FLIGHT CONTROLS Flashcards

1
Q
  1. The columns and control wheels are connected through jam override mechanisms. If a jam occurs in a column or wheel, how can the pilots maintain control?
A
  1. Applying force to the other column or wheel to overcome the jam.
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2
Q
  1. Asymmetrical spoilers assist in roll control while symmetrical spoilers are used as ________.
A
  1. Speed brakes.
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3
Q
  1. Which flight control mode(s) is/are represented by the following signal sequence:
    Pilot inputs → ACEs → PFCs → ACEs → Control Surfaces?
A
  1. Normal and Secondary.
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4
Q
  1. PFCs change airplane pitch based on pilot control column or autopilot commands and airspeed. For what do PFCs automatically enhanced handling qualities?
A
  1. Flap, slat and speed break position, air data, inertial data, engine thrust, and radio altitude Gear configuration, turns up to 30 degrees bank
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5
Q
  1. When must the pilot make control column inputs or trim changes to maintain a constant flight path?
A
  1. Airspeed changes - not necessary for configuration changes.
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6
Q
  1. In flight, the pitch trim switches do not position the stabilizer directly, but make inputs to the PFCs to change ______.
A
  1. Trim Reference Speed.
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7
Q
  1. Alternate pitch trim is controlled by the dual alternate pitch trim levers on the aisle stand. What does moving both do?
A
  1. Changes the trim reference speed (normal mode) and Directly moves the stabilizer (all modes)
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8
Q
  1. When is hydraulic power to the STCM automatically shut off?
A
  1. When uncommanded motion is sensed.
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9
Q
  1. The stabilizer trim indicators display the takeoff green band indication calculated by pilot CDU inputs of CG, gross weight, takeoff thrust and V1. What three green band segments can be illuminated for takeoff?
A

9.
Midband
Nose down band (added forward of midband)
Nose up band (added forward of midband)

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10
Q
  1. Automatic auto throttle engagement (autothrottle wake up) can occur in all flight control modes but will not be supported under which pitch modes or flight conditions?
A

10.
Pitch mode is FLCH or TO/GA.
Airplane below 400 feet AFE on takeoff.
Airplane below 100 feet RA on approach.
During a descent in VNAV SPD, the autothrottle may be in HOLD and will not support stall protection

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11
Q
  1. The autothrottle can support stall protection if armed and not engaged. If speed decreases to near stick shaker activation, the autothrottle engages in the SPD and THR REF mode and advances thrust to maintain _______.
A
  1. Minimum maneuvering speed or the speed set in the MCP speed window, whichever is greater.
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12
Q
  1. Pitch Envelope Protection functions do not reduce the pilot’s authority. What do these functions consist of?
A

12.
Stall protection.
Overspeed protection.

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13
Q
  1. All three hydraulic systems supply the spoilers. Each hydraulic system is dedicated to a different set of spoiler pairs to provide what?
A
  1. To provide isolation and maintain symmetric operation in the even of hydraulic system failure.
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14
Q
  1. The wheel-to-rudder cross-tie system operates in flight below 210 knots in the Normal mode. What does wheel-to-rudder cross-tie permit?
A
  1. Allows control wheel input to deflect the rudder up to 8 degrees.
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15
Q
  1. When will TAC automatically disengage?
A
  1. When engine thrust data is lost. May also disengage following a severe engine damage or surge.
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16
Q
  1. Pilot inputs → ACEs → Control Surfaces is the signal sequence for the Direct Flight Control Mode. The aircraft can enter the Direct Mode as a result of _______.
A
  1. The ACE’s automatically transition to the direct mode when they detect a Failure of all three PFCs or lose communication with the PFC
    Manually by placing the PRIMARY FLIGHT COMPUTERS switch to DISC
17
Q
  1. In what flight control mode(s) are the following not available: automatic pitch compensation for thrust changes, gear configuration changes, turbulence, flap changes, speed brake configuration changes, and turns?
A
  1. Secondary and Direct flight control modes do not provide automatic pitch compensation.
18
Q
  1. In Secondary and Direct flight control modes, the elevator feel system provides two force levels that change with ________.
A
  1. Flap position
19
Q
  1. In the Secondary and Direct flight control modes, spoilers _______ are locked out as speed brakes.
A
  1. 4, 5, 10 and 11
20
Q
  1. To protect against inadvertent deployment during cruise, when is flap and slat extension from the UP position inhibited?
A
  1. At speeds greater than 250 knots (200A), 265 knots (200B/C), 275 knots (322), and at altitudes above approximately 20,000 feet
21
Q
  1. In the primary flap mode, the flap load relief system protects the flap from air load damage. If placarded flap airspeed limits are exceeded with the flaps in the _____ through _______ position, the flaps automatically retract to a position commensurate with airspeed.
A
  1. 15, 30
22
Q
  1. Slat load relief is available in the secondary flap mode because slats are fully extended in all flap positions in the secondary flap mode. If airspeed exceeds _____ knots (200B/C) or ______ knots (200A), or _____ knots (322), the slats retract to mid position.
A
  1. 239, 215, 256
23
Q
  1. In the secondary flap mode, the flaps and slats are positioned by electric motors, and movement is considerably slower than primary mode. Because autoslats are unavailable, the slats are _____ extended at the flaps ______ through ______ detents.
A
  1. Fully, 1, 30
24
Q
  1. The alternate flap mode must be manually selected. The alternate flap mode allows direct manual operation of the flaps and slats through the ________.
A
  1. Secondary drive electric motors.
25
Q
  1. Alternate mode flaps and slat extension is limited to slats mid and Flaps 20. What is not available in the alternate mode?
A
  1. Asymmetry protection, uncommanded motion protection, autoslats, and flap/slat load relief