Fluids Flashcards
1
Q
Responsible for the safe receipt, handling, transfer and usage of fuel oils for CG cutters and boats
A
Engineering department
2
Q
Any clothing that is soaked in fuel shall be ___
A
Washed as soon as possible from other clothing, or stored in a flammable storage container if unable to be washed immediately
3
Q
Empty containers for volatile products shall be __
A
Sealed and disposed of properly per the unit’s hazardous waste bill
4
Q
When working around flammable and volatile products, ensure that ____ is supplied to the space
A
Adequate ventilation
5
Q
Obtain ___ before carrying out any hot work on fuel and lube oil systems and tanks
A
Hot work permit
6
Q
Never use gasoline for ___
A
Cleaning
7
Q
When sounding tanks, ensure the sounding device remains in ___ with the sounding tube
A
Constant contact
8
Q
Why does the sounding device need to remain in constant contact with the sounding tube?
A
To lessen the chance of sparks caused by static electricity
9
Q
Use what kind of flashlights when working around and on fuel equipment and enclosed compartments
A
Explosion proof
10
Q
Do not carry what kind of matches or lights in fuel handling rooms, enclosed compartments, or around volatile vapors or handling equipment?
A
Strike anywhere
Automatic
11
Q
Only under extreme operational emergency and with the concurrence of the appropriate SFLC Product Line shall fuel be loaded onboard, for shipboard use, if its flash point is below ___
A
52*C
125*F
12
Q
Fuel tanks are considered to be ___
A
IDLH
13
Q
Who’s permission is needed to enter a IDLH space?
A
CO
14
Q
Before granting permission to enter a IDLH space, the CO shall ___
A
Ensure that safety precautions set forth in NSTM Chapter 074, Volume 3, are carried out and that personnel supervising the entry are familiar with these instructions and precautions
15
Q
Required for sounding tubes that terminate in hazardous areas
A
Sounding tube floating-ball check valves
16
Q
Prevents fuel from spilling from the sounding tube if the tank is overfilled while the sounding tube is open
A
Sounding tube floating-ball check valves
17
Q
Always ensure sounding tube valves are ___ when not in use
A
Shut and capped
18
Q
Required for flanged connections in any location that fuel spray has a potential to ignite, such as an exhaust manifold
A
Flange spray shields
19
Q
Prevent fires caused by poor joint assembly, gasket failure, or improper torque of fasteners
A
Flange spray shields
20
Q
Capture any fuel spray from the joint and cause it to drip or dribble to a safe location instead of spraying onto nearby hot surfaces
A
Flange spray shields
21
Q
Provide various ways to shut off fuel flow in the service system, either locally or outside the space
A
Emergency cutout valves
22
Q
Emergency fuel cutout valves are located ___
A
Fuel service tank suction lines, boiler front fuel lines, diesel engines, SSDGs, gas turbine fuel lines
23
Q
Service pump remote shutdown pushbuttons are required for ___, and are located ___ for ___
A
Motor-driven fuel service pumps
Outside the space
Casualty control
24
Q
Required for all service system strainer, filter/separator, and pre-filter covers
A
Integral cover fuel spray deflectors
25
All fuel sampling and vent connections within the ship shall
Discharge downward into a funnel that directs the fuel to the oily water drain collecting system
26
Provided in air escapes of fuel tanks to retard flashback if the system is accidentally exposed to an ignition source
Vent/flash screens
27
Gasoline is classified as ___
Category I FLAMMABLE material
28
Provides guidance on the stowage, handling, and disposal of gasoline and other hazardous general use combustibles
NSTM, Chapter 670
29
Gasoline shall be stowed ___
On the weather deck, aft, so that they can be readily jettisoned overboard
30
___ stowage of gasoline is prohibited on CG cutters and boats
Interior
31
Gasoline stowage locations shall not be in the vicinity of ___
Hatches, doors, galleys, ready service magazines, heat producing spaces, ventilation intakes and exhausts, or helicopter launching and recovery areas
32
Portable gasoline containers shall be ___
Secured within foundation housings or designated storage locations
33
P6 shall be stowed as per ___
CG Rescue and Survival Systems Manual
34
Gasoline stowage areas shall be designated as ___
GASOLINE HAZARD AREAS
35
Gasoline containers shall be labeled as ___
FLAMMABLE
36
Gasoline containers authorized for shipboard use
Five-gallon metal cans
Six -gallon or small metal safety cans
Six-gallon or smaller molded plastic containers nonmetallic safety cans
37
___ shall be worn during fuel sampling, testing, fueling, and defueling operations
Goggles and rubber gloves
38
The presence of flammable liquid and/or explosive materials is not permitted within ___ of the flight deck peripheral lines, or ___
25 feet
| On any weather deck during flight operations
39
Below the helicopter approach path, ___ should not be located on exposed decks
Ready service lockers or magazines
40
___ shall specify that all flammable liquid and/or ammunition stored in this area shall be moved before flight operations
Helicopter Operations Bill
41
No JP-5 fuel filter may be bypassed during helicopter refueling operations with out the concurrence of __
CO, EO, and Pilot-in-command
42
Fueling, defueling, internal fuel transfer, and offloading of oil in restricted waters shall be done during ___, when operating schedules permit
Normal daylight working hours
43
All involved personnel shall be ___ prior to each fueling evolution
Thoroughly briefed
44
During fueling evolutions, maintain ___ at all locations of possible spills
Topside watches with direct communication to fuel transfer pump stations
45
Establish ___ for valve alignment and fuel transfer operations
Check-off lists and procedures
46
Use only ___ to perform the detailed transfer procedures
Qualified personnel
47
Continuously ___ each tank while filling
Monitor the level
48
Use __ as the primary method of obtaining tank levels when available
Remote tank-level indicators
49
Prior to actual fuel transfer, transfer personnel shall inform ___ that the ship is ready to commence fueling operations
The responsible ship's officer and the fuel supplier
50
Ensure ___ are established with fuel delivery personnel, and that ___ are understood and agreed upon before commencing operations
Communications
| Emergency procedures
51
Entries shall be made in the ___ whenever any of the following operations take place: ballasting or cleaning of F/O tanks, discharge of dirty ballast or cleaning water from fuel tanks, disposal of oily residues, and discharge overboard or disposal otherwise of bilge water that has accumulated in the spaces
Machinery log
52
Entries in the machinery log concerning the ballasting or cleaning of F/O tanks, discharge of dirty ballast or cleaning water from fuel tanks, disposal of oily residues, and discharge overboard or disposal otherwise of bilge water that has accumulated in the spaces shall include at a minimum ___
The source and destination of the movement
53
In the event of an emergency, accidental, or other exceptional discharge of oil or oily mixture, what must be logged and where?
Entry in machinery log of circumstances and reasons for the discharge
CO or OIC must note in Unit Log what notifications were made and when
54
Each completed operation recorded in the machinery log shall be signed by __
The person or persons in charge of the operations concerned
55
Prior to taking on or transferring fuel, cutters and boats shall be ___
Electrically grounded
56
___ shall be conducted prior to accepting fuel
Clear and bright test
57
Primary concerns of onboard fuel management
Particulates, water, and microbiological contamination
58
Cutters/boats shall select the least expensive fuel between ___
F-76, F-44, or an approved product obtained through the Defense Energy Support Center bunker fuel contractor
59
Which cutters are exempt from the 6 month use limit on DESC bunker fuels
Those participating in the Coast Guard’s In-Line Fuel Quality Sampling Program
60
If the fuel cannot be burned fully within six months of being taken onboard, only __ should be used
F-76 or F-44
61
Participation in the Fuel In-line Sampling Program is required for ___
FT4 gas turbine powered cutters
62
In Caterpillar engines, JP-5 should not be allowed to exceed___ in temperature.
This ensures that adequate viscosity is retained
100ºF (38ºC)
63
Volvo Penta Diesel engines used in diesel RIBs, some TANBs and other small boats require ___ to be mixed with the JP-5 prior to use
5 percent clean lube oil
64
Some oil purifiers will require a different ___ to remain effective when used with JP-5
Gravity disk
65
F-76 must meet ___
MIL-PRF-16884K
66
F-44 must meet ___
MIL-DTL-5624T
67
The combustion quality requirements for F-76, NPD MGO, and B-76 allow a minimum cetane number of __ and a minimum cetane index of ___
42
| 43
68
DF2 has a minimum cetane number/cetane index of ___
40
69
Paxman powered cutters require a minimum cetane index of ___
45
70
Paxman powered cutters may burn ___ without cetane restrictions
JP-5
71
Distillate fuel suitable for use in shipboard diesels, gas turbines, or boilers
F-76
72
F-76 flash point
60*C
| 140*F
73
F-76 is never ___
Dyed
74
F-44 is also called ___
JP-5
75
Kerosene type jet fuel
F-44
76
F-44 flash point
60*C
| 140*F
77
Ideally suited to FT-4 gas turbine engines
F-44
78
Burning ___ may also make achieving full power shaft rpm more difficult
JP-5
79
Contains a fuel system icing inhibitor which is required for aviation use
JP-5
80
JP-5 is never ___
Dyed
81
Type of marine gas oil (100% distillate with no residual fuel contamination)
Navy Purchase Description Marine Gas Oil (NPD MGO)
82
There is a ___ time limit placed on the use of NPD MGO
6 month
83
In domestic ports, only __ dye can be used for NPD MGO
Red
84
Special commercial product available under DESC bunker contracts in only a few domestic locations, identical properties to F-76 except it can be dyed red, and must be used within six months
B-76
85
Special commercial product available under DESC bunker contracts in some domestic locations, based on purely commercial fuel specifications
DF2
86
Least preferred of the approved DESC bunker fuel products
DF2
87
DF2 flash point
52*C
| 125*F
88
Minimum cetane number/index of DF2
40
89
If none of the approved fuels are available, and bunker fuel must be purchased on the open market, cutters should contact ___
Their MLC (vr) or ELC 026
90
Identifies a number of emergency substitute fuels
NSTM Chapter 541, Section 10
91
___ storage tanks before taking on emergency substitute fuels
Consolidate
92
Measure of a fuel's flammability
Fuel flash point
93
Affects a fuel's ease of ignition, flame spread rate once ignited, and extinguishing difficulty
Flash point
94
As ambient temperature in a space approaches the fuel's flash point, the presence of ___ increases dramatically
Flammable vapors
95
Marine fuel, by definition (and international law) must have a minimum flash point of ___
60*C
| 140*F
96
Only under an extreme operational emergency, and with the concurrence of ___ shall a fuel be loaded onboard of its flashpoint is below 52*C (125*F)
MLCLANT/PAC (vr)
97
When and where is cold weather blending of fuel allowed?
Alaska
| 15 October to 15 April
98
Cold weather blending of fuel should have a minimum flash point of ___
52*C (125*F)
99
Storage and engineering spaces should be kept at least ___ cooler than the flash point of the fuel
10*C
100
Maximum safe engineering space temperature with cold weather blended fuels
42*C (108*F)
101
Low flash point fuel
Less than 60*C (140*F)
102
Do not perform what when using low flash point fuels?
Full power trials
103
When using low flashpoint fuels, review ___ with all engineering and bridge watchstanders
ECCM and MSFD
104
When using low flash point fuels, ensure that if there is a designated "smoking lounge", it is ___ from any fuel tank vent
10 feet
105
Formula to estimate flash point of mixed fuels
```
FC=(FA*GA+FB*GB)/(GA+GB)
FC = Estimated flash point of commingled fuel
FA = Flash point of fuel A
GA = Quantity of fuel A
FB = Flash point of fuel B
GB = Quantity of fuel B
```
106
If the measured value of a high flash point marine fuel is not known, assume it is ___ for the purposes of calculation
140*F (60*C)
107
Can be caused by dirt, rust flakes, catalyst fines, or other foreign matter introduced into the fuel
Particulate contamination
108
Generate particles that can stay is suspension
Biological contamination and storage stability problems
109
Particulate contamination will __
Clog filters, and can potentially damage fuel injection equipment
110
Best means to keep particulate contamination manageable
Timely and periodic tank stripping
111
Water than can be removed from the fuel by mechanical means
Free water
112
Free water, if allowed to remain still for a relatively short time will ___
Settle to the bottom
113
Free water droplets that are suspended in the fuel
Entrained water
114
Water that cannot be removed from the fuel by mechanical means and is not visible to the naked eye as haze
Dissolved water
115
Typically appears as a haze in the fuel
Entrained water
116
___ is necessary for microbial growth
Water
117
___ are particularly sensitive to water contamination
Gas turbines
118
Only ___ can remove entrained water from fuel
Water separators (coalescers)
119
Water contamination can ___
Cause damage to fuel injection equipment
120
__ will help prevent the occurrence of problems associated with water
Timely and periodic tank stripping
121
Consists of organic debris created by fungi, bacteria, and protozoa
Microbiological contamination
122
Forms sludges or interfacial mats, having a slimy or stringy consistency and appearing as a black, brown or dark olive color
Microbiological contamination
123
If ___ could be eliminated from the fuel, microbiological contamination would no longer be a major concern
Free water
124
Another means of preventing microbiological contamination
The use of biocides
125
The only marine fuels that have built in protection against problems associated with long term storage
F-76 and F-44
126
Filter element clogged by unstable fuel products may appear ___
To be coated with a black gummy substance or a gel
127
Incompatibility will cause __
Rapid formation of particulate matter
128
DESC contract requirements for NPD MGO requires that if a sample fails a clear and bright visual testing, it must then be subjected to ___
A water & sediment centrifugal test
129
Max allowable water and sediment content in fuel is ___
0.05% vol
130
Only __ dye is used in fuel domestically
Red
131
___ dye may be found in fuel in some foreign ports
Blue/green
132
In the Mediterranean ___ dye may be found in fuel
Black
133
___ cutters should be participating in a joint CG/Navy/DESC In-line Fuel Quality Sampling Program
WHEC, WMEC, WAGB
134
Single most effective procedure for maintaining fuel quality
Tank stripping
135
Storage and service tanks are to be tested for free water content using ___
Bottom soundings and water indicating paste
136
When should testing for free water be performed?
Prior to receiving fuel (if the receiving tank had been ballasted)
24 hours after receiving fuel
On a monthly basis
137
Products which are toxic to microorganisms
Biocides
138
Approved biocides
Biobor JF
| Nalfleet 9-303
139
Containers of fuel treatment chemicals must be kept ___
Closed to the atmosphere and possible water contamination
140
Not authorized for use in place of biocides
Magnetic fuel treatments
141
Once severely contaminated fuel has been detected ___
Stop burning the fuel, isolate the storage tank, and contact your group engineer or type desk for assistance with tank cleaning
142
A liquid fuel additive that combats fungus and other microbial life in hydrocarbon fuels
Biobor JF
143
Acts to disperse sediments and bacterial slimes and prevents plugging in filters and fuel lines
Nalfleet 9-303
144
Often used onboard cutters as a means to purify fuel as it is being transferred and to ensure fuel stock quality
Centrifugal purifier
145
Purifiers separate contaminated fuel into three major components
Water (heavy phase)
Purified fuel (light phase)
Solids and/or sludge
146
In a purifier, separation is achieved by centrifugal force acting on the ____ of the components in the fuel
Varying densities
147
Continuously separates the contaminates from the fuel and returns the purified fuel to the ship's fuel system
Purifier
148
Water removed in a purifier is directed to ___
Waste oil tank
149
Turbine-powered helicopters are vulnerable to failures caused by fuel contamination because of ___
High fuel consumption rates and the sensitivity of fuel system components
150
Fuel system pressure shall not exceed ___ at the nozzle with the nozzle flow valve in the closed position
55 psi
151
Pressures higher than ___ may damage the helicopter fuel system
55 psi
152
Any casualty to the aviation fueling facility, including faulty or inoperative system components, test equipment, and uncontrollable water or particulate contamination results in ___
Decertification of the facility
153
There are ___ grades of turbine or jet fuel available for use by CG helicopters
3
154
Three grades of turbine or jet fuel
JP-4
JP-5
JP-8
155
Only aviation fuel authorized for use on cutters
JP-5
156
Helicopters should arrive onboard with only __ in the tanks whenever possible
JP-5
157
Blend of gasoline and kerosene with a flash point ranging from -10*F to +80*F
JP-4
158
Kerosene fuel with an intermediate flash point (100*F)
JP-8
159
Flash point of JP-4
-10*F to 80*F
160
Flash point of JP-8
100*F
161
Special precautions for helicopters arriving with JP-8
None, except they must be topped off with JP-5 prior to being hangared
162
In contrast to JP-4, contaminant removal from JP-5 is ___ because of its ___
More difficult
| Higher viscosity and density
163
A little as ___ JP-4 mixed with JP-5 will lower the flash point below the minimum of 140*F
5 percent
164
No sediment or water present
Clear
165
The fluorescent appearance that has no cloud or haze
Bright fuel
166
Fuel that contains no water
Dry fuel
167
Solids that are larger than ___ are coarse particles that can be seen with the naked eye
10 microns
168
Fine particles are less than ___ and may appear as a haze or cloudiness
10 microns
169
Remove water from the fuel by causing droplets to combine, making them heavier and permitting them to collect on the bottom
Coalescers
170
The process of removing water and other contaminants that settle out of fuel
Stripping
171
A canister containing several filter elements that ar designed to remove both water and particulate contamination from the fuel. As the elements become contaminated, they restrict the flow of fuel to the nozzle
GO-NO-GO Fuel monitor
172
Adequate settling time for solids to settle out of the fuel before it is withdrawn from the storage tanks
3 hours per foot of fuel depth above the stripping line
173
Best method to remove particulates from fuel
Recirculate the fuel through filters and/or separators
174
Particulate contamination can be held well below a level of ___ in a properly functioning fuel distribution system
1 mg/l
175
Water occurs in fuel in three forms
Dissolved
Entrained
Free water
176
The only type of water that can be drawn off or separated from the fuel
Free water
177
All fuels dissolve water in varying amounts depending upon ___
Fuel composition and temperature
178
Large slugs of free water can cause ___
Engine flameouts
179
Generally microorganisms can be found living at the fuel and water ___
Interface
180
The presence of visual microbiological growth in fuel being delivered to a helicopter is a reliable indication of the presence of ___
Free water and the failure of fuel cleanup equipment
181
The term surfactants is a contraction of ___
Surface active agents
182
Soap or detergent-like materials that occur naturally in fuel
Surfactants
183
Surfactants are more soluble in ___ than __
Water
| Fuel
184
Surfactants reduce the ___ between water and fuel
Interfacial tension
185
Surfactants, in large concentrations, usually appear as ___
Tan to dark brown liquid with a sudsy-like water and fuel interface
186
Provide only gross protection for coarse solid contamination
Strainers
187
The only strainer used in CG fuel systems is installed at the ___
Fueling nozzle
188
This unit both filters particles and separates water from fuel. It is usually a two-stage unit, within one enclosure
Filter-water separator (coalescer)
189
The two stages of a filter-water separator
The first stage acts as a filter and coalescer while the second stage separates the resulting larger droplets from the fuel
190
The filter in a filter-water separator should be sized to hold particles of a ___ size
5 micron
191
The date of the last filter change in the coalescer should be ___
Stenciled on the exterior of the units
192
The filter elements in a coalescer should be changed __
Every three years, when one million gallons of fuel have be dispensed, or when the differential pressure is 15 psi
193
After changing the coalescer filter, circulate ___ of fuel through the new elements to ensure that the fuel is clear and bright before placing the system back in service
2000 gallons
194
All CG shipboard aviation fuel dispensing systems are required to have a GO-NO-GO fuel monitor installed ____
Downstream of the last filter and/or separator
195
The filters within the GO-NO-GO canisters are rated at approximately ___
5 microns
196
Monitor the fuel for both water and particulate contamination, reducing both to acceptable levels
GO-NO-GO Fuel monitor
197
GO-NO-GO filter elements shall be replaced when the pressure differential across the monitor reaches ___
20 psi
198
If a reduction in fuel flow or an increase in differential pressure across the GO-NO-GO fuel monitor occurs while fueling the helicopter ___
A sample shall be taken from the helicopter and tested before resuming flight operations
199
__ vessels may not incorporate the use of GO-NO-GO filters
US Navy and NATO
200
Ensure that static charges do not build up that could possibly cause a spark
Static bonding cables
201
The helicopter must be ___ while fueling
Grounded to bare metal on the cutter
202
The gravity fueling nozzle ground wire shall be connected to the ___
Helicopter
203
A minimum of ___ feet of hose shall be permanently stowed on the hose reel in aviation fueling stations
150
204
The internal ground of the hose shall be checked when?
Upon installation and at least quarterly
205
Maximum allowable fuel hose resistance
1.5 ohms per foot over the entire length of the hose, including the nozzle
206
How often must JP-5 fueling hose be hydrostatically tested and flushed?
Annually and before placing a new hose in service or installing an older hose
207
Hydrostatic test the hose and HIFR rig assembly to ___ for ___ while inspecting the JP-5 fueling hose
150 psi
| 10 minutes
208
After hydrostatic testing of JP-5 fueling hose, flush until samples meet the maximum allowed contamination of ___
2 mg/l and 5 ppm of free water
209
A aviation fueling hose must be flushed at least ___ with enough fuel to ___
Once a week
| Turn over at least twice the volume of all fuel in the hose, piping system, and related equipment
210
How often should aviation fueling hoses be replaced at a minimum?
8 years
211
All nozzles used to dispense fuel to helicopters shall be of the ___ type
Self-closing
212
All nozzles used to dispense fuel to helicopters shall be of ___ construction with an installed ___-mesh screen
Non-sparking
| 100
213
All nozzles used to dispense fuel to helicopters shall be assembled to the hose with ___ couplings
Quick-disconnect
214
The preferred method of refueling the H-65 or the H-60 is ___
Pressure refueling with a single point nozzle
215
Each flight deck-equipped cutter shall have onboard, in good operating condition ___
Contaminated Fuel Detector Kit (AEL MK III)
Viewer kit, Free Water Fuel Detector Kit (AEL MK I)
B-2 Anti-icing Additive Fuel System Icing Inhibitor (FSII) Test kit, including the operating manuals
216
The JP-5 fuel system consists of three subsystems ___
Fill and storage system
Service system
Stripping system
217
Provides for the bulk storage of JP-5 fuel
Fill and storage system
218
Provides clean fuel for refueling helicopters. The system contains a pressure regulating valve to ensure system pressure does not exceed 55 psi at the nozzle
Service system
219
Any fuel circulated through the JP-5 hose shall not be discharged into the ___
JP-5 service tanks
220
Provides a means of removing water and particulates that have settled out to the bottom of fuel tanks and other components
Stripping system
221
An instruction plate and a diagram specifying the proper system alignment shall be permanently mounted in the ____, any deviations from this alignment must be approved by the ___
JP-5 pump room
| CO
222
To ensure a good fuel quality control program, three specific types of tests and inspections shall be conducted
Visual inspections
Detector kit tests
Laboratory analysis
223
To conduct a clear and bright test, use a clean glass container or laboratory beaker from __ to __ in size
1 qt
| 1 gal
224
The fuel sampling bottle should be ___
Round, with a relatively flat bottom, and should be as clean as possible
225
What ppe should be worn during fuel sampling?
Eye protection
226
Means the absence of any cloud, emulsion, readily visible particulate matter, or entrained water
Clear
227
Refers to the shiny appearance of clean, dry fuels
Bright
228
Swirl the fuel sample to create a ___
Vortex
229
Refueling clear and bright tests shall be conducted and the results reported to the aircraft within ___ from the time the aircraft departed the cutter
5 minutes
230
Light haze or cloud, may not be visible in the fuel
Entrained water
231
Droplets adhering to the sides of the bottle. Large amounts settled in the bottom of the fuel sample
Free water
232
Red or black powder, rouge, or grains. May appear as a dye-like material in the fuel
Rust
233
Crystalline, granular, or glass-like in the fuel sample
Sand or dust
234
Cloud in fuel
Air bubbles
235
White or gray powder or paste in the fuel sample
Aluminum or magnesium compounds
236
Red, brown, gray or black sticky material variously described as gelatinous, gummy, or like ketchup or mayo in the fuel sample
Stabilized emulsion
237
Lacy suds or scum at interface between fuel and water. Sometimes resembles jellyfish. In large concentrations, color may appear tan to dark brown
Surfactants
238
Which rust is magnetic and which is non magnetic?
Red rust is nonmagnetic
| Black rust is magnetic
239
If solid contaminants in the aircraft fuel dispensing points exceed 1 mg/l, notify ___
EO
240
Laboratory analysis of fuel samples serves two purposes ___
Validate the results of the shipboard tests/test kits and to provide a test for the fuel's flash point
241
If the flash point is out of range for JP-5, then fuel other than JP-5 is ___
Onboard and should be transferred off the cutter immediately
242
Fuel samples shall be taken for laboratory analysis when?
Quarterly
| Immediately after replenishing the storage tanks
243
Which tests shall be be requested when submitting fuel samples for laboratory analysis?
Sediment content
Flash point
FSII
244
The difference between the laboratory results and the unit results of the fuel sample shall fall within the following limits:
Sediment content: No action is necessary unless the differences between the two results are greater than ___
FSII: Variation by as much as ___ is considered acceptable
0. 8 mg/l
| 0. 03 percentage points
245
When sampling fuel for laboratory and unit testing, withdraw how many samples?
3
246
When taking fuel samples for laboratory analysis use what kind of bottles ___
Glass bottles with nonmetallic caps. Inner cap seals should not contain wax, paraffin, corrosive metal, or other material liable to contaminate the fuel
247
When taking fuel samples for laboratory analysis leave at least ___ of expansion space in the bottle
1/2 inch
248
A periodic sample taken as part of a quality surveillance program
Routine sample
249
Sample submitted for testing because the quality of the fuel is suspect, either as the result of a helicopter malfunction or other reasons
Special sample
250
Fuel samples are to be forwarded to the appropriate testing facilities by ___
Most expeditious means
251
Fuel samples in amount up to ___ may be shipped
10 gallons
252
Fuel samples shipped by military aircraft shall be packed IAW the requirements of ____
Joint Publication for Packaging and Handling of Dangerous Material for Transportation by Military Aircraft
253
Fuel hose inspections shall be performed ___ if an aircraft is on the cutter and ___ at other times
Weekly
| Monthly
254
Cutters operating an an area with a high volume of aircraft with potential need for fuel shall complete ___ hose inspections
Weekly
255
Fuel hose inspections shall be completed during ___
Daylight hours
256
Nozzle screens shall be inspected before ____. If helicopter operations are not being conducted, the screens shall be checked every time ___
The first fueling operation of the day
| After fuel is pumped through the hose
257
Fuel hose continuity shall be checked ___
Quarterly
258
Contaminants found on the nozzle screen should be ___
Examined closely to determine their source
259
When receiving JP-5 leave the fuel carrier stationary at the unloading point for at least ___ before onloading fuel to permit water and particulates to settle
10 minutes
260
If the flash point of the fuel to be onloaded cannot be verified
The fuel shall not be taken onboard
261
After receipt of the fuel in the cutter's aviation fuel system, allow at least ___ of settling time per foot of fuel depth above the stripping line, then ___
3 hours
| Strip the tanks of water
262
When a helicopter is onboard or helicopter operations are anticipated, strip the service tank ___
Daily before recirculation
263
Strip all tanks ___ when the cutter is in port
Weekly
264
When a helicopter is onboard or helicopter operations are anticipated, recirculate the service tanks contents through the service system filter and/or separator ___. At other times recirculate ___
Daily
| Weekly
265
FSII
Fuel System Icing Inhibitor
266
The only authorized FSII material
Di-ethylene glycol monomethyl ether (diEGME)
267
Lowers the freezing point of small quantities of free water in the fuel
FSII
268
Water removes ___ from fuel
FSII
269
The use of FSII is ___
Mandatory
270
The required level of FSII for CG aircraft is between ___
0.10% and 0.15% by volume
271
When cleaning fuel tanks, wash the tanks with ___ before __
High-pressure cold fresh water
| It has a chance to dry
272
Do not use what to clean fuel tanks?
Steam
273
To avoid over-pressurization of the H-60 fuel system, static pressure refueling should take place with the cutter's ___ applied
400 HZ/115 VAC power
274
During APU-assisted hot refueling, the APU is a potential ___
Fuel ignition source
275
The presence of flammable liquid and/or explosive materials is not permitted within ___ of the flight deck peripheral lines
25 feet
276
Repeated or prolonged exposure to benzene has been associated with various blood disorders ranging from __
Anemia to leukemia
277
When exposed to JP-5 with less than or equal to 10 ppm benzene what ppe must be worn?
Half mask air purifying respirator with organic vapor cartridge
278
When exposed to JP-5 with less than or equal to 50 ppm benzene what ppe must be worn?
Full facepiece air purifying respirator with organic vapor cartridge
279
When exposed to JP-5 with less than or equal to 100 ppm benzene what ppe must be worn?
Full facepiece powered air purifying respirator with organic vapor cartridges
280
When exposed to JP-5 with less than or equal to 1000 ppm benzene what ppe must be worn?
Full facepiece supplied air respirator in positive pressure mode
281
When exposed to JP-5 with greater than 1000 ppm benzene or an unknown concentration what ppe must be worn?
SCBA in positive pressure mode
282
During all on-deck fueling operations, no emissions through shipboard transmitters are permitted through antennas within ___ of a helicopter
25 feet
283
During all on-deck fueling operations, no emissions from shipboard transmitters with a rated power output equal to or greater than ___ are permitted through antennas located within 50 feet of the helicopter
500 watts
284
During all on-deck fueling operations, shipboard antennas capable of ___ of the helicopter shall be secured
Main beam illumination
285
Static bonding cables shall be attached only to __ on helicopters
Specified grounding points
286
Do not attach static bonding cables to __
Radio antennas, drains, hydraulic lines, or access doors
287
Do not ___ batteries during fueling
Connect or disconnect
288
Do not perform fueling operations if ___ is in the immediate area
An electrical storm
289
Personnel should discharge static electrical charges on their person by ___ before conducting any fueling operations
Contacting one of the grounding connections
290
Use only ___ for inspecting hazardous areas
Explosion proof flashlights or extension lights
291
Do not use ___ nozzles for helicopter refueling
Automatic hold-open gravity
292
No JP-5 fuel filter may be bypassed during helicopter refueling operations without the concurrence of ___
CO, EO, PIC
293
Installed at the fueling nozzle as a final barrier against particulate contamination
Strainer
294
What kind of fuel hoses should be used in aviation fueling?
Those specifically built for aviation fuel servicing
295
Responsible for the safe receipt, handling, transfer, and usage of L/O for CG cutters and boats
Engineering department
296
Collect synthetic lube oils and hydraulic oils separately from ___
Other waste/used oil
297
Vessels that do not have a system dedicated to collect used synthetic oils shall use ___
5 or 55 gallon steel containers for eventual shore recycling
298
Do what with containers in which oil products were originally packaged
Retain them and properly label them for storing and transferring oil ashore
299
Vessels shall ___ oil and fuel filters and other items soaked with oil for ___
Containerize
| Shore disposal
300
Ships shall store all rags that are not incinerated or recycled aboard in suitable closed containers designed to contain flammable or combustible materials in a space fitted with ___
Adequate ventilation and fire suppression systems
301
Requires the use of recycled oil whenever possible
Greening the Government through Waste Prevention, Recycling, and Federal Acquisition, Executive Order 1301
302
Do not add packaged lube oil directly to operating machinery. All packaged lube oil shall be ____ when servicing equipment
Filtered through a 60 mesh or finer screen
303
Four basic types of oil contamination
Fuel dilution
Acid contamination
Water
Insolubles
304
Spectrometric analysis for wear metals and physical property tests of lube oils are completed whenever a sample is submitted to __
Navy Oil Analysis Program (NOAP)
305
Iron contamination in oil indicates wear on ___
Anti-friction bearings, gears, cam shafts, oil pumps, cylinder liners, piston rings
306
Aluminum contamination in oil indicates wear on ___
Bearing, pistons, pumps, cylinder heads
307
Magnesium contamination in oil indicates ___
Salt water or contaminated fuel
308
Nickel contamination in oil indicates wear on ___
Valves, crankshaft
309
Molybdenum contamination in oil indicates wear on ___
Piston rings
310
Silicon contamination in oil indicates ___
Airborne sand/air filters
311
Boron, Sodium, and Potassium contamination in oil indicates ___
Commonly found additives in coolant, might indicate an internal water leak
312
Sodium contamination in oil indicates ___
May also be associated with sea water contamination
313
Zinc contamination in oil indicates ____
Anti-wear additive to reduce friction
314
Oil sampling lab recommendation code A
Sample results normal, continue routine sampling
315
Oil sampling lab recommendation code H
Inspect unit and advise lab of findings. Abnormal wear indicated by (ppm) (element). Resample after (time frame)
316
Oil sampling lab recommendation code K
Impending failure, critical wear indicated by (element). Inspect unit and advise lab of finding. Resample after (timeframe)
317
Oil sampling lab recommendation code U
Cooling system leak indicated by (Mg/CR/Na/B). Inspect unit and advise lab of findings. Resample after (timeframe)
318
Oil sampling lab recommendation code D
Change oil and service filters. Resample after (hours of operation)
319
Oil sampling lab recommendation code B
Resample as soon as possible, do not change oil
320
Oil sampling lab recommendation code F
Do not change oil. Submit sample after test run. Do not operate until after receipt of lab results or advice
321
Oil sampling lab recommendation code P
Do not operate, do not change oil, submit resample as soon as possible
322
The only difference between the components of a lube oil or fuel oil purifier
The presence of a heater on lube oil purifiers
323
Water of drinking quality
Potable water
324
Potable water is treated with an approved ____ to ensure it is safe for human consumption
Halogen disinfectant
325
Two halogen disinfectants approved for use in CG systems
Bromine
| Chlorine
326
Responsible for the receipt, distribution, testing, and quality of potable water
Engineering department personnel and/or medical department representatives
327
When shore water quality is in doubt, the ___ shall investigate the water source, examine the water, and advise the command
EPO
328
Member of the halogen group and is characterized as a heavy, mobile, reddish-brown liquid, vaporizing readily at room temperature to a red vapor with a strong disagreeable odor
Bromine
329
Bromine used for CG purposes comes in ___
Slightly corrosive bromine-impregnated resin cartridge
330
Potable water with bromine levels exceeding ___ should not be ingested
2.7 mg/l
331
If the skin or eyes come in contact with bromine, flush for how long?
30 minutes
332
Chlorine for shipboard and shore-side use is typically available in two forms
```
Calcium hypochlorite (granular) (HTH)
Sodium hypochlorite (liquid)
```
333
On larger cutters this chlorine is used most often
Calcium hypochlorite
334
If the skin or eyes come in contact with chlorine, flush for how long?
30 minutes
335
Disinfecting water using halogens destroys ___
Pathogenic organisms
336
FAC
Free Available Chlorine
337
TBR
Total Bromine Residual
338
The FAC and TBR are the measured amounts of ___
Halogen residual contained throughout the potable water system after a 30 minute contact period
339
FAC and TBR are measured in ___
ppm
340
Minimum FAC or TBR reading
0.2 ppm
341
A measure of acidity or alkalinity in which pure water is 7, with lower numbers indicating acidity and higher number indicating alkalinity
pH level
342
When should potable water be tested for FAC or TBR?
Before receiving water onboard
Daily
Part of the treatment process, after 30 minutes contact time
343
Alkaline levels of ___ adversely affect chlorine's or bromine's disinfecting properties
8.5 or higher
344
Two types of mechanical bromination systems used for the treatment of potable water
Automatic proportioning brominator
| Recirculating brominator
345
Installed in the distillate discharge line. Brominators of this type are capable of feeding bromine at two feed rates
Automatic proportioning brominator
346
Circulates water to and from a potable water tank. Brominators of this type offer flexibility in recirculating and brominating shipboard water from external sources and increasing bromine levels if necessary
Recirculating brominator
347
When purchasing over the counter bleach for use in the batch chlorination method, every effort should be made to ensure that is contains no additional ___
Surfactants or scent additives
348
Engineering departments shall maintain a ____ chronological record of potable water monitoring
Two year
349
CAS
Compressed Air Systems
350
HP air
Above 1000 psi
351
MP air
151 to 1000 psi
352
LP air
Up to 150 psi
353
DSA systems normally fall into the ___ air classification
MP
354
SSA systems are generally considered ___ air systems
LP
355
Most widely used CAS in the CG
LP
356
Generally provide air to distribution systems for pneumatic tools and various other common functions onboard ships
LP
357
A piece of machinery that draws in ambient air, pressurizes this air, and delivers in to the air receiver/air flask or the end user
Air compressor
358
Capable of holding compressed air in pressures below 600 psi
Air receiver
359
Capable of holding compressed air in pressures above 600 psi
Air flask
360
Adjustment of the spring loaded pressure reducing valve is achieved by __
Rotating the adjusting screw
361
Installed on systems in which excessive pressure may cause damage to the equipment or personnel
Pressure relief valves
362
Relieve excess system pressure in a controlled manner
Pressure relief valves
363
Adjustment of a pressure relief valve is achieved by ___
Rotating the adjusting screw
364
Devices intended to remove moisture from compressed air
Moisture separator
365
When opening air valves, the rate of pressure rise should be kept under ___
200 psi/sec
366
Moisture separators or air oilers of installed CAS for service below 125 psi are equipped with ___
Plastic or metal bowls
367
Moisture separators or air oilers of installed CAS for service above 125 psi are equipped with ___
Metal bowls
368
If plastic bowls are used for the moisture separator or air oiler, it shall have ___
Threaded inserts and metal guards
369
Generally the first indication that there is a problem with the CAS is ___
Air with excessive moisture
Insufficient air pressure
Insufficient air volume
370
In most manufacturers technical manuals for CAS you will find a ___ that may be utilized to help diagnose problems with the system or its components
Troubleshooting guide
371
Daily potable water tests shall be logged on the ___
Potable water quality log CG-5648
372
CAS
Compressed Air Systems
373
HP air
Above 1000 psi
374
MP air
151 to 1000 psi
375
LP air
Up to 150 psi
376
DSA systems normally fall into the ___ air classification
MP
377
SSA systems are generally considered ___ air systems
LP
378
Most widely used CAS in the CG
LP
379
Generally provide air to distribution systems for pneumatic tools and various other common functions onboard ships
LP
380
A piece of machinery that draws in ambient air, pressurizes this air, and delivers in to the air receiver/air flask or the end user
Air compressor
381
Capable of holding compressed air in pressures below 600 psi
Air receiver
382
Capable of holding compressed air in pressures above 600 psi
Air flask
383
Adjustment of the spring loaded pressure reducing valve is achieved by __
Rotating the adjusting screw
384
Installed on systems in which excessive pressure may cause damage to the equipment or personnel
Pressure relief valves
385
Relieve excess system pressure in a controlled manner
Pressure relief valves
386
Adjustment of a pressure relief valve is achieved by ___
Rotating the adjusting screw
387
Devices intended to remove moisture from compressed air
Moisture separator
388
When opening air valves, the rate of pressure rise should be kept under ___
200 psi/sec
389
Moisture separators or air oilers of installed CAS for service below 125 psi are equipped with ___
Plastic or metal bowls
390
Moisture separators or air oilers of installed CAS for service above 125 psi are equipped with ___
Metal bowls
391
If plastic bowls are used for the moisture separator or air oiler, it shall have ___
Threaded inserts and metal guards
392
Generally the first indication that there is a problem with the CAS is ___
Air with excessive moisture
Insufficient air pressure
Insufficient air volume
393
In most manufacturers technical manuals for CAS you will find a ___ that may be utilized to help diagnose problems with the system or its components
Troubleshooting guide
394
Daily potable water tests shall be logged on the ___
Potable water quality log CG-5648
395
In a compressed air system, the heat of compression caused by a sudden high-pressure flow into an empty line or vessel can cause an ___ if oil is present
Explosion
