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System Limitation/Knowledge > Flight Controls > Flashcards

Flight Controls Flashcards

1
Q

How many laws are there

A

3 laws

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2
Q

Who changes the law

A

It is auto reconfigured

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3
Q

What are the 2 flight control computers

A

The Primary and Secondary, or PRIMs and SECs

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4
Q

Of the 5 computers, only 1 can

A

Safely control the airplane and land

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5
Q

PRIM 1 is normally

A

The master and sends info to the other 4 computers

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6
Q

If the green hyd is lost

A

PRIM 2 replaces PRIM 1 as the master computer

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7
Q

If all PRIMs fails, the SECs

A

Control all the surfaces in direct law

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8
Q

If all PRIMs fails

A

Each SECs operates as it’s own master

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9
Q

Yaw for turn coordination is

A

Indirectly controlled by the movement of the sidestick

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10
Q

In normal law, movement of the sidestick is

A

Regarded by the PRIMs as request

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11
Q

In normal law, the rudder

A

Has no protection like the sidestick input

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12
Q

What are the only 2 flight control that can operate with a complete loss of electrical power

A

The stabilizer and the rudder

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13
Q

The rudder has

A

A BCM that is self powered

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14
Q

All flight controls are powered by

A

Hydraulic power

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15
Q

How many ailerons

A

2 per wing

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16
Q

How many spoilers

A

6 per wing

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17
Q

The outboard ailerons are

A

Faired (inhibited) aboive 190 kt

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18
Q

Spoilers 2 to 6 also functions has

A

Roll augmentation

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19
Q

Is there an aileron trim

A

No

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20
Q

How many Flight Control pb switch

A

6

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21
Q

The 3 PRIMs receive inputs from

A

The ADIRU, SFCC, FMGC, LGCIU, accelerometers and rate gyros

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22
Q

There is a mechanical THS link via

A

The trim hand wheels

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23
Q

The SECs receive inputs from

A

The ADIRU, SFCC and LGCIU

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24
Q

The SECs do not receive input from what flight control

A

The speedbrake lever

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25
Q

The SECs cannot control

A

The THS

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26
Q

The inboard ailerons configuration allows for

A

4 computers to provide controls

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27
Q

The inputs to the hydaulic motor to control the THS are provided by

A

3 electric motors, 1 master, then 2, then 3

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28
Q

The elevator jack are operated by PRIM 1, then

A

PRIM 2, then SEC 1 and then SEC 2 in that order

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29
Q

If you pitch or roll, when the sidestick is released

A

The position will be maintained

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30
Q

A re-trim is not necesary for

A

A change in airspeed

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31
Q

The normal law prevents

A

Pitch and roll to go outside the normal flight envelope

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32
Q

In flight all spoiler panel can be used as

A

Speedbrake

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33
Q

How do you arm the ground spoilers

A

By lifting the spoilers handle

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34
Q

The sidestick position indicator only appears

A

On the ground

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35
Q

On the ECAM F/CTL page, the hyd normally shows green, what is the other color

A

Amber if low pressure

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36
Q

When a faulty spoiler panel is deflected when it shoudn’t, it shows as

A

An amber arrow

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37
Q

When a faulty spoiler panel is not deflected when it shoud, it shows as

A

It’s position number in amber and underlined

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38
Q

There is __ slats and __ flaps per wing

A

7 and 2

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39
Q

There is __ SFCC each having __ channel for slats and __ channel for flaps

A

2, 1 and 1

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40
Q

What are the flaps positions

A

0, 1, 2, 3 and Full

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41
Q

How many reconfiguration laws are there, including the sub levels

A

5 reconfiguration laws

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42
Q

In Alt 1, the high speed and low energy protection are lost but replaced with

A

High/low speed stability

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43
Q

The low speed stability in Alt 1 does

A

Gently lower the nose if a low speed (5-10 kt before stall) is detected

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44
Q

The A-FLOOR feature of A/THR is ____ in Alt 1

A

Innoperative

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45
Q

The high speed stability in Alt 1 does

A

Pull the nose up to prevent an overspeed

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46
Q

Can you override the higl/low speed stability protections

A

Yes

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47
Q

Is pitch control the same in Alt 1 and Alt 2

A

Yes

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48
Q

In Alt 2, what is the normal roll rate

A

20 to 25 degrees per second

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49
Q

What spoilers are inhibited in Alt 2

A

Spoiler 2, 3 and 6

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50
Q

Does Dutch Roll damping remain available on Alt 2

A

Yes

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51
Q

In Alt 2, there is

A

No bank angle protection

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52
Q

In Alt 2, if 3 ADRs fails

A

The Alt 1 high speed stability fails

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53
Q

In Alt 2, if 2 ADRs fails

A

The Alt 1 low speed stability fails

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54
Q

In direct law, pitch and roll are

A

Directly controlled

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55
Q

In direct law, the auto trim of the THS is lost but

A

You can manually trim

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56
Q

You keep ___ and ____ in direct law

A

Stall warning and overspeed warning

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57
Q

In direct law, all protections are

A

Lost

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58
Q

If a MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY in red is displayed, it means

A

That both L and R elevator are at fault, the THS auto trim is disabled

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59
Q

When normal law is not available

A

The overspeed protection symbol (2 lines) is not displayed

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60
Q

When normal law is not available, the VàPROT and VàMAX are replaced by

A

Vsw indications

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61
Q

When bank angle protection is not available

A

The bank angle limits indicatior is replaced by an amber X

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62
Q

When Pitch Angle Protection is not available

A

The pitch angle limit indicator is replaced by an amber X

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63
Q

The two backup controls are

A

The THS and Rudder control

64
Q

The BPS is powered by

A

The Blue or Yellow hyd system

65
Q

The BCM provides

A

Direct control to the rudder and yaw damping

66
Q

Abnormal Attitude law operates when (pitch) is

A

+50 or -30

67
Q

Abnormal Attitude law operates when (bank angle) is

A

More than 125 degrees

68
Q

Abnormal Attitude law operates when (AOA) is

A

+30 or -10

69
Q

Abnormal Attitude law operates when (speed) is

A

+440 kts or below 60 kts

70
Q

Abnormal Attitude law operates when (mach) is

A

+0.96 or below 0.1

71
Q

Abnormal Attitude law, the pitch, roll and yaw are

A

Alt (but without most protections), direct and Alt

72
Q

Abnormal Attitude law, the auto trim THS is

A

Inoperative

73
Q

Abnormal Attitude law, the load protection is

A

Operative

74
Q

What are the 3 modes of normal law

A

Ground, flight and flare

75
Q

What are the 2 conditions to go from ground mode to flight mode

A

In flight with pitch attitude of more than 8 degrees, or 50ft radalt for 5 secs

76
Q

What is the condition to go from flight mode to flare mode

A

When the radalt is lower than 100ft for 2 secs

77
Q

Can the flare mode go back to flight mode, if yes then when

A

Yes (GA), and it goes back when radalt is more than 100ft for 2 secs

78
Q

The transition to ground mode takes a minimum of __ seconds

A

7

79
Q

What are the 2 conditions to go from flare mode to ground mode

A

On ground and pitch attitude is less than 2.5 degrees for 5 secs

80
Q

There is no auto trim before

A

TO

81
Q

The rotation is flown

A

In direct law with full authority

82
Q

In normal law, what is the max roll rate

A

15 degrees per seconds

83
Q

In normal law, the max bank

A

Is 67 degrees

84
Q

In normal law, there is no need for pitch correction in banks of up to

A

33 degrees

85
Q

In normal law, if the sidestick is centered when in bank of more than 33 degrees

A

The bank will roll back to 33 degrees

86
Q

The flare mode is

A

A direct stick to elevator relationship with some damping

87
Q

There is a slight pitch down elevator force at what altitude

A

50 RA

88
Q

The structural load limits in clean configuration are

A

+2.5g to -1g

89
Q

The structural load limits with slats ou are

A

+2g to 0g

90
Q

What is the pitch attitude protection indications and angle

A

2 sets of green dash at +30 and -15 degrees

91
Q

The high angle of attack protection takes priority over

A

All other types of protection

92
Q

Max bank angle during AOA protection is

A

45 degrees

93
Q

If the bank angle is above 45 degrees, the

A

AP will disconnect and FD crossbar dissapears, reapears at 40

94
Q

A-FLOOR is a feature of A/THR, it

A

Activates the A/THR (if it wasn’t) anf apply TOGA thrust that activate automatically between VàPROT and VàMAX

95
Q

A-FLOOR is also activated if

A

Nose is higher than 25 degrees (or AOA protection is active) and sidestick is deflected at more than 14 degrees

96
Q

High speed protection is activate at

A

Vmo/Mmo or above

97
Q

2 green dash are 4 kts above Vmo/Mmo, this is

A

The speed at which high speed protection activates

98
Q

At the high speed protection activation, the

A

AP disconnects and pitch trim is frozen

99
Q

At the high speed protection active, the bank angle limit is 45 degrees and if the sidestick is released

A

The bank will go back to 0 (wings level)

100
Q

The low energy warning is provided for what configuration

A

Conf 2, 3 and F, between 100 and 2000 feet RA

101
Q

The MLA activates if

A

Sidestick is pulled by more than 8 degrees and load factor is above 2g

102
Q

The MLA moves which surfaces

A

Ailerons and spoiler 4 to 6

103
Q

MLA operates only when

A

Airspeed is above 250kt, flaps at 0 and in normal or alternate law

104
Q

Turbulence damping is only active

A

Above 200kt, in normal flight envelope, with AP on or in manual control in normal law

105
Q

The PRIMs and SECs pb are

A

Off/Reset button

106
Q

The maximum deflection of the elevator is

A

+30 and -15 degrees

107
Q

The maximum deflection of the THS is

A

+14 and -2 degrees

108
Q

The elevator hyd servojacks have 3 modes

A

Active, Damping and Centering

109
Q

If all elevator jacks fails, they all operate in

A

The centering mode

110
Q

The THS is driven by a jackscrew that is driven by

A

2 hydraulic motors, that are driven by 3 electric motors

111
Q

What is the backup to the THS hydraulic motors 3 electric motors

A

Mechanically operated by the pitch trim wheel

112
Q

The mechanical backup is available as long as there is

A

Pressure in the blue or yellow hydraulic system

113
Q

After landing and nose gear touchdown, the THS is automatically set to

A

+4 degrees for the next TO

114
Q

The maximum deflection for the ailerons is

A

25 degrees

115
Q

The maximum deflection for the spoilers is

A

35 degrees

116
Q

The ailerons are powered by

A

2 hyd servojacks

117
Q

The aileron servojack have 2 modes

A

Active and damping

118
Q

If an hydraulic system fails, the associated aileron servojack operate in

A

Damping mode

119
Q

The outboard ailerons are normally faired

A

Above 190 kts, but can work to up to 300kt if Conf 0 and with AP on

120
Q

When the RAT is deployed, the outboard ailerons are operated in

A

Damping mode to reduce hydraulic consumption

121
Q

In case of spoiler fault or electrical control loss, the associated spoiler is

A

Automatically retracted

122
Q

Except for spoiler 4 anf 6, if one spoiler fails

A

The one on the other side will also retract for control symmetry

123
Q

All spoiler panels are controlled by

A

Only 1 computer, and no backup

124
Q

The sidestick do not provide

A

Feedback to the pilot

125
Q

The ‘‘Take Over Button’’ is used for

A

Disconnecting the AP or taking control from the other side

126
Q

It is possible to takeover the control by

A

Pressing and maintaining the Take Over Button while the control is desired

127
Q

If the takeover button is pressed for more than 40 sec

A

The sidestick in control latches in control (don’t need to press the button anymore)

128
Q

The spoiler panel are displayed on what ECAM page

A

F/CTL and WHEEL page

129
Q

Max deflection (for speedbrake) of spoiler 1 is __ and 2 to 6 is __

A

25 and 30 degrees

130
Q

For spoiler 2 to 6, roll augmentation has

A

Priority over speedbrake function

131
Q

If the speedbrakes are out and a inhibit occurs, the speedbrake will

A

Retract and stay retracted until the condition is resolved and the lever is back to Retract for 5 secs

132
Q

The groundspoiler auto deploy when

A

Armed and the thrust is at idle during RTO or landing

133
Q

The groundspoilers will deploy on a RTO when armed if

A

Speed was above 72 kts and, idle or reverse trhrust is selected

134
Q

Max deflection (for groundspoiler on landing) of spoiler 1 is __ and 2 to 6 is __

A

35 and 50 degrees

135
Q

The groundspoilers will deploy on landing when armed if

A

Both MLG on ground, all thrust idle or reverse

136
Q

If only one gear touches first, the groundspoiler will deploy at what degrees

A

14 and 20 degrees, then full extension on second gear touchdown

137
Q

What is the normal way of retracting the spoilers after landing

A

Pushing down on the spoiler lever

138
Q

The maximum deflection of the rudder is

A

35 degrees but reduces as speed increases

139
Q

The 3 rudder servojack have 2 modes

A

Active and damping

140
Q

Normally the rudder jacks are all

A

In active mode, unless a hyd system fails

141
Q

For the rudder, usually PRIM 1, 2 and 3 respectively control which hyd system

A

1 - Green, 2 - Blue, 3 - Yellow

142
Q

If all 3 PRIM fails, wich computer takes the rudder

A

SEC 1

143
Q

If all electric is lost, the BCM control the

A

The yellow jack first, blue if yellow is not available

144
Q

If 3 ADR or 3 PRIM fail, the max rudder deflection is limited to what it reached until

A

The slats are extended

145
Q

In clean config, the rudder trim moves at what speed, what about when flaps/slats

A

1 degree per second; 1 degrees per sec for the first sec, then 3 degrees per sec

146
Q

The max deflection of the rudder trim is

A

+/- 25 degrees

147
Q

The rudder trim is shown as a

A

Blue line on the rudder indication

148
Q

If one hydraulic source is lost to the slats or flaps PCU, they will move at

A

Half speed

149
Q

The POB locks the slat/flap when

A

They reach there commanded position or when hyd power fail

150
Q

If the system operates on 1 SFCC, what happens

A

Flaps/slats at half speed

151
Q

The IPPU sends the info to

A

The ECAM

152
Q

The slats alpha/speed lock function

A

Prevents the slats retraction at high AOA or low speed

153
Q

The Alpha/Speed Lock function will inhibit slat retraction if FLAPS 0 is selected when

A

The AOA is greater than +8.5° or the airspeed is less than 148 kts

154
Q

The slat retract inhibit is removed when

A

AOA decreases to less than +7.6° or when the airspeed increases to greater than 154 kt

155
Q

In Conf 1+F the flaps auto retract at

A

200 kts

System Limitation/Knowledge (17 decks)

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