateral refers to the lender (Bank) and borrower (corporation)

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54
Q

Describe the bid-ask spread for liquid and illiquid issues, in the secondary market:

A

Narrow spread: highly liquid issues
Wider spread: less liquid issues

Secondary Market: OTC/Dealer Market

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55
Q

Credit quality & liquidity are reflected in:

A

Yield spreads

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56
Q

Reference rate for a floating rate note should match:

A
  • Currency
  • Frequency of coupon resets

90-day yen Libor for a yen-denominated note that resets quarterly.

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57
Q

Corporate issues that can be structured to meet the requirements of investors

A

Medium term notes

Does not imply anything about the maturity

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58
Q

Issuer agrees to pay the entire amount borrowed in one lump-sum payment at maturity:

A

Term maturity structure

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59
Q
  • Structured securities combine:
  • Designed to change the:
A
  • Medium term notes & Derivatives
  • Designed to change the risk profile of an underlying debt security, by combining a debt security with a derivative

Creates features designed by an investor

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60
Q

Interest rates used to discount a single cash flow to be received in the future

A

Spot rates

  • YTM on a zero coupon bond
  • Gives the yield broken out into components, instead of blended
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61
Q

All of the return from a zero-coupon bond comes from:

A

Price appreciation

The increase from purchase price to face value at maturity is interest income

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62
Q

The yield spread:

  • Is difference of yields in two different bonds with:
A
  1. the same maturity
  2. different credit quality

Usually it is a comparison of a bond to a US treasury (benchmark)

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63
Q

In a CPI interest-indexed bond, how does a CPI increase affect:

  • Coupon rate:
  • The par value:
A
  • Coupon rate is adjusted for inflation
  • The par value remains unchanged

(CPI * PMT)

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64
Q
  • “Max acceptable debt usage ratios”
  • “Minimium acceptable interest coverage ratios”
  • Limit on the level of share buybacks
A

examples of negative covenants

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65
Q

“What the issuer will do with the proceeds of a bond issue”

A

Example of affirmative covenants

Typically administrative in nature

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66
Q

The price sensitivity of a bond or portfolio to a change in the interest rate at one specific maturity on the yield curve.

A

Key rate duration

Used to estimate interest rate risk for non-parallel shifts in the yield curve

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67
Q

Zero coupon bonds have the highest sensitivity to:

A

Since the only cash flows made is the principal payment at maturity of the bond. Therefore, it has the highest interest rate sensitivity

68
Q

The duration of a zero-coupon bond is:

A

equal to its time to maturity

69
Q

Macaulay, modified, and effective duration are examples of:

A

analytical duration

70
Q

Key rate duration:

Used to estimate the price sensitivity & interest rate risk for a:

A

non-parallel shift in the yield curve

71
Q

Duration and convexity are most likely to produce more accurate estimates of interest rate risk when the term structure of yield volatility is:

A

flat

72
Q

Relationship between time to maturity and yield (YTM) volatility

A

term structure of yield volatility

73
Q

What causes an increase in a bond’s yield spread to the benchmark yield curve?

A

Widening of the spread is caused by:
* credit risk (deteriorating credit quality)
* liquidity issues

74
Q

When convexity is ____, duration will be less accurate in predicting a bond’s price for a given change in interest rates

A

higher

75
Q

Portfolio duration approximates the sensitivity of the value of a bond portfolio to:

A

Parallel shifts in the yield curve

76
Q

Describes the yield curve when: yields for all maturities increase or decrease by equal amounts

A

Parallel shifts of the yield curve

77
Q

The difference between a bond’s Macaulay duration and the bondholder’s investment horizon

A

Duration gap

Duration gap= Macaulay duration - Investment horizon

78
Q

Bond investors with shorter time horizons are more concerned about:

A

Market price risk

If an investor is planning to sell a bond before maturity, they are more worried about what price they could sell this bond for in the market

79
Q

Bond investors with long time horizons are more concerned about:

A

Reinvestment risk

The risk that interest rates are lower than what your bond is yielding, and therefore you’re reinvesting your coupons at lower rates

80
Q

If Macaulay duration is less than the investment horizon, the bondholder is said to have a negative duration gap and is more exposed to:

A

Reinvestment risk dominates, over market price risk
The investor is at risk over lower interest rates

81
Q

If Macaulay duration is greater than the investment horizon, the bondholder is said to have a positive duration gap and is more exposed to:

A

Market price risk dominates, over reinvestment rate risk
The investor is at risk over higher interest rates

82
Q

Market price risk increases when:

A

Interest rates rise

Which decreases the price of the bond

83
Q

Effective duration:

  • Duration measure used for bonds with:
  • Used to measure the sensitivity of a ____ to a parallel shift in a flat yield curve
A
  • Duration measure used for bonds with embedded options (future cash flows depend on the path of interest rate changes)
  • Used to measure the sensitivity of a bond price to a parallel shift in a flat yield curve

Used to measure the sensitivity of a bond price to a parallel shift in a flat yield curve

84
Q

refers to the value a bond investor will lose if the issuer defaults

A

Loss severity (loss given default)

85
Q

Expected loss=

A

default risk * loss severity

86
Q

percentage of a bond’s value an investor will receive if the issuer defaults

A

recovery rate

87
Q

Recovery rate=

A

1- Loss severity (%)

88
Q

Wider spread = ____ bond prices

A

lower bond prices

89
Q

reflects the creditworthiness of the issuer and liquidity of the market for the bonds

A

The size of the spread

90
Q

Spread risk is the possibility that a bond’s spread will widen due to:

A
  • downgrade risk
  • market liquidity risk
91
Q

the risk of receiving less than market value when selling a bond, reflected in the bid-ask spread

A

market liquidity risk
-greater for less creditworthy and smaller issuer bonds

92
Q

ranks the categories of debt in the event of a default

A

priority of claims

93
Q

Yield spread=

A

liquidity premium + credit spread

94
Q

Represent a general claim to the issuer’s assets and cash flows; lower priority of claims

A

unsecured debt

increases default risk, and thus increases yield

95
Q

Borrower’s ability to repay its debt obligations on time

A

capacity

96
Q

Asses the quality of tangible assets and their ability to be sold, especially important for less creditworthy companies

A

Collateral

97
Q

Terms and conditions the borrowers and lenders agree to as part of a bond issue

A

covenants

98
Q

Refers to management’s integrity and its commitment to repay the loan

A

character

99
Q

Trust certificates are ____ bonds

A

secured

100
Q

A change of control put option protects lenders by requiring the borrower to buy back its debt in the event of an acquisition, reducing:

A

reducing credit risk

101
Q

A limitation on liens limits the amount of secured debt that a borrower can carry, reduces:

A

reducing credit risk

102
Q

cash flows from a subsidiary are used to pay the subsidiary’s debt before they may be paid to the parent company to service its debt

A

Structural subordination

103
Q

Parent company debt is effectively subordinate (lesser in rank) to the subsidiary’s debt

A

Structural subordination

104
Q

Yield volatility is combined with duration to estimate the:

A

price risk of a bond

105
Q

The components of credit risk are:

A
  1. default probability
  2. loss severity

Credit risk= probability of default & recovery rate

106
Q

calculated with the probability of default (estimated from the bond rating) and the estimated recovery value should the bond default

A

Credit risk

107
Q

rating reflects the borrower’s overall creditworthiness

A

An issuer credit

108
Q

As the credit cycle improves, the credit spread will:

A

narrow

109
Q

As economy strengthens and metrics improve, the credit spread will:

A

narrow;
making corporate bonds a good investment, since their prices increase compared to Treasuries

110
Q

= real risk free interest rate
+ expected inflation rate
+ maturity premium
+ yield spread (liquidity premium + credit spread)

A

yield on an option free corporate bond

111
Q

In times of high demand for bonds, credit spread:

A

narrows

In periods of high demand, bond prices will increase and yields will decrease

Consequently, yield spreads (the difference in yield between a corporate bond and default-free bond) will tighten (narrow)

112
Q

covenant protects lenders by limiting the amount of cash that may be paid to equity holders

A

A restricted payment covenant

113
Q

net income from operations
+depreciation/amortization
+deferred taxes
+noncash items

A

Funds from operations (FFO)

114
Q

When supply of bonds is low, credit spreads will:

A

narrow

115
Q

The possibility that the issuer will fail to meet its obligations under the indenture, for which investors demand a premium above the return on a default-risk-free security

A

Default risk

116
Q

The type of credit risk most directly reflected in a bond’s rating:

A

Default risk;
A bond’s rating indicates it’s default risk

Credit risk= probability of default & recovery rate

When estimating the credit risk of a bond, the two main factors include:
bond rating (probability of default) & Recovery rate (of the default)

117
Q

The risk that a bond will be reclassified as a riskier security by a credit rating agency

A

Downgrade risk

118
Q

The risk that the default risk premium on a bond can increase:

A

Credit spread risk

119
Q

Those whose cash flows and assets are designated to service the debt of their holding company:

A

Restricted subsidiaries

120
Q

Used to calculate duration based on the weighted average time until a bond portfolio’s cash flows are scheduled to be received, by measuring the weighted average of the durations of each bond in the portfolio

A

Cash flow yield

121
Q

A bond-equivalent yield for a money market instrument is:

A

add-on yield on a 365 day year

122
Q

Option adjusted yield is the yield for a bond with an embedded option, as if:

A

as if it were option free

what would the yield on a callable bond be, if it did not have a call option?

123
Q

The difference between the OAS and the Z-spread is the:

A

the extra yield required to compensate bondholders for the call option

**Option value **

124
Q

The OAS for a callable bond, compared to the bond’s Z-spread:

A

OAS < Z- spread

125
Q

If a zero-coupon bond is not held to maturity:

A

Capital gains can still be a component of holding period return if the bond’s YTM changed

126
Q

Modified duration:

  • Measures a bond’s:
  • A bond’s price given a:
A
  • Measures a bond’s price sensitivity to a change in YTM
  • A bond’s price given a 1% chagne in YTM

For every 1% change in yield, a bond price changes by x%

127
Q

Macaulay Duration:

Calculates the weighted average time before a bondholder would receive:

A

Calculates the weighted average time before a bondholder would receive the bond’s cash flows

128
Q

This type of bond will have a coupon rate that moves opposite to any move in the reference rate :

coupon = 12% − (3.0 × 6-month Treasury bill rate)

A

Inverse floater (leveraged instrument)

129
Q

Legal corporation used to seperate assets used as collateral from those of the company seeking financing through an ABS:

A

Special purpose entity (SPE)

Sells the assets used as collateral in an ABS

130
Q

Credit rating agency assigns different ratings to different debt issues from the same issuer:

A

notching

131
Q

For a domestic investor purchasing bonds in a foreign market and currency, the appreciation of both the asset & foreign currency benefits:

A

The domestic investor

132
Q
  1. capacity
  2. collateral
  3. covenants
  4. character
A

4 C’s of Credit Anlaysis

133
Q

Method of estimating the required YTM (or price) of bonds that are not currently traded or infrequently traded:

A

Matrix pricing

134
Q

G-spreads

  • Represents the difference between _ and _ bonds, with the same maturity
  • Shows the:
A
  • Shows the difference between Treasury bond yields and corporate bond yields with the same maturity
  • Shows the default risk, since treasury bonds have zero default risk

G-spread= YTM corporate bond - YTM treasury bond

135
Q

The default risk of a Treasury bond is:

A

0

136
Q

The G-spread is higher for:

A

bearing higher credit & liquidity risks, relative to the government bond

137
Q

The yield spread in basis points over an interpolated government bond:

A

G-spread

138
Q

G & I Spreads are only theoretically correct when :

A

The spot yield curve is flat, so that yields are approximately the same across maturities

However, the spot yield curve is usually upward sloping

139
Q

The option adjusted spread shows the spread:

A

with the option effect removed

140
Q

OAS is the spread to the government spot rate curve that the bond would have if:

A

The spread if the bond were option free

141
Q

The option adjusted spread removes the option yield component out of the:

A

option yield is removed from the **Z-spread **

142
Q

Option adjusted spread is added to the:

A

added to the fixed-income security price to make the risk-free bond price the same as the bond.

143
Q
  • The potential for investment losses that can be triggered by a move upward in the prevailing rates for new debt instruments:
  • When interest rates increase, the value of a bond in the secondary market will:
  • The change in a bond’s price given a change in interest rates is known as its:
A
  • Interest rate risk is the potential for investment losses that can be triggered by a move upward in the prevailing rates for new debt instruments
  • If interest rates rise, for instance, the value of a bond or other fixed-income investment in the secondary market will decline
  • The change in a bond’s price given a change in interest rates is known as its duration
144
Q

Interest rate risk has two components from YTM changes:

A
  1. Reinvestment risk
  2. Market price risk
145
Q

An investor is hedged against interest rate risk if the duration gap:

A

Duration gap = 0

Time horizon = Macaulay duration

146
Q

The time horizon at which market price risk and reinvestment risk just offset:

A

Macaulay Duration

147
Q

Can a lower- duration bond have more price volatility than the higher-duration bond?

A

Yes, because shifts in the yield curve may be non-parallel

148
Q

A nonrecourse loan will have a higher:

A

Interest rate

Greater risk to the lender = higher interest rate

In the event of default, the lender has a claim only to the collateral of the loan, and if that is not enough, the lender cannot come after the borrower for more money

149
Q

The convexity of a putable bond is always:

A

Positive

150
Q

Convexity of callable bonds is:

A

Negative

151
Q

A synthetic collateralized debt obligation is backed by a portfolio of:

A

Credit default swaps

152
Q

An estimated price change for a bond given a shift in its benchmark yield curve

A

Effective duration

153
Q

An upward-sloping term structure of yield volatility most likely indicates greater volatility in:

A

A downward-sloping term structure of yield volatility most likely indicates greater volatility in long-term bond YTM, than in short-term bond yields to maturity.

154
Q

As an issuer’s size increases, the yield spread on a corporate bond will:

A

Narrow

liquidity risk is affected by the size and credit quality of the issuer, if an issuer’s size is increasing, they are said to have better credit quality and less liquidity risk, narrowing the yield spread

155
Q

The interest earned from the previous coupon, to the sale date:

A

Accrued interest

156
Q

A limitation of calculating a bond’s portfolio as the weighted average of the yield durations of the individual bonds:

A

Assumes parallel shifts in the yield curve, which is not the reality

When a yield curve is less steeply sloped (flatter) this is more accurate

157
Q

Revolving credit is usually only available to:

A

Large corporations with high credit ratings

Similarly to CP

158
Q

Modified duration is always lower than:

A

Macaulay duration

159
Q

The difference between the OAS and the Z-spread is the:

A

the extra yield required to compensate bondholders for the call option

**Option value **

OAS = Z- spread - option value

160
Q

A source of short term financing for smaller firms with lower credit ratings:

A

Nonbank finance companies

161
Q

Which type of MBS is most likely to feature credit tranching?

A

CMBS

162
Q

Subordinated tranches are the first to absorb credit losses:

A

Credit tranching

163
Q

Trading bonds on a when-issued basis; bond that have not been issued yet occurs in which market?

A

Grey market

164
Q

Forward yield curves are composed for forward rates of:

A

with the same length, starting at different periods

1y1y; 2y1y

165
Q

If a specified event occurs, contingent convertible bonds will:

A

automatically covert to equity

166
Q

CMOs with agency RMBS are created to reapportion:

A

Prepayment risk: extension and contraction risk