flightchief

Question 1

what information at a minimum is briefed during guardmount

Answer 1

Brief weapons safety, ground safety, vehicle safety, exercise safety, current Force Protection Condition (FPCON), sign/countersign, duress words, K9 safety (if MWD is posted with flight), and any current “Be On the Look Out” (BOLO) bulletins.

Question 2

T/F: All post visits and checks will be annotated in the blotter

Answer 2

true

Question 3

When the issuing agency for a warrant is unable to respond but doesn’t want the subject released, the 87th SFS will coordinate transfer to what local agency?

Answer 3

Burlington County Jail

Question 4

What are considered the peak traffic hours at JB MDL?

Answer 4

Monday – Friday excluding federal holidays or commander-directed down days: 0630-0830

Question 5

T/F The Installation Commander has authorized the physical touching/verification of installation access cards during the hours of 0600-0900 without utilizing DBIDS in order to expedite traffic during peak hours.

Answer 5

TRUE

Question 6

What is the purpose of early posting?

Answer 6

The purpose of early patrol is to ensure that there remains at least one available patrol to respond to incidents during shift changes.

Question 7

When will early patrol postings report for arming?

Answer 7

One hour prior to regular shift change.

Question 8

What is the purpose of the Selective Enforcement program?

Answer 8

To concentrate police efforts where trends of excessive violations and crashes have been identified.

Question 9

What information must be included in the blotter entry for a traffic selective?

Answer 9

Location of selective enforcement, rank and name of patrolman, and the RADAR/LIDAR unit number. Upon completion of selective enforcement, the total number/type of citations issued will be reflected in the blotter.

Question 10

What form is the Quarters Security Check?

Answer 10

SFFL-26

Question 11

What will the ECC ensure the occupant inspects; annotates on the SFFL 26; prior to the occupant leaving the quarters?

Answer 11

The ECC will inform the occupant to inspect the quarters for any existing damage, particularly to door and window frames and locking mechanisms

Question 12

Will SF personnel accept keys to quarters, or accept any responsibility for the quarters, other than conducting security checks.

Answer 12

No

Question 13

T/F: Sirens should be very minimally used

Answer 13

TRUE

Question 14

What is the assimilative crimes act?

Answer 14

The Federal Assimilative Crimes Act, Title 18 U.S.C. Section 13, Laws of States Adopted for Areas within Federal Jurisdiction, is an adoption by Congress of state criminal laws for areas of exclusive or concurrent federal jurisdiction, provided federal criminal law, including the UCMJ, has not defined an applicable offense for the misconduct committed. This Act is not limited to traffic offenses. The Act applies to state laws validly existing at the time of the offense without regard to when these laws were enacted, whether before or after passage of the Act and whether before or after the acquisition of the land where the offense was committed.

Question 15

Define a Suspect.

Answer 15

suspect is one who is suspected of being involved in committing an offense

Question 16

Define a Subject

Answer 16

A subject is someone that you have evidence or reason suggesting they committed a crime/offense

Question 17

T/F: Because SF do not have arrest authority over civilians, we do NOT collect or criminally index DNA samples from civilians.

Answer 17

TRUE

Question 18

Will SF collect DNA from juveniles for CODIS submission?

Answer 18

No

Question 19

Define emergency entry into the Alert Area.

Answer 19

Emergency entry is defined as the need for the immediate presence of response elements (security, fire, medical, etc.) to preclude or limit damage or injury, or to deal with any situation that may endanger the mission.

Question 20

What agency is responsible for pre-announcing emergency entry into the Alert Area?

Answer 20

108 WG/Command Post

Question 21

T/F SF will maintain surveillance over emergency response personnel in the alert area until completetion of the response.

Answer 21

TRUE

Question 22

Who notifies BDOC once the aircraft in the alert area is “cocked-on”

Answer 22

108 WG/Command Post

Question 23

How can SF personnel in the alert area tell if an A/C is “cocked-on”?

Answer 23

When the aircraft is “Cocked On,” the air crew or aircraft commander will place the COCKED sign in the cockpit window so it is easily differentiated between an “Un-Cocked” aircraft.

Question 24

Who will notify BDOC of all pre-announced visits to specific, assgined, “cocked-on” aircraft?

Answer 24

108 WG/CP

Question 25

Who will BDOC notify prior to initiating the generation area purge to inform all non-essential personnel they must exit the area.

Answer 25

108 WG/MOC

Question 26

Who is authorized to stay in the generation area during the purge?

Answer 26

Personnel deemed mission essential and must have open area "3" on their RAB.

Question 27

Who must be notified upon completion of the generation area purge?

Answer 27

108 WG/CP

Question 28

What PL does the generation area become upon completion of the area purge?

Answer 28

PL2

Question 28

Who can authenticate an EAL for the PL2 generation area?

Answer 28

Security Forces E-6/GS-9 or above and the installation commander or designated representitave

Question 29

Where will the original generation area EAL be kept? The copies?

Answer 29

The original will be kept at BDOC and the copies with the generation area supervisors and entry controllers

Question 30

Who may be granted unescorted entry into the generation area?

Answer 30

Personnel with open area "3" on their JB MDL issued RAB or who are listed on properly authenticated EAL.

Question 31

T/F All vehicles entering the aircraft generation area will be searched prior to entry. All personnel authorized unescorted access to the area will search their own vehicles and equipment. Escort officials are responsible for searching the vehicles and equipment brought into the area by their escorted.

Answer 31

TRUE

Question 32

Where is the crimestop phone located

Answer 32

ECC

Question 33

who is allowed into BOMARC

Answer 33

CE and contracted cleanup crews

Question 34

for PL2 A/C, how far away will RA signs be

Answer 34

no more than 100Ft

Question 35

how do you establish an RA around a trans PL2 A/C

Answer 35

Ropes, stanchions, a minimum of four RA signs, ECP sign and the area can be no closer than 10ft no further than 60 ft from A/C

Question 36

what are the BDOC procedures when notified by CP that Phoneix Banner A/C is placed in Alpha Status

Answer 36

blotter entry, 30 min ISRT checks, dispatch a patrol to witness breaking of the seal when notified, notify patrols when A/C is no longer in alpha status

Question 37

what is the purpose of the ECC

Answer 37

the ECC provides centralized communications for the SF flights performing normal and contingency operations combining the ECC function and Emergency services dispatch to prevent duplication of effort

Question 38

in the event the ECC must relocate but circumstances dont allow relocation to 6049, what happens?

Answer 38

on-duty Flt leadership assumes responsibilites until ABDOC is activated and operational

Question 39

any visitor to the ECC w/out unescorted access will be processed how?

Answer 39

theyll be identified with the CAC, reason for entry will be clarified and theyll be signed in on an AF form 1109/visitor log

Question 40

if a vehicle crash meets major accident criteria, who will you dispatch to the scene

Answer 40

certified traffic accident investigator

Question 41

what is the storage location for receiving SECRET material after hours? TOP SECRET?

Answer 41

Airfield Ops/ CP

Question 42

information recieved via the NCIC terminals is considered

Answer 42

LE SENSITIVE

Question 43

personnel from orgs outside of the 87 SFS that request information from NCIC must be cleared and approved thru who

Answer 43

Terminal agency coordinator or the investigations leadership

Question 44

when can you use another NCIC operators login info

Answer 44

never

Question 45

exercises, at any level, will not be conducted during what

Answer 45

HHQ inspections, PNAF ops, OPLAN 8010 or Contigency ops

Question 46

all exercises will be annotated where

Answer 46

Blotter

Question 47

all exercises must be prefaced with what

Answer 47

exercise safety brief

Question 48

how often must ABDOC activation exercises be conducted and where is it annotated

Answer 48

quarterly/ blotter

Question 49

give two examples of passive duress at an SF facility or patrol

Answer 49

failure to acknowledge, unusual deviation

Question 50

two examples of active duress

Answer 50

duress word/misauth/duress switch

Question 51

what are your actions upon notifcation of duress on an sf facility

Answer 51

code 9 2/ advise patrols/dispatch/est 360/notifications

Question 52

what are your actions upon notificaiton of duress on an sf patrol

Answer 52

code 9 2/ advise patrols/ask last known locations/dispatch

Question 53

t/f when directing patrols to sweep for an FS patrol under duress, use the words "look for" instead of conduct a sweep

Answer 53

FALSE

Question 54

t/f when custody of the individual is transferred, the individual will take all personal property including weapons/contraband

Answer 54

FALSE

Question 55

if an officer of any service is returned to military control, who will be notified immediatley for dispostion instructions

Answer 55

DFC/SFS CC or ops officer

Question 56

if a person is not asigned to JB MDL who has been designated OPR for proccessing/determining disposition of all Air Force ABSENTEE personnel

Answer 56

87 FSS/CC

Question 57

what form will be accomplished for all peronnel reported as being AWOL/deserter

Answer 57

af form 1361

Question 58

t/f 87 SFS is authorized to confine military and civilian offenders up to 8 hours

Answer 58

true

Question 59

who, after consulation w/SJA, can extend the 8 hour confinement limit to 24 hours

Answer 59

DFC

Question 60

who must be notified anytime somebody is placed into or removed from a cell

Answer 60

Confinement NCO

Question 61

who is responsible for the health and welfare of an individual once placed into the cell

Answer 61

ECC/FC

Question 62

how often must you check on an individual in the cell and where are your checks annototed

Answer 62

hourly but if the person is unstable or not mentally fit, 15 min

Question 63

who can administer prescribed meds to detainees

Answer 63

87 MDG and trained SF

Question 64

t/f for minor traffic violations, sf will process jueniles the same as adult offenders

Answer 64

true

Question 65

can you conduct a search of a juvenile without their sponsor present if you have an additional sf member present

Answer 65

YES

Question 66

can you collect DNA from juveniles for CODIS submission

Answer 66

no

Question 67

release military personnel to who

Answer 67

1sg, CC or designated rep (e7 up) when 1st or CC are unavailable

Question 68

while on the phone with somebody reporting a domestic, the controller is responsible for obtaining as much information as possible from the caller

Answer 68

remain on the line, listen for changes, if the call is dropped immedialty call back

Question 69

what should you always heck while patrols are responding to a location in housing

Answer 69

af fomr 1314 firearms registration

Question 70

who must you contact immediatley when recieving a report of suspected child abuse

Answer 70

OSI

Question 71

which are open area on the RAB grants unescorted entry into a generation area

Answer 71

3

Question 72

who can authenticate an EAL

Answer 72

SF e6/gs7 or above & 108 WG/CC/CP

Question 73

where will the original generation area eal be posted? copies

Answer 73

ECC/ Area sup/ EC

Question 74

what is the af imt 4327A

Answer 74

crew orders