FL Exam #1

Question 1

What is the product of the reaction of Compound 1 (shown below) with HBr by an S_N2 reaction?

A. (R)-1-bromo-1-deuteriohexane

B. (S)-1-bromo-1-deuteriohexane

C. (S)-1-bromo-1-deuteriopentane

D. (R)-1-bromo-1-deuteriopentane

Answer 1

The answer to this question is C.

The incoming nucleophile displaces the leaving group from the opposite side of the reacting center during an SN2 reaction.

Question 2

Compared to micellular Compound 1, Compound 2 is structurally more rigid as a result of what type of interaction?

A. Intermolecular hydrogen bonding

B. Intermolecular covalent bonding

C. Intramolecular hydrogen bonding

D. Intramolecular covalent bonding

Answer 2

The answer to this question is B.

Multiple molecules of micellular Compound 1 come together to form Compound 2, which is a solid. The interaction is disulfide bond formation.

Question 3

Compound 1 contained five regions: (1) a hydrophobic region, (2) residues that could be cross-linked for additional structural integrity, (3) spacer residues, (4) a residue that was phosphorylated for future attachment of nanocrystals of HA, and (5) residues with an affinity for cells.

Which amino acid residues were incorporated into Compound 1 to promote the adhesion of cells on the scaffold surfaces?

A. Arg and Gly

B. Cys and Gly

C. Cys and Asp

D. Asp and Arg

Answer 3

The answer to this question is D.

Question 4

Compound 1 contained five regions: (1) a hydrophobic region, (2) residues that could be cross-linked for additional structural integrity, (3) spacer residues, (4) a residue that was phosphorylated for future attachment of nanocrystals of HA, and (5) residues with affinity for cells.

Which amino acid was incorporated into Compound 1 as a future site of covalent attachment to HA prior to mineralization?

A. Ser

B. Ala

C. Tyr

D. Thr

Answer 4

The answer to this question is A.

Question 5

Rhodopsin is composed of opsin, a family of seven-helix transmembrane proteins, and a covalently attached coenzyme, retinal. Rhodopsin has a maximum absorption at 500 nm. Additional opsin-based receptors are expressed in specialized cone cells and have maximum absorptions at 420 nm, 530 nm, and 560 nm when reconstituted with 11-cis-retinal.

The production of a variety of opsins functions to:

A. increase sensitivity to low light.

B. enable the detection of different colors.

C. ensure fast recovery of 11-cis-retinal after exposure.

D. increase refractive index of the eye lens.

Answer 5

The answer to this question is B.

The wavelength of light absorbed by a molecule depends on its structure, and so the production of a variety of structurally related opsins functions to enable the detection of different colors.

Question 6

Gamma decay occurs when a nucleus emits:

A. a photon.

B. a proton.

C. a neutron.

D. an electron.

Answer 6

The answer to this question is A.

By definition, gamma decay means the emission of photons by the nucleus.

Question 7

When a strip of Zn is placed in a beaker containing 0.1 M HCl, H₂(g) evolves. If a strip of Al is placed in a beaker containing 0.1 M HCl, does H₂(g) evolve?

Chart: a new solid forms when Al(s) is mixed with Zn²⁺(aq).

A. Yes; Al is reduced and H+(aq) is oxidized.

B. Yes; Al is oxidized and H+(aq) is reduced.

C. No; Al is reduced and Cl-(aq) is oxidized

D. No; Al is oxidized and H2O(l) is produced.

Answer 7

The answer to this question is B.

Question 8

Assume that a circuit similar to that in Figure 2 is set up in which X = Al, Xⁿ⁺ = Al³⁺, Y = Cu, and Y^m+ = Cu²⁺. Which of the following reactions will occur?

Chart data:

• Cu(s) + Al³⁺(aq) => no change
• Al(s) + Cu²⁺(aq) => new solid

A. 2Al³⁺(aq) + 3Cu(s) → 2Al(s) + 3Cu²⁺(aq)

B. 3Al³⁺(aq) + 2Cu(s) → 3Al(s) + 2Cu²⁺(aq)

C. 2Al(s) + 3Cu²⁺(aq) → 2Al³⁺(aq) + 3Cu(s)

D. 3Al(s) + 2Cu²⁺(aq) → 3Al³⁺(aq) + 2Cu(s)

Answer 8

The answer to this question is C.

Question 9

A circuit similar to that in Figure 2 is set up in which X = Pb, Xⁿ⁺ = Pb²⁺, Y = Cu, and Y^m+ = Cu²⁺. Will an oxidation–reduction reaction occur spontaneously?

Chart data:

• Pb(s) + Cu²⁺(aq) => new solid
• Cu(s) + Pb²⁺(aq) => no change

Pb²⁺(aq) + 2e^– → Pb(s) E°_red = –0.127 V

Reaction 1

Cu²⁺(aq) + 2e^– → Cu(s) E°_red = +0.339 V

Reaction 2

A. No; E°cell = –0.212.

B. No; E°cell = +0.212.

C. Yes; E°cell = –0.466.

D. Yes; E°cell = +0.466.

Answer 9

The answer to this question is D.

A spontaneous reaction occurs when E° is greater than zero, and this occurs if the oxidation of Pb(s) is combined with the reduction of Cu²⁺(aq), resulting in a net E° of +0.466 V.

Question 10

People with MSI CRC have HSP110ΔE9 transcripts in cancerous tissue only.

A man with a CRC mutation that results in the synthesis of HSP110ΔE9 and a woman that does not carry this mutation in any of her tissues have a child. What is the percent chance that the child will inherit the CRC mutation?

A. 0%

B. 25%

C. 50%

D. 100%

Answer 10

The answer to this question is A.

According to the passage, HSP110ΔE9 transcripts are not present in noncancerous tissue of people with MSI CRC.

This means that the deletion mutation in the HSP110 T17 microsatellite is a somatic, not germline, mutation.

Therefore, the mutation will not be inherited, and the percent chance that the child of a person with this mutation will inherit it is 0%.

Question 11

Which nucleotide pairing(s) would be recognized by the MMR system during DNA replication?

I. dTMP and dCMP

II. dGMP and dAMP

III. dAMP and dTMP

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. I, II, and III

Answer 11

The answer to this question is C.

The MMR system recognizes and repairs nucleotide mismatches during DNA replication.

The nucleotide pairs dTMP and dCMP (I) and dGMP and dAMP (II) are mismatches.

dAMP and dTMP (III) is a correct pairing.

Question 12

Enzymes alter the rate of chemical reactions by all of the following methods EXCEPT:

A. co-localizing substrates.

B. altering local pH.

C. altering substrate shape.

D. altering substrate primary structure.

Answer 12

The answer to this question is D.

The primary structure of a protein substrate is the amino acid sequence of the protein.

Question 13

Membrane-bound heme protein known as cytochrome P-450 (cP-450) catalyzes the metabolism of many lipid-soluble toxins.

cP-450 is inducible. That is, when an organism is challenged by a new toxin or by increased concentrations of a toxin, the organism can increase its concentration of cP-450 and thus metabolize and excrete the toxin more effectively.

Although cP-450 usually metabolizes barbiturates, alcohol acts as a competitive inhibitor of barbiturate metabolism.

A chronic alcoholic died of a barbiturate overdose. No drowsiness was initially felt by the alcoholic because the previous abuse of alcohol had:

A. denatured the cP-450.

B. inhibited the cP-450.

C. reduced the cP-450.

D. induced the cP-450.

Answer 13

The answer to this question is D.

The passage states that cP-450 is inducible and thus previous abuse of alcohol, a cellular toxin, results in an increased concentration of cP-450.

This leads to rapid barbiturate metabolism by cP-450 and the absence of initial drowsiness.

Question 14

A student hypothesized that endothelial cell growth might be affected by the DNA from circulating erythrocytes. Is this student’s hypothesis reasonable?

A. No; the DNA in circulating erythrocytes is needed to help transport O2 through the capillaries.

B. No; circulating erythrocytes do not contain DNA.

C. Yes; DNA is responsible for cell division in most cells.

D. Yes; circulating erythrocytes carry DNA nutrients through the capillaries.

Answer 14

The answer to this question is B.

Mammalian erythrocytes (red blood cells) lose their nuclei during maturation.

Therefore, circulating erythrocytes do not contain DNA that could affect endothelial cell growth.

Question 15

Aldosterone, the primary mineralocorticoid, maintains ionic balance by causing conservation of Na⁺ and excretion of K⁺.

The aldosterone deficiency associated with Addison’s disease will cause a decrease in the serum levels of all of the following ions EXCEPT:

A. Na+ ions.

B. Cl– ions.

C. K+ ions.

D. HCO3– ions.

Answer 15

The answer to this question is C.

The passage states that aldosterone causes excretion of K⁺. Therefore, aldosterone deficiency will not lead to a decrease in serum levels of K⁺ ions.

Question 16

Addison’s disease occurs when cells of the adrenal cortex are destroyed, leaving the gland unable to secrete either glucocorticoids or mineralocorticoids.

Normally, a hypothalamic factor stimulates the release of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) from the pituitary gland. In a patient with Addison’s disease, the secretion of the hypothalamic factor will:

A. be lower than normal.

B. be higher than normal.

C. be unchanged.

D. increase before disease onset and decrease thereafter.

Answer 16

The answer to this question is B.

As part of a hormone cascade pathway, ACTH secretion is expected to be higher than normal in a patient with Addison’s disease to attempt to stimulate the adrenal cortex.

Question 17

During the production of insulin, the translated polypeptide is cleaved into the mature form and secreted from the cell. The cleavage most likely takes place in which of the following locations?

A. Nucleus

B. Ribosomes

C. Endomembrane system

D. Cytoplasm

Answer 17

The answer to this question is C.

Secreted proteins such as insulin are cleaved into their mature form within the endomembrane system.

Question 18

A 40-year-old patient developed a constant thirst and a frequent need to urinate. The attending physician suspected the patient had diabetes.

In diabetes, the ability of many types of cells to take up glucose is compromised, leading to elevated blood glucose levels. Many tissues then metabolize fatty acids as an alternative energy source, which can lead to metabolic acidosis, a condition of low blood pH. Diabetes can also cause protein degradation, resulting in the release of excess amino acids that can be used as substrates for gluconeogenesis, which further increases blood glucose levels.

Based on the passage, which of the following is LEAST likely to be a symptom of diabetes mellitus?

A. Loss of appetite

B. Sweet-tasting urine

C. Unexplained weight loss

D. Feelings of fatigue

Answer 18

The answer to this question is A.

Because based on the passage, the symptoms of diabetes mellitus are frequent urination and catabolism of fatty acid as well as proteins as alternative energy sources.

In diabetic patients, high blood glucose results in excretion of excess sugar into the urine, hence sweet-tasting urine.

Similarly, the catabolism of fatty acids and proteins results in weight loss and feelings of fatigue respectively.

This leaves loss of appetite as the only correct answer.

Question 19

Assume that K and M are two unlinked genes that affect hearing. The dominant K allele is necessary for hearing, and the dominant M allele causes deafness regardless of the other genes present. Given this, what fraction of the offspring of parents with the genotypes KkMm and Kkmm will most likely be deaf?

A. 1/4

B. 3/8

C. 1/2

D. 5/8

Answer 19

The answer to this question is D.

Among the offspring of KkMm and Kkmm parents, the ones who lack a dominant K allele (necessary for hearing), or carry a dominant M allele (causes deafness) are deaf.

Question 20

Patient 2: I am terrified of having a panic attack at a meeting. I dread the thought of others noticing how nervous I am. I’m worried that others will think I am weird. I don’t go to meetings anymore.

For Patient 2, panic attacks act as:

A. discriminatory stimuli.

B. signaling stimuli.

C. positive punishers.

D. negative punishers.

Answer 20

The answer to this question is C.

The frequency of the patient’s attendance at meetings has decreased as the result of the panic attacks.

Therefore, the panic attacks have been positive punishers.

Question 21

Patients with high interoceptive awareness are likely to associate mild changes in bodily sensations (such as slightly heightened heartbeat) with the panic they experienced during panic attacks; this leads to conditioned fear in response to changes in bodily sensations (Maintenance Factor 1).

Data on the role of Maintenance Factor 1 on PD is LEAST likely to come from which type of research?

A. Correlational studies

B. Case studies

C. Longitudinal studies

D. Experimental studies

Answer 21

The answer to this question is D.

The primary obstacle to using experimental methods in such studies is the difficulty of systematically manipulating participants’ physiological states and their sensitivity to changes in those states.

Question 22

Study 1 was designed to investigate the math performance of Asian American women, who have two conflicting stereotypes associated with their identity.

Which explanation of the results of Study 1 presents the most appropriate application of the optimal arousal theory? Reminding participants of:

A. their membership in a stereotyped group leads to optimal arousal, which results in varying levels of performance depending on ability.

B. their membership in a stereotyped group leads to fluctuating arousal and results in poor performance.

C. a negative stereotype associated with their identity increases arousal beyond what is optimal and leads to poor performance.

D. a positive stereotype associated with them eliminates arousal completely, which results in optimal performance.

Answer 22

The answer to this question is C.

Optimal arousal theory states that optimal performance requires optimal arousal and that arousal levels that are too high or too low will impede performance.

Option C is compatible with this theory because it suggests that poor performance is a consequence of increased arousal levels resulting from negative stereotype activation.

Question 23

Study 2 was designed to test the hypothesis that synchronous actions make participants more prone to comply when prompted to engage in aggression. The results supported the researchers’ hypothesis.

Which conclusion is best supported by the outcome of Study 2?

A. Synchronous activity increases group polarization.

B. Synchronous activity increases conformity.

C. Asynchronous activity increases cognitive dissonance.

D. Asynchronous activity increases social loafing.

Answer 23

The answer to this question is B.

Question 24

Participants in a weight-loss program agree to have their body mass index (BMI) measured to track their progress in the program. Among a sample of 72 participants, the mean BMI is 30 and the median BMI is 25. Which statement provides an accurate description of the sample?

A. More participants had a BMI over 25 than a BMI under 25.

B. The majority of participants had a BMI between 25 and 30.

C. Half of the participants had a BMI over 25 and half had a BMI under 25.

D. More outliers among the participants had a BMI under 25 than a BMI over 30.

Answer 24

The answer to this question is option C.

The median splits the sample distribution of values in half.

Thus, a median of 25 can be described as half the sample having a BMI over 25 and half having a BMI under 25.

Question 25

A study was designed to examine the role of peer pressure on risky behaviors across different age groups. The measures were a decision-making questionnaire (DMQ) and a computer game (CG). For both the DMQ and the CG, higher scores indicated riskier behavior. Which finding would support the validity of the DMQ measure? A. A positive correlation between the DMQ scores and the CG scores B. A negative correlation between the DMQ scores and the CG scores C. A positive correlation between participants' scores on two different administrations of the DMQ D. A negative correlation between participants' scores on two different administrations of the DMQ

Answer 25

The answer to this question is **A.** A valid measure is one that actually measures what it is intended to assess. Because both the DMQ (a self-report measure) and the CG (a behavioral measure) were intended to assess risky behavior, a positive correlation between the two measures would support the validity of the DMQ measure.

Question 26

A researcher wants to gain insight into how a social movement organization presents its beliefs to the general public in an effort to attract new members. Which methodological approach would be most appropriate for this study? A. Observing meetings about the organization’s marketing budget B. Conducting a content analysis of the organization’s website C. Surveying organization members about their beliefs D. Randomly sampling the general population about social movement organizations

Answer 26

The answer to this question is B. Content analysis is a sociological method that is used to make inferences about communication. As applied to studying a website, content analysis could help determine which beliefs the organization publically emphasizes. In contrast, the methods in the other response options would not specifically generate data about the public presentation of beliefs.

Question 27

Research findings indicate higher levels of patient trust and physician attention in race-concordant physician-patient relationships because: A. both the physician and patient belong to the same in-group. B. the physician and patient share similar levels of status. C. of racial hostility present in race-discordant relationships. D. of the lack of role strain experienced by the physician.

Answer 27

The correct answer is **A.** Members of in-groups share common backgrounds and similar identities, which generally result in high levels of trust among in-group members. Racial/ethnic identity can be an important characteristic of an in-group, resting in a shared culture, language, or community.

Question 28

The research has a statistical analysis of the total discrimination claims and an in-depth analysis of a subset of the cases. The research in the passage is best described as a: A. qualitative study. B. quantitative study. C. mixed-methods study. D. case study.

Answer 28

The correct answer is **C.** Bringing together quantitative methods and qualitative methods is referred to as mixed methods in sociology.

Question 29

Which research methodology involves the extended, systematic observation of a complete social environment? A. Comparative methods B. Ethnographic methods C. Experimental methods D. Survey methods

Answer 29

The answer to this question is **B.** Ethnographic methods are accurately described in the question as involving systematic observation of a complete social environment.