Sample Test Flashcards

(23 cards)

1
Q

One of the main side effects of prolonged use of Compound 1 is the formation of kidney stones composed of calcium oxalate CaC2O4.

Why do kidney stones form in some individuals treated with Compound 1?

A. [Ca2+] + [C2O42-] > Ksp

B. [Ca2+][C2O42-] > Ksp

C. [Ca2+] + [C2O42-] < Ksp

D. [Ca2+][C2O42-] < Ksp

A

The answer to this question is B.

Calcium oxalate precipitates when [Ca2+][C2O42-] exceeds the solubility product constant Ksp.

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2
Q

A nerve conduction velocity test (NCV) exploits the electrical properties of neurons to test for nerve damage. In this test, two electrodes are placed on a patient’s body, with an electrical shock placed on one and the nerve response measured on the other. The pulse travels at a constant speed of 100 m/s.

What is the closest distance the electrodes used in an NCV test can be placed on a nerve in order to measure the voltage change as a response to the stimulus?

A. 0.01 m

B. 0.1 m

C. 1.0 m

D. 10 m

A

The answer to this question is B.

The shortest time duration that can be detected is not less than the action potential time response of 1 msec. The distance traveled by the impulse during this time is 1 msec × 100 m/s = 0.1 m, which is the closest distance the electrodes must be placed on the nerve.

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3
Q

2HCl(aq) + Mg(s) → MgCl2(aq) + H2(g)

Reaction 1

What type of reaction is Reaction 1?

A. Oxidation/reduction

B. Lewis acid/Lewis base

C. Double replacement

D. Ionization

A

The answer to this question is A.

Atoms involved in Reaction 1 change oxidation states during the reaction. Mg changes from an oxidation state of 0 to +2 in converting from elemental Mg to MgCl2.

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4
Q

Suppose that at the end of a reaction, the level of the aqueous solution was 26 cm higher inside the buret than outside. Compared to ambient pressure, the pressure of the gas inside the buret would be:

A. lower.

B. the same.

C. 2 times greater.

D. 26 times greater.

A

The answer to this question is A.

The level of the liquid inside is higher than outside because the air pressure outside is higher than the pressure inside. Pressure on the outside raises the liquid level until the inside air pressure plus liquid pressure equals the outside air pressure (attains equilibrium).

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5
Q

The principal quantum number is a measure of which of the following?

A. Approximate radial size of an electron cloud

B. Approximate shape of an electron cloud

C. Number of valence electrons that orbit a nucleus

D. Number of protons and neutrons found in the nucleus of an atom

A

The answer to this question is A.

The principal quantum number n is most associated with the potential energy of the electron. Potential energy is proportional to the square of the distance of two oppositely charged particles. So n is also associated with the radial “size” of the electron cloud.

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6
Q

The density of a human body can be calculated from its weight in the air, Wair, and its weight while submerged in water, Ww. The density of a human body is proportional to:

A. Wair/(Wair – Ww).

B. (Wair – Ww)/Wair.

C. (Wair – Ww)/Ww.

D. Ww/(Wair – Ww).

A

The answer to this question is A.

According to Archimedes’ Principle,

the ratio of the density of an object to the density of the fluid it is submerged = the ratio of the weight of the object in the air to the difference of submerged weight and weight in the air.

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7
Q

What are the components that comprise Coenzyme A?

A. β-Mercaptoethylamine, phosphopantothenate, dAMP with additional 3′–phosphate

B. β-Mercaptopropylamine, pantothenate, AMP with additional 5′–phosphate

C. β-Mercaptopropylamine, phosphopantothenate, dAMP with additional 5′–phosphate

D. β-Mercaptoethylamine, pantothenate, ADP with additional 3′–phosphate

A

The answer is D.

When identifying components in the product, it is not necessary to account for the pathway.

Pantothenate and ADP account for both phosphate groups linking the nucleoside and the pantothenate. The third phosphate is correctly designated as attached to the 3′ carbon of ribose.

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8
Q

The advantage of the Doppler ultrasound technique over the standard ultrasound technique is that it also allows:

A. distinguishing between fluids and tissue.

B. measuring the blood flow.

C. measuring the tissue density.

D. measuring the heart wall thickness.

A

The answer to this question is B.

Doppler ultrasound takes advantage of the Doppler Effect in which a sound wave emitted by, or reflected from a moving object, will change its frequency based on the relative speed of the object, in this case, the flow of blood in a vessel.

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9
Q

What is the work done by the patient during a 3-minute exercise on the bicycle with a load of 30 W?

A. 5400 J

B. 90 J

C. 6 J

D. 0.16 J

A

The answer to this question is A.

Power (P) = W/t.

Load P = 30 W and time t = 3 min, leads to W = 5400 J.

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10
Q

An object with a mass of 0.1 kg absorbs 250 J of heat while changing temperature from 20°C to 25°C. What is the specific heat of the object?

A. 125 J/(kg·°C)

B. 250 J/(kg·°C)

C. 375 J/(kg·°C)

D. 500 J/(kg·°C)

A

The answer to this question is D.

(250 J/(0.1 kg·5°C) = 500 J/(kg·°C)

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11
Q

ADP-ribosylation factor I (Arf1) plays an essential role in vesicle formation and is responsible for the recruitment of cytosolic coat protein complexes (COPs) and subsequent retrograde transport from the Golgi apparatus.

Proteins that are encapsulated in Arf1-COP derived vesicles are bound for the:

A. endoplasmic reticulum.

B. cellular membrane.

C. nucleus.

D. cytosol.

A

The answer to this question is A.

Protein translation principally occurs in the endoplasmic reticulum (ER). The proteins are then transported to the Golgi apparatus for post-translational modification, processing, and packaging for proper localization.

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12
Q

The scientist wanted to use mouse antibody B clinically (to treat humans), but this proposal was rejected. Which of the following is the most logical reason for the rejection?

A. Because the antibody was generated in the mouse, it can never be used in humans.

B. Because the antibody was generated in the mouse, repeated usage in the same patient would elicit the production of human anti-mouse antibodies.

C. Because the antibody was generated in the mouse, it will not recognize human antigens.

D. Because the antibody was generated in the mouse, it can only be used in vitro.

A

The answer to this question is B.

The human immune system will recognize the mouse antibody as a foreign substance (antigen) and generate an immune response towards it (generate antibodies against the mouse antibody).

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13
Q

The modified nucleotide ms2t6A (in the figure) is a derivative of which amino acid?

A. Tyrosine

B. Threonine

C. Lysine

D. Tryptophan

A

The answer to this question is B.

The structure of ms2t6A includes the amino acid threonine and the purine adenine.

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14
Q

Which feature of the kinetics of L-alanine transport would provide evidence that DOM (dissolved organic matter) is an important source of nutrients under low-food conditions?

A. High-affinity transport (Kt) of L-alanine

B. Low-affinity transport (Kt) of L-alanine

C. High transport capacity (Jmax) of L-alanine

D. Low transport capacity (Jmax) of L-alanine

A

The answer to this question is A.

Under low-food conditions, the capacity of transport is irrelevant as no transporters are saturated with L-alanine. However, the transporter’s affinity for L-alanine would be important as only high-affinity transporters would be able to facilitate L-alanine uptake at low concentrations.

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15
Q

Which amino acid is neutral, but zwitterionic at pH 7, despite possessing two nitrogen atoms in its formula?

A. Gln

B. Lys

C. Tyr

D. Arg

A

The answer to this question is A.

The amino acids asparagine, glutamine, and tryptophan contain two nitrogen atoms.

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16
Q

O2 dissociates more readily from Hb in an acidic environment. This dissociation will, therefore, occur most readily when the PCO2 is:

A. high, because Equation 1 will proceed to the right.

B. high, because Equation 1 will proceed to the left.

C. low, because Equation 1 will proceed to the right.

D. low, because Equation 1 will proceed to the left.

A

The answer to this question is A.

Increasing the concentration of carbon dioxide will result in higher levels of H+ based on LeChâtlier’s Principle.

17
Q

A novel compound was developed which occupies the site on STx where GPP130 binds the toxin (Kd of 25 mM). A drug with which value of Kd for binding to STx is most effective?

A. 0.25 mM

B. 2.5 mM

C. 25 mM

D. 250 mM

A

The answer to this question is A.

The lower the Kd of the drug, the more effective it will be at inhibiting the interaction between STx and GPP130 because it will bind to STx instead of STx binding to GPP130.

18
Q

In humans, the lining of which structure is NOT primarily derived from the endoderm?

A. Mouth

B. Bronchi

C. Bladder

D. Stomach

A

The answer to this question is A.

Most of the lining of the mouth is derived from an invagination of ectoderm.

19
Q

Which conclusion can be drawn from the figure based on the recall pattern of participants without memory impairments?

A. Short term memory is the activated part of sensory memory.

B. Short term memory is the activated part of long term memory.

C. Short term memory and long term memory are uniform and function similarly.

D. Short term memory and long term memory represent separate memory systems.

A

The correct answer is D.

There is a clear separation between the primacy and recency effects in the figure. These data support the idea that STM and LTM are separate systems.

20
Q

Which piece of information from the passage is LEAST relevant for determining the possible influence of confirmation bias on child abuse diagnosis?

A. Parental concealment of child abuse from physicians

B. Physician attention to evidence of child abuse

C. Challenges posed by interpreting child abuse symptoms

D. Emotional sensitivities around child abuse as a subject

A

The correct answer is A.

Parental concealment is a social interaction rather than a cognitive processing factor that has been associated with confirmation bias.

21
Q

The two age groups that participated in Study 1 (5–6 year-olds and 8–9 year-olds) are most likely to perform differently in which task developed by Piaget?

A. Looking for an object that the researcher hides from the participant’s sight

B. Using accommodation to acquire knowledge about novel experiences

C. Deciding whether a given quantity of a liquid changes if it is poured from a narrow container to a wide container

D. Reasoning about how the end result of a story might have changed if the main character had acted differently

A

The correct answer is C.

The 5-to-6-year-olds are in the preoperational period. Children have typically mastered concepts of conservation.

The 8-to-9-year-olds are in the concrete operational period.

Both groups will have mastered A (object permanence) and B. D requires hypothetical reasoning, which neither group has mastered yet.

22
Q

According to Mead, the spontaneous and autonomous part of our unified self is the:

A. id.

B. ego.

C. I.

D. me.

A

The correct answer is C.

The “I” is the spontaneous and autonomous part of the self.

The “me” is the part of the self that is formed in interaction with others and with the general social environment.

23
Q

Which statement about technology is most consistent with social constructionism?

A. Technology is the predictable application of knowledge.

B. Technology is built from the collective effort of innovators.

C. Technology is a human response to environmental pressures.

D. Technology is embedded with the values of groups who create it.

A

The correct answer is D.

The statement implies that technology is the product of groups/ individuals rather than of natural processes; a social creation, which is consistent with social constructionism.