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Flight Ops > Flight Ops > Flashcards

Flight Ops Flashcards

1
Q

One of the main advantages of the axial flow compressor type of gas turbine as compared to the centrifugal type:

A

Comparatively small frontal area of the compressor

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2
Q

Section of a turbine engine which extracts energy from expanding high velocity combustion gases to drive the compressor sections and fan (or prop) is the:

A

Turbine section

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3
Q

Component of a gas turbine engine which is located at the outlet side of a centrifugal compressor and whose function is to convert high velocity airflow into high pressure airflow for delivery to the combustion section is:

A

Diffuser section

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4
Q

Majority of the energy produced in the burner section of a turbojet engine is used for?

A

Running the engine compressor. Up to 75% of energy

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5
Q

In a turbo fan engine, why is bypassed air more efficient at creating engine thrust?

A

Cooler bypassed air is more dense than hot exhaust air, therefore containing more energy

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6
Q

N1 and N2 gauges indicate what?

A

Rotation rate of the Low and high pressure compressors respectively, expressed as a percentage

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7
Q

When starting a gas turbine engine the two primary gauges to observe are:

A

High pressure compressor and internal turbine temperature

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8
Q

What provides the rotational energy for an axial flow compressor in a turbojet engine?

A

The engine turbine using energy from hot exhaust gases exiting the engines burner section

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9
Q

What occurs in the burner section of a gas turbine?

A

Fuel is mixed with compressed air then ignited to create the energy needed to run the engine.

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10
Q

EPR is correctly defined as:

A

The ratio of turbine discharge total pressure to the total pressure at the compressor inlet.

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11
Q

The stationary blade type airfoil devices that are installed between each compressor stage in order to direct airflow into succeeding stages at optimum angle in the axial flow compressor are:

A

Stators

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12
Q

When air is extracted from the compressor section for service functions such as air conditioning or anti icing then:

A

Thrust will decrease and turbine temperature will increase

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13
Q

T/F - On cascade type reversers, blocker doors seal off the fan exit as a sleeve moves to expose the cascade vanes.

A

True

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14
Q

A turboprop power plant design known as ‘free turbine’ is one in which:

A

There are two separate shafts - one to drive the compressor and the other to transmit power to the reduction gearbox and thus turn the prop

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15
Q

In reference to a turbo prop, constant speed is achieved by:

A

Matching the prop load to the gas turbine power produced

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16
Q

The flex temperature for a gas turbine engine refers to:

A

The assumed temperature used in calculating the reduced thrust settings for take off

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17
Q

What is the purpose of assumed temperature or de-rated take offs?

A

They reduce engine wear

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18
Q

With respect to the px system, what is the purpose of a negative px relief valve?

A

To prevent outside ambient air pressure from exceeding cabin internal pressure

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19
Q

An aircraft’s electrical bus bar system can best be described as:

A

Carefully organized bunch of separate but interconnected circuits which allow important circuits to be isolated and powered by alternate sources in the event of component failure

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20
Q

Aircraft electrical circuit protection is provided by:

A
  1. Generator control unit
  2. Circuit breaker
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21
Q

Jet pumps are activated by:

A

High px fuel from the high px fuel pump

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22
Q

Magnasticks are fuel quantity measuring devices which:

A

Are located beneath the wings and allow for manual measuring of fuel quantity

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23
Q

One method to compensate for variable system demands when one or more subsystems are activated on a hydraulic system is through the installation of:

A

Variable displacement hydraulic pumps

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24
Q

T/F - Touchdown protection prevents inadvertent brake application prior to wheel spin up on low friction runways

A

True

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25
Q

Induced drag is:

A

Inversely proportional to the square of the speed.

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26
Q

When operating in slow flight, the req power is greater then that for endurance because:

A

The Lift/Drag Ratio is reduced, and the drag increased

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27
Q

In order to obtain max range in a constant wind condition, a pilot flying a turbojet aircraft at near optimum altitude and at the recommended airspeed should:

A

Reduce power and indicated airspeed as fuel weight decreases

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28
Q

T/F - wing dihedral improves lateral stability of an A/C

A

True

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29
Q

If the CoG is at the most aft limit, what would be the effect on the stability of the AC?

A

Decreased longitudinal stability about the lateral axis

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30
Q

An AC has greater longitudinal stability when:

A

The CoG is well forward of the centre of pressure

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31
Q

Why is having a moving horizontal stabilizer a more effective way of trimming large aircraft?

A

It allows for a greater centre of gravity range and reduces drag in flight

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32
Q

An aircraft in a constant descent, weight will equal:

A

Vertical component of lift and drag

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33
Q

Wing tip vortices of minimum strength would be developed by an aircraft:

A

Flying at high speeds, long wing span, and clean config

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34
Q

Wing tip vortices of maximum strength are generated by aircraft operating under conditions of:

A

High gross weight, clean, low speeds

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35
Q

The speed of sound in the atmosphere is solely dependent upon:

A

Air temperature

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36
Q

What range of Mach does the transonic flight regime occur?

A

0.75 - 1.20M

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37
Q

The type of airflow normally present within transonic regime of flight is:

A

Subsonic and supersonic

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38
Q

Critical Mach number may be defined as:

A

Highest airspeed at which the airflow over any part of the aircraft first reaches (but does not exceed) Mach 1.0

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39
Q

Limiting Mach number may be defined as:

A

The maximum operating speed of an aircraft in relation to the speed of sound

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40
Q

In high speed aircraft, sweepback design is utilized to:

A

Increase critical Mach number

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41
Q

An undesirable effect of sweepback design in a jet aircraft is:

A

Dutch roll tendency

42
Q

How is high and low speed buffet (coffins corner) affected in a level turn?

A

Low speed buffet increases and high speed buffet decreases

43
Q

What factors should be considered in preventing the onset of Mach buffet?

A
  1. Aircraft weight
  2. Temperature
  3. Upper level winds
  4. Altitude
44
Q

Wing vortex generators are employed for:

A

Delaying boundary layer separation

45
Q

What is the purpose of leading edge flaps?

A

Increase coefficient of lift by changing the camber of wing

46
Q

Slotted trailing edge flaps have what advantage over plain flaps?

A

The slot helps postpone boundary layer separation creating more lift at high flap settings

47
Q

T/F - winglets reduce induced drag but do cause some increase in form drag

A

True

48
Q

One of the main advantages of canard design is:

A

A reduced stall speeds

49
Q

A small executive jet aircraft has a main wheel pressure of 135psi and a nosewheel pressure of 45 psi, what speeds will the tires hydroplane?

A

The nosewheel will hydroplane at lower speeds then the mains

50
Q

When a constant headwind component shears to a calm wind, the initial cockpit indications to a pilot would be:

A

Aircraft pitches down, altitude and indicated airspeed decrease

51
Q

Blockage of static air. If the plane departs altitude the airspeed indicator would:

A

Under-read during a climb, and over-read during a descent

52
Q

What always happens in an aerodynamic stall?

A
  1. Buffeting
  2. Lots of aerodynamic noise
  3. The aircraft will always descend
53
Q

Minimum PAPI approach slope indicator system safe obstruction clearance area dimensions

A

6 degrees on either side of the extended runway centreline out to 4nm from the threshild

54
Q

The ‘clean aircraft concept’ refers to:

A

Take off being prohibited when frost, snow. Or ice is adhering to any critical surface of the aircraft

55
Q

Frost, ice or snow having thickness and surface roughness of medium/coarse sand paper on the leading edge and upper surface of a wing can:

A

Decrease lift by 30% and increase drag by 40%

56
Q

What is required when type II or IV is applied to the aircraft?

A

The rotation speed must be 100kts or greater

57
Q

T/F - planning to fly approaches with maximum flap settings can minimize the chance of having a tail plane stall occurrence

A

False

58
Q

Type I with higher concentration of glycol will provide:

A

Some protection against re-freezing but not much against further accumulation

59
Q

Mach number equation

A

TAS/LSS

60
Q

Hydroplaning is a function of:

A

The speed of the airplane, tire pressure and water depth

61
Q

When would PAPIs be turned off?

A

On a precision app when ceiling less then 500’ or vis less then 1 mile

62
Q

VASIS variations

A

V1 - 2 bar, EWH up to 10ft
V2 - 2 bar, EWH up to 25ft
AV - abbreviated, EWH up to 10ft

63
Q

PAPI variations

A

P1 - EWH up to but not including 10ft
P2 - EWH 10ft up to, not including 25ft
P3 - 25 up to not including 45ft
AP - abbreviated up to not including 10ft

64
Q

Viscous vs dynamic hydroplaning vs reverted rubber

A

Viscous - thin film of water, low tire speeds

Dynamic - deeper water, results in complete loss of tire contact. Tire rides on wedge of water

Reverted rubber - generally following a mechanical failure, resulting heat generates steam in contact area which provides upward motion/px on tire

65
Q

3 types of reversers, and type of air used

A

Cascade - cold bypass air reversed
Blocker/target - cold bypass
Bucket/target - hot air 100%

66
Q

The autopilot controls the aircraft around and about the:

A

Centre of gravity

67
Q

Coffins corner definition

A

Stall speed in Mach could equal or come close to MMO, so the pilot could not slow down (without stalling) or speed up (without exceeding MMO)

68
Q

EWH is:

A

Vertical distance from pilots eyes to lowest portion of the aircraft (in ldg config) at Vref

69
Q

If a small airplane is using P3 system, where would it land?

A

Long

70
Q

Icing is anticipated when OAT on ground or TAT in flight is ___° or below and visible moisture is present

A

10

71
Q

T/F - when the anti-skid control module detects that the wheel speed transducer velocity is lower than the reference speed velocity, a brake release signal is commanded.

A

True

72
Q

How does dihedral improve lateral stability?

A

When one wing drops due to a disturbance, the unbalanced force produces a side slip towards the dropped wing. This cause the wind to hit the downward wing at a higher angle of attack producing more lift then the upward wing and bring the aircraft back to level

73
Q

Hydroplaning equations (non rotating/rotating tire)

A

Non rotating = 7.7 x (square root of tire px)

Rotating tire = 9 x (square root of tire px)

74
Q

Stall speed of aircraft executing a banked turn - equation

A

Normal stall speed x (square of the load factor)

60° - 2g
45° - 1.4g

75
Q

TAS equation

A

IAS x [1 + (alt/1000 x .02)]

76
Q

What is the best way to remove smoke from the cabin?

A

Climb the pressure altitude

77
Q

What does a fixed displacement pump do?

A

It has a set flow rate, every stroke of the motor moves the same amount of fluid. System requires shock absorbing pressure accumulator.

78
Q

What does a variable displacement pump do?

A

Varys volume of fluid, no accumulator required, however if there is one, the accumulator stores energy.

79
Q

What is crossover protection with anti-skid?

A

Allows wheels to talk to each other. If one wheel hits ice but the other doesn’t, it keeps both wheels in the same state. Also helps if a sensor fail.

80
Q

2 types of fire detection

A

Spot detection
-thermal switch: two metals expand and contact lighting switch
-thermocouple: temperature based

Loop detection
-single element Fenway/kedde: detects drop in resistance of electrical current

81
Q

What is at the bottom of the total drag curve?

A

Max endurance

82
Q

What does critical engine mean?

A

It creates the greatest amount of yaw upon failing which in turn requires the most rudder in an engine out situation

83
Q

How does density altitude affect a turbocharged engine?

A

Negatively. Performance degrades as it does not overcome decreased prop efficiency, increased TAS

84
Q

What is the low landing regime?

A

Landing config, low airspeed, low power, low altitude.

85
Q

T/F - aircraft are certified to successfully complete a go around with ground contact once it has entered the low energy landing regime.

A

True

86
Q

What happens when air passes through a shockwave?

A

-pressure, temperature, density increase

-velocity decrease

87
Q

How many miles are VASIS’s accurate?

A

4-6 miles

88
Q

How are PAPI’s determined for an aerodrome?

A

By the type of aircraft the aerodrome intends to serve

89
Q

Visible moisture is:

A

-vis is <1nm
-taxiways/runways contaminated by slush/snow/water
-precip
-cloud

90
Q

Tail plane stall symptoms and recovery

A

-buffeting, sluggish elevator, unusual nose down trim changes

-retraction of flaps to previous setting and increase airspeed for app

91
Q

How can you tell between a spin and a spiral dive looking at a picture of two EFIS screens?

A

Airspeed. Spin is a stall, spiral dive is increasing airspeed

92
Q

Spiral dive recovery

A

Idle
Level wings
Ease out of dive

93
Q

Spin recovery

A

-Full rudder opposite of direction of spin
-forward on the stick to break stall

94
Q

During walk around, the right aileron trim is up and rudder trim is right. What cockpit indications would this show?

A

Left aileron, left rudder

95
Q

If you encounter any of these compressibility effects, what should you do?

Uncontrollable roll, aileron ‘buzz’, wing twist, buffeting

A

Reduce speed

96
Q

What will happen as you pass critical Mach number?

A

A strong nose down tendency will start to occur

97
Q

What happens to TAS/IAS if you climb at a constant Mach number?

A

Both decrease

98
Q

What happens to Mach/IAS if you were to descend at a constant TAS?

A

Mach decreases, IAS increases

99
Q

Frost formation definition

A

Frost initially forms as individual grains about 0.004 of an inch in diameter.

100
Q

Wing tip vortices increase what kind of drag?

A

Induced

Flight Ops (2 decks)

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