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From Flashcardlet > FMS Exam 3 Review > Flashcards

FMS Exam 3 Review Flashcards

0
Q

The predominant phagocytic cells in the later stages of the immune response are:

A

monocytes

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1
Q

When looking at white blood cell differentials, PAs know that individuals have early acute inflammatory reactions when they notice elevation of which leukocyte?

A

neutrophils

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2
Q

What is the role of eosinophils in regulating vascular mediators released from mast cells?

A

eosinophils release histaminase that inhibit the effects of histamine during acute inflammatory response

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3
Q

Which cytokines are produced and released from virally infected host cells?

A

IFN-a & IFN-b

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4
Q

which manifestation of inflammation is systemic?

A

fever and leukocytosis

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5
Q

one systemic manifestation of the acute inflammatory response is fever that is produced by _____ on the hypothalamus.

A

endogenous pyrogens acting

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6
Q

What occurs during the process of repair after tissue damage?

A

destroyed tissue is replaced by nonfunctioning scar tissue

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7
Q

A keloid is the result of what dysfunctional wound healing response?

A

collagen matrix assembly

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8
Q

The role of fibroblasts during the reconstructive phase of wound healing is to:

A

synthesize and secrete collagen and connective tissue proteins

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9
Q

which solution is best to use when cleaning a wound healing by epithelialization?

A

normal saline

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10
Q

Many neonates have a transient depressed inflammatory response because of a(n):

A

deficiency in complement and chemotaxis

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11
Q

Many older adults have an impaired inflammation and wound healing because of a(n):

A

underlying chronic illness

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12
Q

T/F Colonization is the first stage of infection.

A

TRUE

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13
Q

Viruses have no metabolism and are incapable of independent reproduction

A

TRUE

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14
Q

T/F Endotoxins are lipopolysaccharides (LPS) contained in the cell wall of gram-negative bacteria and released during lysis of the bacteria.

A

TRUE

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15
Q

T/F All viruses have a protein receptor-binding site on their surface that adheres to specific binding site on the host cell.

A

TRUE

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16
Q

T/F One person with HIV cannot transmit the virus to others until the HIV antibodies are detected.

A

FALSE

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17
Q

Which microorganisms use skin as their main site of reproduction?

A

bacteria and fungi

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18
Q

Once they have penetrated the first line of defense, which microorganisms do NK actively attack?

A

viruses

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19
Q

Once they have penetrated the first line of defense, which microorganisms do neutrophils actively attach, engulf, and destroy by phagocytosis?

A

Bacteria

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20
Q

What are characteristics of exotoxins?

A

They are released during bacterial growth

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21
Q

Which statement is true about fungal infections?

a. They occur only on skin, hair, and nails
b. They are controlled by phagocytes and T lymphocytes
c. They result in the release of endotoxins
d. They are prevented by vaccines
A

B. They are controlled by phagocytes and T lymphocytes

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22
Q

Cytokines are thought to raise the thermoregulatory set point to cause fever by stimulating the synthesis of which chemical mediator?

A

Prostaglandins

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23
Q

T/F Vaccines require booster injection to maintain lifelong protection.

A

TRUE

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24
Q

Vaccines against viruses are made from:

A

live organisms weakened to produce antigens, which limits controllable infection

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25
Q

What is the role of reverse transcriptase in HIV infection?

A

It converts RNA into double-stranded DNA

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26
Q

Which secretion transmits HIV?

A

breast milk

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27
Q

Which cells are primary targets for HIV?

A

CD4+ Th cells ONLY

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28
Q

Cells in the _____ may act as a reservoir in which HIV can be relatively protected from antiviral drugs.

A

CNS

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29
Q

A major immunologic find in AIDS is the striking decrease in which cells?

A

CD4+ Th cells

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30
Q

HIV antibodies appear within _____ weeks after infection through blood products.

A

4 to 7

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31
Q

After sexual transmission of HIV, a person can be infective but seronegative for ____ months.

A

6 to 14

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32
Q

ability of the pathogen to invade and multiply in the host

A

infectivity

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33
Q

potency of a pathogen measured in terms of the number of microorganisms or micrograms of toxin required to kill the host.

A

virulence

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34
Q

an important factor in determining a pathogen’s ability to produce a disease by production of a soluble toxin

A

toxigenicity

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35
Q

the ability of an agent to produce a disease

A

pathogenicity

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36
Q

what is a fungal infection such as ringworms?

A

mycoses

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37
Q

staining makes microscopic observation possible of which microorganisms?

A

bacteria

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38
Q

Which microorganisms survive by hiding within cells to avoid triggering an immune respons?

A

viruses

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39
Q

Which microorganisms produce a “self” coat by binding to the antigens?

A

fungi

40
Q

T/F Nonpathogenic bacteria in the GI tract produce chemicals that inhibit colonization of pathogenic microorganisms.

A

TRUE

41
Q

T/F Many of the normal bacterial flora in the intestines produce vitamin K and assist with absorption of calcium, iron, and magnesium

A

TRUE

42
Q

T/F Opsonization is the process that renders bacteria more susceptible to phagocytsis

A

TRUE

43
Q

T/F Eosinophils phagocytize parasites

A

TRUE

44
Q

One purpose of the inflammatory process is to;

A

create immunity against subsequent tissue injury

45
Q

Which bacterium grows in the intestines after prolonged antibiotic therapy?

A

Clostridium difficile

46
Q

What causes the edema that occurs during the inflammatory response process?

A

increased capillary permeability

47
Q

What process causes heat and redness that occur during the inflammatory proceess?

A

vasodilation

48
Q

____ may activate the complement system

A

antigen-antibody complex

49
Q

Which component of the plasma protein system tags pathogenic microorganisms for destruction by neutrophils and macrophages?

A

complement cascade

50
Q

What is a vascular effect of histamine released from mast cells?

A

vasodilation

51
Q

What is the function of the complement cascade called opsonization?

A

the tagging of pathogenic microorganisms for destruction by neutrophils and microorganisms

52
Q

What are the inflammatory effects of NO?

A

it decreases mast cell function and platelet aggregation

53
Q

What is the correct sequence of events for phagocytosis?

A
  1. recognition
  2. engulfment
  3. fusion
  4. destruction
54
Q

The primary characteristic that differentiates the immune response from other protective mechanisms is that the immune response is:

A

specific to the antigen that initiates it

55
Q

B lymphocytes mature and undergo changes that commit them to becoming B cells in the:

A

bone marrow

56
Q

What is the term for the process in which lymphoid stem cells migrate from the bone marrow to the central lymphoid organs where they undergo changes into immunocompetent T or immunocompetent B cells?

A

generation of clonal diversity

57
Q

Which type of immunity is produced by an individual after either natural exposure to the antigen or after immunization against the antigen?

A

active acquired

58
Q

What type of immunity is produced when an immunoglobulin crosses the placenta?

A

passive acquired

59
Q

The portion of the antigen that is configured for recognition and binding is called antigenic determinant or a(n):

A

epitope

60
Q

the most important determinant of immunogenicity is an antigens:

A

foreigness

61
Q

When antigens are administered to individuals to produce immunity, why are different routes of administration used?

A

each route stimulates a different lymphocyte-containing tissue resulting in different types of cellular and humoral immunity

62
Q

How are the functions of MHC and CD1 molecules alike?

A

they both are APCs

63
Q

antibodies are produced in:

A

plasma cells

64
Q

Which immunoglobulin is found in blood, saliva, breast milk, and respiratory secretions?

A

IgA

65
Q

Which antibody indicates a typical primary immune response?

A

IgM

66
Q

If a person had very low levels of Ig___, that person is more susceptible to infections of the mucous membranes.

A

IgA

67
Q

During which phase of life do the generation of clonal diversity occur?

A

in the fetus

68
Q

What are characteristics of general of clonal diveristy?

A

the process takes place in primary lymphoid organs

69
Q

Which are characteristics of clonal selection?

A

the process involves antigens selecting those lymphocytes with compatible receptors

70
Q

What is an example of an endogenous antigen?

A

cancer cells

71
Q

Which cytokine is need for the maturation of functional helper T cells?

A

IL-2

72
Q

when a person is exposed to antigens, how long does it take before an antibody can be detected in circulation?

A

6 days

73
Q

Vaccinations are able to provide protection against certain microorganisms because of the:

A

level of protection provided by IgG

74
Q

some viruses, such as measles and herpes, are not accessible to antibodies after the initial infection because they;

A

do not circulate in the blood

75
Q

What is an example of a bacterial toxin that has been inactivated, but still retains its immunogenicity to protect the person?

A

tetanus

76
Q

antibodies protect the host from bacterial toxins by:

A

binding to the toxins to neutralize their biologic effects

77
Q

Which T cell controls or limits the immune response to protect the host’s own tissue against an autoimmune response?

A

Regulatory T (Treg) cells

78
Q

At birth, samples of blood from the umbilical cord indicate which immunoglobulin levels, if any, are near adult levels?

A

IgG

79
Q

Increased age may cause what change in lymphocyte function?

A

increased production of antibodies against self-antigens

80
Q

hypersensitivity is best described as a(n):

A

altered immunologic response to an antigen that results in disease

81
Q

the hypersensitivity reaction that occurs after a person who is allergic to bee stings is stung by a bee is called:

A

anaphylaxis

82
Q

common hay fever allergy is expressed through a reaction that is mediated by:

A

IgE

83
Q

The class of antibody involved in type I hypersensitivity reactions is:

A

IgE

84
Q

Blood transfusion reactions are examples of:

A

alloimmunity

85
Q

During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, which leukocyte is activated?

A

Eosinophils

86
Q

During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, what causes bronchospasm?

A

smooth muscle contraction caused by histamine bound to the H1 receptor

87
Q

During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, the degranulation of mast cells is a result of the action of ____ receptors.

A

histamine bound to H2

88
Q

What is characteristic of atopic individuals who are genetically predisposed to develop allergies?

A

They produce greater quantities of IgE than any other individual

89
Q

What is the mechanism in type II hypersensitivity reactions?

A

antibodies bind to antigens on the cell surface

90
Q

In a type II hypersensitivity reaction, when mismatched blood is administered causing an ABO incompatibility, the erythrocytes are destroyed by:

A

complement-mediated cell lysis

91
Q

in a type II hypersensitivity reaction, when antibodies are formed against RBC antigens of the Rh system, the blood cells are destroyed by:

A

phagocytosis in the spleen

92
Q

In type II hypersensitivity reaction, when mismatched blood is administered causing an ABO incompatibility, the RBCs are destroyed by:

A

complement mediated cell lysis

93
Q

In Graves’ disease (hyperthyroidism), autoantibodies bind to and activate receptors for TSH so that excessive T4 is secreted causing clinical manifestations of increased metabolism. This mechanism is an example of which type II hypersensitivity reaction?

A

modulation

94
Q

What is the mechanism in type III hypersensitivity reactions?

A

antibodies bind to soluble antigens that were released into body fluids and the immune complexes are deposited into tissues

95
Q

What is the mechanism of type IV hypersensitivity reaction?

A

cytotoxic t-lymphocytes or lymphokine-producing Th1 cells attack and destroy cellular targets directly

96
Q

When a tuberculin skin test is positive, the hard center and erythema surrounding the induration are a result of

A

T lymphocytes and macrophages

97
Q

What disease involves the deposition of circulating immune complexes containing an antibody against host DNA, resulting in tissue damage?

A

SLE Systemic lupus erythematosus

98
Q

which blood cells carry the carbohydrate antigens for blood type?

A

erythrocytes

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