FLIGHT CONTROLS Flashcards

1
Q

When will the wheel-to-rudder cross-tie operate?

A

In flight below 210 knots

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2
Q

How is the ALTN flap mode selected?

A

Manually

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3
Q

Bank angle protection provides opposing forces to roll control wheel inputs when the airplane bank
angle exceeds approximately _____ degrees.

A

35

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4
Q

Load relief is available for ______.

A

flaps in the primary mode

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5
Q

To provide airplane control in the event of a jam, the control _____ are connected through jam override
mechanisms.

A

columns and control wheels

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6
Q

In the secondary flight control mode, the elevator variable feel system provides _____.

A

two feel force levels that change with flap position

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7
Q

With the autopilot engaged, the primary pitch trim switches are ______.

A

inhibited

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8
Q

Can TAC be overridden with the Manual Trim Cancel switch?

A

No

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9
Q

On the ground, the stabilizer is directly positioned when the pilot uses the ______.

A

pitch trim switches

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10
Q

The TAC is available during all phases of flight ______.

A

above 70 knots

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11
Q

If a single spoiler fails, the corresponding spoiler on the other wing _______.

A

retracts

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12
Q

Autothrottle stall protection (commonly referred to as autothrottle wakeup) is available ______.

A

in all three flight control modes if valid air data information is present

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13
Q

Bank angle protection starts providing opposing forces to the roll control wheel inputs when the
airplane bank angle exceeds approximately _____.

A

35 degrees

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14
Q

Flap load relief limits flap retraction to Flaps ______.

A

5

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15
Q

The stab green band is calculated using which of the following pilot CDU inputs?

A

CG

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16
Q

Which of the following statements is true of the RUDDER Trim Knob?

A

It is spring-loaded to neutral

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17
Q

The autoslat system enhances stall protection. When approaching stickshaker, if armed, the system
moves the slats from the _____ position to the ______ position.

A

mid, down

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18
Q

Autoslat operation is armed at _____.

A

Flaps 1 through 20 only in primary flap mode

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19
Q

Pilot controls command the _____ actuator control electronics (ACEs) and the ______ primary flight
computers (PFCs)

A

4, 3

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20
Q

A loss of flap/slat position sensing ______.

A

removes the tape fill and flap lever position indications

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21
Q

In the normal mode in flight, simultaneously pushing both Pitch Trim Switches on the yoke, changes the

A

trim reference speed

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22
Q

To protect against inadvertent flap deployment during cruise, flap and slat extension from the UP
position is inhibited at altitudes above approximately ______.

A

20,000 feet

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23
Q

TAC can normally compensate for which of the following engine problems?

A

Engine failure

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24
Q

The PFCs automatically control pitch to compensate for _______.

A

flap changes

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25
The autoslat system, if armed, enhances airplane stall protection characteristics _____.
upon receiving a signal from the stall warning system
26
Which of the following sequences illustrates the Normal flight control process while hand flying?
Pilot Input > ACEs > PFCs > ACEs > Control Surfaces
27
Which of the following sequences illustrates the Direct flight control process while hand flying?
Pilot Input > ACEs > Control Surfaces
28
PFCs change airplane pitch based on pilot control column or autopilot commands and airspeed. In the normal mode, PFCs automatically compensate for _______.
thrust changes
29
If uncommanded stabilizer motion is sensed, what happens to the hydraulic power?
Hydraulic power to the Stabilizer Trim Control Module that caused the motion is automatically shut off
30
The spoilers are powered by ______ hydraulic system(s).
all three
31
The stabilizer is powered by which hydraulic systems?
Center and right
32
Autothrottle Wakeup stall protection is available in _____ flight control mode(s) if valid air data information is present.
all three
33
In the _____ pitch control mode(s), the PFCs automatically compensate for thrust, gear, and speed brake configuration changes.
Normal
34
Which function is NOT available after an automatic reversion to the secondary flight control mode?
Automatic pitch compensation
35
In the ARMED position, the speed brake lever is driven aft to the UP position when the landing gear is fully on the ground and _____
both throttles are in IDLE
36
During flight in the normal mode, the pitch trim switches ______.
make inputs to the PFCs to first move the elevators to achieve the trim change, then move the stabilizer to streamline the elevator
37
Manual selection of the secondary flight control mode ______.
is not possible
38
Which of the following are functions of envelope protection with the PFCs in the normal mode?
Bank angle protection, stall protection, and overspeed protection
39
The ALTN FLAPS selector electrically extends the flaps/slats to what maximum position?
20/mid
40
In the Secondary Flap/Slat mode, slats are positioned ______.
to full extension when Flaps 1 is selected
41
In the Normal flight control mode, what occurs with the STAB TRIM switches in CUTOUT?
Pitch trim is still available
42
What malfunction would cause the ACEs to automatically transition to the Direct flight control mode?
Failure of all PFCs
43
On 200B aircraft, primary flap and slat extension from the UP position is inhibited at speeds greater than _____ knots.
265
44
Placing the PRIMARY FLIGHT COMPUTERS disconnect switch to DISC puts the flight control system in which mode?
Direct
45
Which of the following CDU inputs is NOT required to calculate the stabilizer green band?
Flap setting
46
The Manual Trim Cancel switch _____ rudder inputs from TAC.
has no effect on
47
Which flight control system function is not available when operating in the secondary mode?
autopilot
48
Roll control is provided by movement of the ______.
flaperons, ailerons, and asymmetrical spoilers
49
Slat load relief is available in the ______ flap mode because slats are fully extended in all flap positions in that mode.
secondary
50
In the secondary flight control mode, the primary pitch trim switches and the alternate pitch trim levers move the _______.
stabilizer directly. There is no trim reference speed
51
Automatic landings can be made using ______.
Flaps 20 or 30 with one or two engines operating
51
When the autopilot is engaged, it sends commands directly to the ______
PFCs
52
In the Direct flight control mode, which of the following is operative?
Pitch trim
53
The wheel-to-rudder cross-tie system provides ______.
up to 8 degrees of rudder deflection using control wheel inputs
54
Which of the following sequences illustrates the flight control process when the autopilot is engaged?
Autopilot Inputs > PFCs > ACEs > Control Surfaces
55
The pitch envelope protection functions ______ the pilot’s control authority
do not reduce
56
What are the three primary flight control system modes?
Normal, Secondary, and Direct
57
The dual alternate pitch trim levers on the control pedestal _______.
have priority over the control yoke trim switches in all flight control modes
58
What action may cause an automatic reversion to the secondary flight control mode?
PFC or related airplane system faults
59
What envelope protection do you have in the Normal Flight Control Mode?
Overspeed, bank angle, and stall
60
When does the rudder become effective?
Approximately 80 knots
61
The Primary Flight Computers automatically control pitch to maintain a relatively constant flight path. There is no need for additional control column back pressure to compensate for turns using up to ______ degrees of bank.
30
62
Load relief is available for ______.
flaps in the primary mode
64
The Manual Trim Cancel Switch is available in all flight control modes except the _____ mode
Direct