FO CLASS #10-Week of 41419 Ladder 6Pgs 1-,AUC149, Emergency-Steam,Evol 33, 33A, 34,RegsCh17,19 20 22InstructorBC Chris Paolicelli Flashcards Preview

Fire Officer Spring 2019 > FO CLASS #10-Week of 41419 Ladder 6Pgs 1-,AUC149, Emergency-Steam,Evol 33, 33A, 34,RegsCh17,19 20 22InstructorBC Chris Paolicelli > Flashcards

Flashcards in FO CLASS #10-Week of 41419 Ladder 6Pgs 1-,AUC149, Emergency-Steam,Evol 33, 33A, 34,RegsCh17,19 20 22InstructorBC Chris Paolicelli Deck (56)
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1
Q
  1. A ladder company drilling on the deployment of the Fire Window Blanket would be correct to state which one of the following choices? (Evolution 33 3.3.3, 4.1, 4.3, 4.4)
    A. Firefighters deploying the blanket from a window above the fire apartment must not remove the window to deploy the blanket unless absolutely necessary.
    B. Only ladder companies or SOC units may be used to deploy the blanket.
    C. Due to the length of the supporting straps, the blanket may only be lowered from one floor above the fire. The blanket is only large enough to cover one window.
    D. Just after the blanket is put in place, the IC must make a HT announcement to all units. All units must be instructed to report any adverse conditions caused by the blanket being put in place.
A

A - 4.1 Any unit or units may be used to deploy the blanket. - 4.3 Due to the length of the top supporting straps, the blanket can be lowered from two floors
above if the IC deems this necessary. - 4.4 Just before the blanket is put in place, the IC must make a handi-talkie announcement to
all units. All units must be instructed to report any adverse conditions caused by the
blanket being put in place.

2
Q
  1. A firefighter arriving on the floor above a fire in which the KO Curtain may be deployed took the following steps in order to obtain an accurate description of the effect the wind may have in the fire apartment. Which step was taken incorrectly? (Evolution 34 3.2.1)
    A. He forced entry into the apartment above the fire and immediately closed the door after entering the apartment.
    B. He communicated the layout of the apartment to the officers in the fire apartment.
    C. He evaluated the wind condition and relayed his findings to the IC and officers on the fire floor.
    D. He removed the window bars and child guards from the window to be used for KO Curtain deployment.
A

A -  Chock open the entrance door to the apartment above.

3
Q
  1. The firefighter in the previous question is now preparing to deploy the curtain. Of the following steps taken, which one was taken properly? (Evolution 34 5.2, 5.3, 5.4, 5.7)
    A. Prior to deployment the firefighter had his SCBA in Standby Mode, ready to use if the fire or smoke auto exposed into the apartment above.
    B. Since window bars blocked the window directly above the target window, he chose an adjacent window to deploy the curtain from.
    C. The KO Curtain was deployed in the horizontal position.
    D. Once he and the receiving firefighter were in position and ready to deploy the curtain, the 2nd ladder officer was notified.
A

D - The Deployment firefighter must have their facepiece on and full PPE donned when
deploying the KO Curtain. This will protect the Deployment firefighter from unexpected
auto-exposure which will subject them to fire, smoke and superheated gases. - The KO Curtain shall NEVER be deployed in the horizontal position. - The Deployment Firefighter, located above the fire, chooses the Deployment Window
which must be directly above the Target Window.

4
Q
  1. Con Edison supplies high-pressure steam to nearly 2,000 buildings from 96th Street to the Battery in Manhattan through more than 100 miles of buried high-pressure steam pipe. Choose an incorrect choice regarding these high-pressure systems. EMERGENCY PROCEDURES - STEAM SYSTEMS (1.1, 1.2, 4.2)
    A. The steam is generated in plants located in Manhattan, Brooklyn and Queens and is piped underground to the users in Manhattan.
    B. Concrete slabs typically cover steam vaults with access manholes placed in threes.
    C. Con Edison is not the only entity generating high-pressure steam in NYC. High-pressure steam, generated for use in hospitals, housing complexes and various commercial locations may be found in any borough.
    D. Under ground steam pipes are most commonly wrapped in asbestos insulation which will likely result in an asbestos release over a large area if the piping is damaged.
A

B - Concrete slabs typically cover steam vaults

with access manholes placed in pairs.

5
Q
  1. A Lieutenant drilling with his members on high-pressure steam emergencies states the following points. In which statement was he incorrect? EMERGENCY PROCEDURES - STEAM SYSTEMS (2.1, 3.1)
    A. Leaking steam presents as a white mist.
    B. Steam pressures in generating plants can be as high as 2,000 psi with temperatures reaching 900 degrees F.
    C. Steam pressures in the buried supply piping and in supplied buildings can be as high as 170 psi and temperatures as high as 350 degrees F.
    D. Water slugs, which can cause damage to the piping, can be pushed through the piping by the steam at speeds as high as 200 mph.
A

A - 2.1 Steam is invisible. The white mist seen is the condensate that forms when steam cools.

6
Q
  1. Ladder 3 arrives at the scene of a reported steam leak in the street. The officer notices a Con Edison vent stack with a blue stripe placed over a manhole. The officer would be correct to know that the blue stripe indicates which choice? EMERGENCY PROCEDURES - STEAM SYSTEMS (4.3)
    A. Con Edison employees are working inside the manhole.
    B. The steam issuing from the manhole is the result of a leaking steam main.
    C. The steam is the result of a water leak.
    D. An adjacent building has suffered a High Energy Line Break.
A

C -

7
Q
  1. Manhattan units respond to report of smoke in a high-rise building. Upon arrival units determine the building has a High Energy Line Break (HELB), which is filling the building with superheated steam. The Chief orders your unit to shut the steam to the building. You would be correct to take which action? EMERGENCY PROCEDURES - STEAM SYSTEMS (4.4)
    A. Shut the Inside Service Valve, found in the steam control room.
    B. Shut the curb valve, located in the vicinity of the main entrance.
    C. Shut the building steam shutoff located outside the building near the location of the utility room.
    D. Shut the street valve, if it is able to be located.
A

A - a) In an emergency, members may shut the Inside Service Valve. It will be labeled
and sealed. If possible, wait for Con Ed steam personnel to shut the necessary
valves. - d) There is a building steam shutoff located outside the building. FD members
should not attempt to shut this valve. This valve should only be shut by Con
Edison steam personnel.

8
Q
  1. FDNY units are operating at the scene of a High-Energy Line Break in the street on Lexington Avenue. The break caused an explosion, damaging surrounding buildings and filling the area with debris. At this operation, units would be correct to take all but which one of the following actions? EMERGENCY PROCEDURES - STEAM SYSTEMS (4.2)
    A. Establish a Staging Area where units will not become contaminated by asbestos and where communications are effective.
    B. Approach the HELB from upwind and stay clear of the vapor plume.
    C. Consider evacuating buildings from the rear or side entrances to avoid the Exclusion Zone.
    D. Consider activating the HVAC systems of nearby buildings to provide fresh air to the occupants.
A

D - Consider shutting the HVAC systems of nearby buildings.

9
Q
  1. According to CIMS, a major steam emergency will have what type of Command? (AUC 276 Addendum 1 1.1)
    A. Single Command, with FDNY as the primary agency.
    B. Single Command, with NYPD as the primary agency.
    C. Unified Command, with FDNY and NYPD as the primary agency.
    D. Single Command, with Con Edison as the primary agency.
A

B

10
Q
  1. Of the following leaves of absence how many shall be deducted from a member’s annual leave balance? REGULATIONS (17.1.8)
    1) Emergency leave extensions (not repaid within 90 days)
    2) Special leaves with pay
    3) Leaves for legal appearances not involving City business
    4) Bereavement leaves
    5) Military leaves not exceeding 30 days annually
    6) Leaves for legal appearances that involve City business
    A. 6 B. 5 C. 4 D. 3
A

D 1, 2, 3 - The following leaves of absence shall not be deducted from annual leave
allowance:
A. Bereavement leaves.
B. Leaves for legal appearances (as per PA/ID 1-98), that involve City
business.
C. Special leaves for attendance of delegates and alternates at State or
National Conventions of Veterans Organizations, as authorized annually
in the Proclamation of Mayor.
D. Special leaves granted to officials of Fire Department Labor
Organizations, as authorized by Executive Order No. 75, 1973.
E. Military leaves not exceeding 30 days annually, as authorized by State
Military Law.
F. First scheduled tour of emergency leaves.

11
Q
  1. Special Leaves of absence (without pay) shall be applied for in writing at least ______ hours in advance of such leave, and include all pertinent information and reasons for request. (17.5.1)
    A. 24 B. 48 C. 72 D. 96
A

A - 17.5.1 Special leaves of absence (without pay) shall be applied for in writing at least 24 hours in advance of such leave, and include all pertinent information and reasons for request.

12
Q
3. Members shall be granted an Emergency Leave for a serious illness of all but which family member listed below? (17.4.1)
A. The child of a member
B. The father-in-law of a member
C. The sister of a member
D. The mother of a member
A

B - 17.4.1 Deputy Chiefs shall, when notified of serious illness of a spouse, child, parent (step, foster or natural), brother or sister of a member, grant an emergency leave to member. Deputy Chief granting such leave shall complete and forward form BP-603.

13
Q
  1. Captain Johnson has four Military Veterans on his company roster. Which member(s) would not be eligible to earn compensatory time on the upcoming Memorial Day? (May be more than one correct) (17.5.5)
    A. FF Jones, whose group is scheduled to work the 9x6 tour, but is off on a mutual.
    B. FF James, whose group is not scheduled in for the 9x6, but is working a mutual.
    C. FF Smith, whose group is not scheduled to work the 9x6 tour, but has been hired for
    MSOT.
    D. FF Thomas, whose group is scheduled to work the 9x6 tour, but is on Military Leave.
A

B-
The eligibility of a member for compensatory time shall not be affected by mutual exchange of tours. It shall be considered as if no mutual exchange of tours was made and eligible member who was scheduled, in accordance with working charts, to perform duty either named holiday, shall be entitled to actual or compensatory time.

14
Q
5. Commanding Officers shall forward Veteran’s Reports (BP-93) within \_\_\_\_\_\_ days after the date the veteran’s holiday duty was performed. The form shall be prepared in \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. (17.5.6)
A. 7/ duplicate
B. 7/ triplicate
C. 4/ duplicate
D. 4/ triplicate
A

D - Commanding officers of all units shall forward reports on prescribed form (BP- 93) within four days after date veterans holiday duty was performed. The form shall be prepared in triplicate

15
Q
  1. During a Roll Call a Lieutenant and her members are discussing the rules of Vacation leaves. Which statement made was incorrect? (17.7.1, 17.7.5, 17.7.7, 17.7.9)
    A. All Vacation leaves shall begin and end at 0900 hours on dates indicated in vacation schedules.
    B. A firefighter assigned to a new unit shall have their Vacation Letter assigned by the Company Commander of the new unit, in order to balance the company roster.
    C. Vacation leaves shall not be granted to probationary firefighters until after completion of six months as a firefighter 6th grade.
    D. When members are on medical leave, or are granted a medical leave within five days immediately prior to the scheduled vacation period, Commanding officers shall promptly notify BHS.
A

B - A firefighter assigned to a new unit shall retain the previously assigned vacation letter for the remainder of the calendar year.

16
Q
  1. A Captain overhears two junior firefighters discussing mutual exchanges of vacation leave. The Captain should have corrected which statement made regarding these exchanges? (17.7.11)
    A. Members shall be permitted to apply for mutual exchanges of partial or full vacation
    periods, but not more than one application involving either member shall be made in one
    calendar year.
    B. Applications for exchanges of partial leaves shall be for similar periods; i.e.: 1st for 1st; or 2nd for 2nd
    C. A fourth or fifth grade firefighter may exchange vacation only with another firefighter of either fourth or fifth grade.
    D. Mutual exchanges must be between full duty members currently working the two-platoon system in field units.
A

C - A fifth or sixth grade firefighter may exchange vacation only with another firefighter of either fifth or sixth grade.

17
Q
8. When a member, on or off duty, suffers a heart attack or suspected heart attack, the officer on duty in his/her unit must forward a report to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ showing in detail the work and activity records of the member for the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ hours prior to the attack. (17.12.15)
A. BHS / 72
B. BHS / 48
C. Bureau of Operations / 72
D. Bureau of Operations / 48
A

A - When a member, on or off duty, suffers a heart attack or suspected heart attack, the officer on duty in his/her unit must forward a report to the Bureau of Health Services showing in detail the work and activity records of the member for the 72 hours prior to the attack. The report must include if attack occurred on or off duty; dates and tours of duty worked; response to alarms; nature and length of duty performed; e.g. training, inspectional and maintenance activities.

18
Q
  1. Company commanders shall have charge of company quarters, be responsible for its cleanliness, heating and hot water installations and fuel supply systems. In the absence of the company commander, officers on duty shall be equally responsible for the enforcement of this regulation. Chose the incorrect choice regarding the maintenance of company quarters. (19.1.2, 19.1.6, 19.1.7, 19.1.11)
    A. No unauthorized changes, additions or alterations in quarters, or to any equipment thereof shall be permitted without the written approval of the Chief of Department.
    B. Company Commanders shall, once each month, thoroughly examine the apparatus entrance doors to determine their condition and, when necessary, lubricate with a light oil.
    C. Officers on duty shall, immediately after 0900 hours roll call, determine the quantity of diesel fuel and heating fuel in the storage tanks and record the findings in the company journal. D. When private contractors commence repairs in or about quarters, the company officer shall telephone all related information to the FD Buildings Unit. The private contractor shall make a journal entry when entering and leaving quarters.
A

D - When private contractors commence repairs or other work in or about company quarters, the officer on duty shall telephone all related information to the Fire Department Buildings Unit.
The housewatchman shall make journal entries when a contractor enters and when the contractor leaves quarters. The journal entry shall note the contractor’s name, the company the contractor represents and the nature of work to be done.

19
Q
10. Supervisors are responsible for maintaining a professional work environment for subordinates. This includes conducting periodic inspections of all Department facilities to ensure that materials prohibited by the Dept.’s EEO or Anti-Hazing / Bullying policies are not displayed or viewed in any FDNY facility. When a supervisor is unsure as to weather any material violates the Department’s policies or regulations, they should promptly consult with whom? (19.2.2)
A. The Administrative Battalion Chief
B. The Administrative Deputy Chief
C. The EEO Office
D. The Bureau of Training
A

C - When a supervisor or officer is unsure as to whether any
material violates the Department’s policies or regulations, he or she shall
promptly consult with the Department’s EEO Office.

20
Q
  1. All Chief and company officers must be familiar with the rules and regulations regarding FDNY company quarters. Of the following statements, which one is correct regarding these rules? (19.1.15, 19.2.1, 19.2.7)
    A. Designated female facilities (locker rooms and bathrooms) within quarters are for the exclusive use of FDNY members and female visitors. Male members and male visitors shall never enter any female-only facility.
    B. Visitors shall not be permitted to remain in quarters after 2000 hours.
    C. Privately owned vehicles shall not be stored in quarters without the approval of the Borough Commander.
    D. Photographs shall not be taken in department buildings without the permission of the Fire Commissioner.
A

D - Other than for cleaning and maintenance, male
members and male visitors shall not enter or use any female-only facilities unless
directed to do so by the Company Commander. Chief Officers shall ensure
compliance when conducting an inspection of company quarters. - Visitors shall not be
permitted to remain in quarters after 2200 hours - Privately owned automobiles or vehicles shall not be stored in quarters without
approval of the Fire Commissioner.

21
Q
  1. During “Fire Safety Week” your firehouse has scheduled numerous class trips to visit the firehouse. On Monday a 5th grade class is scheduled to visit. You should know that all of the following actions should be taken with the exception of which one? (19.24)
    A. The visit should be of no longer than one-hour duration between the hours of 0800 and 1600 hours.
    B. The class shall have one adult supervisor for every 30 children.
    C. No visitors shall be permitted above or below the apparatus floor.
    D. Upon receipt of an alarm to which the unit responds, all visitors shall leave quarters before moving the apparatus.
A

A - Visits shall be of no more than one hour duration, between 0900 hours and
1700 hours

22
Q
  1. Captain Rufus has just been approached by the member’s of his company about the possibility of adopting a dog for the firehouse. The Captain would be correct to state that how many of the following rules apply to dogs housed in quarters? (19.3.3)
    1) The dog must be licensed and immunized in accordance with Department of Health guidelines.
    2) The dog may not leave quarters unless escorted and restrained by a leash or chain not longer than 8 feet long.
    3) Dogs shall not ride on apparatus.
    4) Dogs left in unoccupied quarters when the company responds must be restrained and security of quarters must be maintained.
    5) If the dog bites someone, the Battalion, Division and NYC Health Department must be notified. The officer on duty shall forward a report with full particulars.
    A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
A

B (1, 3, 5) - Dogs shall not be permitted to leave quarters unless escorted and
effectively restrained by a leash or chain not more than 6 feet long. - Dogs left in unoccupied quarters when apparatus responds may be
permitted to remain free of control provided that security of quarters is
maintained.

23
Q
  1. The member performing housewatch duty is responsible for ascertaining the name and nature of business of all civilian visitors that enter quarters. From the choices below, choose an incorrect choice regarding civilian visitors in quarters. (20.3.10, 20.3.11)
    A. Children under the age of 15 shall not be permitted to enter quarters without a parent or guardian unless granted written permission by the Fire Commissioner.
    B. Visitors shall not be permitted beyond the housewatch desk without permission of the officer-on-duty.
    C. When the civilians of DOI, BITS, the Testing Unit or EEO enter quarters, the member on housewatch shall not make any notification to any supervisor or any other announcement regarding the entry unless specifically told to do so by the DOI, BITS, Testing Unit or EEO personnel.
    D. BITS and/ or EEO personnel may use their employee identification number in lieu of signing-in to the company journal.
A

C - No Fire Department employee shall make any notification to any superior
officers or any other announcement regarding the entry or presence of
DOI, BITs or Testing Unit personnel on official business unless specifically
directed to do so by DOI, BITs or Testing Unit personnel.

24
Q
  1. Choose a correct statement about the duties and responsibilities of the housewatch firefighter. (20.1.5, 20.3.2, 20.3.5)
    A. The member on housewatch shall designate an area in the vicinity of the housewatch desk in which they will place his/ her Personal Protective Clothing and equipment.
    B. Firefighters 6th Grade with less than 90 days service may only perform housewatch duties between the hours of 0900-2400 provided the officer or an experienced member monitors them.
    C. Members assigned to housewatch duty shall remain at the housewatch desk at all times.
    D. Members on housewatch shall maintain outer doors unlocked while the unit is in quarters. Upon receipt of an alarm, all doors and windows shall be closed and locked.
A

B - In order to facilitate an orderly turnout, company commanders shall designate a
suitable area in the immediate vicinity of the housewatch desk in which the
member performing housewatch duty shall neatly place his/her Personal
Protection Clothing (PPC) and equipment. - Members assigned to housewatch duty shall remain at the housewatch desk at all
times, except when it is necessary to observe conditions in front of quarters. - Members on housewatch duty shall maintain outer doors locked at all times.

25
Q
  1. The Buckeye Pipeline consists of two 12 inch steel pipes that transport what type of fuel to JFK and LaGuardia airports? (1.1)
    A. Gasoline and kerosene based aviation fuel
    B. Diesel and kerosene based aviation fuel
    C. Gasoline and diesel
    D. Kerosene based aviation fuel only
A

A - The Buckeye Pipeline basic components are (2), 12” (ID) steel pipes. One carries
gasoline, and the other kerosene base aviation fuel.

26
Q
  1. An engine and ladder drilling on Buckeye Pipeline operations are discussing the different wrenches that may be used on the pipeline. Which point made was not correct? (2.3)
    A. A short tee wrench is used for opening the hinged cover of the valve.
    B. A three and one-half foot long wrench painted white with a female fitting is used for insertion into the valve box to mate with a square fitting on the valve.
    C. The combination wrench combines the short tee wrench and the long tee wrench into one tool. The tool is approximately three and one-half long, painted yellow.
    D. On the combination wrench, the fitting for opening the latched cover is on one end of the cross handle, while the longer portion of the wrench is capable of performing the function of the long wrench.
A

B - A three and one-half foot long wrench painted YELLOW with a female
fitting, for insertion into the valve box to mate with a square male fitting
on the valve.

27
Q
3. Queens units responding to a leak from the Buckeye Pipeline located at the shipper’s lines that extend from the Long Island City terminal should turn the valve how many times and in what direction in order to shut the valve? (2.3.2)
A. 42 full times clockwise
B. 42 full times counter clockwise
C. 24 full times clockwise
D. 24 full times counter clockwise
A

C - The three and one-half
foot long wrench with a female fitting is then inserted into the valve box onto
a male square fitting and turned clockwise 42 full turns (84 half turns) to shut off
the valve. The only exceptions are the valves located on the shipper’s lines
extending from the Long Island City terminal which require 24 full turns (48 half
turns) clockwise.

28
Q
  1. Two types of cards have been issued for each pipeline section. One card is a Unit Alarm Assignment Card (UAAC), the other type is an Instruction Card for that section. Which choice shows an incorrect point regarding these cards? (4.2, 4.3, 4.4)
    A. Each Assigned and Alternate Unit has been issued two sets of Unit Alarm Assignment and Instruction Cards.
    B. One set shall be carried on the apparatus; the other set shall be secured in the company office.
    C. An extra pipeline map shall be stored with the UAAC and Instruction Cards.
    D. Each UAAC card has five lines. Units on the first line are designated Assigned Units, except for those under the caption Special Units. Units on the third, fourth and fifth lines are designated alternate units.
A

B - One set shall be carried on the apparatus; the other set shall be
placed in a prominent clearly marked and protected place at the house watch desk, for use
by relocated units.

29
Q
  1. Brooklyn units respond to a report of an unknown odor on Linden Blvd. Upon arrival they discover the odor is due to a leak from a section of the Buckeye Pipeline. The units would be correct to take all but which one action listed? (4.8.1, 4.12, 5.4, 6.1)
    A. Transmit a 2nd alarm.
    B. If a special called unit does not have the required equipment (Cards, wrenches, maps) they shall ascertain from the dispatcher the location of the nearest equipped unit.
    C. All engine companies shall respond with additional cans of foam. Units out of quarters shall not return to quarters prior to responding to secure additional cans of foam.
    D. Upon arrival, valves shall always be closed by assigned units as per the duties required by the Instruction Cards.
A

D - Valves should always
be closed as per duties required by Instruction Cards, except when a unit is required to
protect life in a serious life threatening situation, and is thereby prevented from carrying
out isolation duties.

30
Q
  1. Units drilling on FDNY operations at Buckeye Pipeline emergencies would be correct to state all of the following statements with the exception of which choice? (6.2.2, 6.2.5, 6.2.6, 6.5.7)
    A. Department apparatus should not be brought closer than 600 feet to a leak.
    B. Patrols of the pipeline will be on foot or by apparatus as designated on alarm assignment cards.
    C. Units other than those assigned to isolation duties will respond to a secondary staging area.
    D. Units performing isolation duties will announce 10-84 at valve locations and inform the dispatcher of valve closures as well as completion of patrol duties.
A

C - Units other than those assigned to isolation duties will respond to the Command
Post.

31
Q
7. Company Commanders of units having pipeline control valves in their administrative district shall have them inspected how often? (9.1)
A. Annually
B. Semi-annually
C. Quarterly
D. Monthly
A

B

32
Q
  1. Companies arriving at the scene of a confirmed leak in the pipeline adjacent to the Bay Ridge line of the LIRR would be correct to take which action below? (2.3.2, 6.6.2)
    A. Request the Brooklyn Dispatcher contact the Con Rail dispatcher to have power shut and train traffic stopped.
    B. Position “flag-persons” at least 500 feet on each side of the incident.
    C. Shut the manual valves by turning the valve 48 full turns clockwise.
    D. Have unignited pools of spilled fuel covered with foam.
A

D - In Brooklyn, the Bay Ridge line of the Long Island Railroad is used by Con Rail
for the transportation of freight. The Con Rail trains are diesel powered since the
line is not electrified. They have no radio or other contact with their Con Rail
dispatcher. Hence, requests to the Brooklyn Fire Dispatcher to shut off power or
stop train traffic cannot be accomplished. The Incident Commander must
position “flag-persons” at least 1,000 feet on each side of the incident. - turned clockwise 42 full turns (84 half turns) to shut off
the valve. The only exceptions are the valves located on the shipper’s lines
extending from the Long Island City terminal which require 24 full turns (48 half
turns) clockwise.

33
Q
  1. Battalion Chiefs discussing pipeline operations at a Division Conference should politely correct the Deputy Chief in which statement made? (6.2.3, 6.2.4, 6.3, 6.4)
    A. Once shut, manually closed valves should only be re-opened by Buckeye Pipeline personnel when the fire or emergency is over.
    B. Chief officers responding on the initial alarm, unless otherwise instructed, shall initially respond to the rendezvous location designated on the assignment card.
    C. When the leak is located, a Command Post will be established at a location consistent with operational procedures.
    D. If ignition occurs before the arrival of the first FDNY unit, the duties required by the UAAC and Instruction Card must still be performed, and additional alarms transmitted immediately.
A

A - Manually closed valves are to be re-opened only by personnel of the Buckeye Pipeline
Company when the fire or emergency is over, when directed to do so by the Incident
Commander, or to locate the leak upon direction of the Incident Commander.

34
Q
  1. The conversation continued and again one mistake was made. Which point of information is in need of correction? (6.5.2, 6.5.3, 6.5.4, 7.3.6)
    A. The primary consideration at pipeline fires and emergencies is the immediate isolation of the affected valves.
    B. If a strong wind is blowing, all ignition sources in the path of drifting vapors must be extinguished.
    C. The potential for the explosion of vapors is greatest on hot, humid, and calm days.
    D. When the leak location is identified, the location, estimate of the amount of product in the street, the topography and exposures should be included in the preliminary report to the dispatcher.
A

A - The primary consideration is the evacuation of the area involved. Avenues of
escape must remain open for civilians and FD personnel.

35
Q
11. During which type of Buckeye Pipeline drill shall FDNY members actually shut valves? (10.5.10)
A. Multi-unit drills
B. Familiarization drills
C. Division drills
D. Borough drills
A

D

36
Q
  1. Natural gas is a hazardous material classified as a “Flammable Gas” and exhibits which one of the following properties? (3)
    A. Depending on the mixture, the explosive range is 12.5%- 74%.
    B. It is significantly heavier than air.
    C. It is colorless, odorless and non-toxic.
    D. It contains high stored energy, is extremely flammable and when unconfined it will burn rapidly with the possibility of triggering explosive pressure.
A

C -  Depending on the mixture, the explosive range is 5% - 15%. -  Significantly lighter than air. - When unconfined (outdoors), natural gas will burn rapidly, without triggering explosive
pressure.

37
Q
  1. Gas service is the piping supplying individual buildings. Gas service pipe generally runs at right angles off the Distribution Main, into the building. There is usually a curb valve/service valve (below grade) or an exterior gas service (above grade) between the Distribution Main and the building. Choose an incorrect statement regarding curb valves and service valves. (4.4)
    A. Curb valves/service valves are usually found on the sidewalk side of the curb and these valves shut the gas to the entire building.
    B. Curb valves/service valves are usually recessed in from the curb and are covered with a 4”x4” square or round, brittle concrete or steel cover which may be sitting on top of a plastic or wooden plate.
    C. On the National grid “Long Service” system, the curb valve/service valve is sometimes located across the street from the building it supplies, and it may be found in the street. An arrow cast into the cover will point to the building it supplies.
    D. Some gas service piping supplies gas to the building without having a curb valve or service valve. A “DS” (Direct Service) stamped on a tag near the service meter indicates there is no curb valve or service valve.
A

D - A “NC” stamped on a tag near the service meter indicates there is no curb valve or
service valve.
An “EFV” stamped on a tag near the service meter indicates an “excess flow
valve” exists in line on the service pipe. The EFV should limit or stop excess flow down
pressure from it.

38
Q
3. While conducting BISP in an old law tenement, the members of Ladder 7 notice the building has gas piping that is running through a public hallway, which leads to an exit. The Officer would be correct to take which administrative action? (BISP Chapter 5 Ref. 2.1 A 8.1)
A. High Priority DOB Referral
B. Normal Priority DOB Referral
C. Issue an FDNY Summons
D. Forward an A-8 to Fire Prevention
A

A

39
Q
  1. Service regulators are usually located before the gas meter to reduce gas to low pressure. Peck Vents are installed on gas systems to vent excess gas to the exterior if the service regulator fails. Choose the correct point about these devices. (4.4.2)
    A. Service regulators reduce gas to approximately 1-3 psi.
    B. Service regulators and Peck Vents are usually installed on low and medium pressure gas systems.
    C. Peck Vents may have a yellow cap.
    D. There should normally be no odor of natural gas at a peck vent.
A

D - Typical house appliance pressure is ¼ psi.
 A few commercial customers receive gas at 1 to 3 psi. - Peck Vents are installed on systems supplied by medium or high pressure to vent excess gas to
the exterior if the service regulator fails - They may have a red cap

40
Q
  1. The members of Engine 332 and Ladder 175 are operating at the scene of an odor of gas in an apartment within a multiple dwelling. The leak has been pinpointed to the gas stove in the kitchen; however the gas shutoff on the stove is defective and unable to be shut. The members would be correct to next attempt to shut which valve? (6.7.3)
    A. The Individual Meter Valve for the apartment.
    B. The Interior Gas Riser Valve found in the cellar near the ceiling.
    C. The Master Meter Valve, which will shut the gas service to the entire building.
    D. The Head of Service Valve fund just inside the building where the natural gas service enters.
A

B - Gas Shut Off Sequence

“All Meister’s Irish Men Hate Engine
Companies”

Appliance, 
meter,
Interior Riser
master meter
head of service, 
exterior gas riser, 
curb valve, 
street valve
41
Q
  1. Most natural gas emergencies are resolved through investigation and simple mitigation. On occasion, a response can elevate to a Major Gas Emergency at which point the FDNY strategy should focus on securing life safety (evacuation). Of the following conditions, how many are indicative of a Major Gas Emergency and may require changing from a simple mitigation strategy to one that emphasizes all efforts on securing life safety? (5)
    1) Any damage to major components of the gas infrastructure (i.e., Master Meter, gas service piping, Main Valves, etc.)
    2) 10% LEL or greater detected outside or inside.
    3) Elevated natural gas reading (10% LEL or greater) in an unvented, subservice structure (manhole, sewer, etc.)
    4) Gas present in two or more subsurface structures (manholes, sewers, etc.)
    5) Indications of gas migrating into a building from an outside source.
    6) Gas leaking or present inside of a wall or void in a structure.
    7) Gas leaking inside of a structure and the controlling valve cannot be located or is inoperable.
    A. 7 B. 6 C. 5 D. 4
A

C (2, 4, 5, 6, 7) - o Serious damage to major components of the gas infrastructure - o Elevated natural gas reading (20% LEL or greater) in an unvented, subsurface
structure (manhole, sewer, etc.)

42
Q
  1. Engine 301 and Ladder 150 enter a multiple dwelling for a report of an odor of gas in Apt. 3F. Upon entering the building’s lobby, the members smell natural gas and natural gas levels begin to display on the unit’s Natural Gas Meter. Which member(s) should proceed directly to the basement/cellar of the building to evaluate conditions? (6.5)
    A. The Engine Officer
    B. The Ladder Inside Team
    C. Only two members from the Ladder Outside Team
    D. The 2nd arriving Ladder Inside Team
A

B - If any natural gas levels are displayed on the Natural Gas Meter upon entering the
building, or while proceeding to the reported location within the building, the inside
team should proceed directly to the basement/cellar to evaluate conditions.

43
Q
  1. A series of three large “+” symbols along the screen under the O2 icon on the MSA Altair Digital Gas Meter indicates what situation? (Add.2 5.3)
    A. The Oxygen level is below 19%
    B. The Oxygen level is above 30%
    C. The meter is malfunctioning and should be replaced
    D. The Oxygen level is within normal range
A

B

44
Q
  1. The main mission at gas emergencies is to ensure there is not a major leak. Secondary is mitigating minor leaks, which have the potential for harm or, if not stopped, can build to become major leaks. When a leak is detected, which action would be incorrect to take? (6.7)
    A. Vent the immediate area and continue to monitor using the gas meter and detector.
    B. Remove ignition sources near the leak utilizing a remote shut off.
    C. Once a leak is found control the leak by shutting the closest valve that controls supply to the leak.
    D. A leak or break in low pressure gas piping (made of steel, cast iron or plastic) may be stopped by or greatly diminished by taping, or stuffing putty, rags, paper, etc., into the break.
A

D - Note: Leaking plastic pipe (permissible by code for outside use) should not be touched or
approached. Natural gas flowing out of a broken plastic pipe generates static electricity
which builds up on the inside and outside surface of the pipe. Coming near to, or
touching, a leaking plastic gas pipe could result in a spark that ignites the escaping gas.
The Gas Utility Company has equipment to dissipate this static electricity.

45
Q
10. Of the following listed valves, which one is the FDNY not permitted to shut during a gas emergency? (6.7.3)
A. Head of Service Valve
B. Master Meter Valve
C. Curb Valve/Service Valve
D. Main Valve
A

D - Note: FDNY is not permitted to shut a Main Valve.

46
Q
  1. Battalion 23 has determined the gas emergency they are operating at will be considered a “Major Gas Emergency”. All of the following actions should now take place with the exception of which choice? (7.3)
    A. A 10-75 and 10-80 Code 1 should be transmitted, specifying a “Major Gas Emergency”
    B. The officers of all incoming units should report into the Incident Command Post until deployed by the IC.
    C. The IC may modify the response assignment after careful consideration and consultation with the Haz-Mat Battalion via cell hone or 800 MHz radio (preferred).
    D. As soon as possible, the IC should transmit to the dispatcher a concise description of the conditions, % LEL of meter readings, and tactics implemented.
A

B - Incoming

units not requested by the IC for immediate deployment should report to the Staging Area.

47
Q
  1. Units operating at the scene of a “Major Gas Emergency” where a contractor damaged a gas service pipe in the street causing a leak would be correct to take all but which one action listed below? (8)
    A. A Command Post was established at a safe location and it’s location was announced over the HT and Dept. radio.
    B. The affected area was evacuated and searched for victims. Vehicular and pedestrian traffic was controlled to prevent entry into the operational area.
    C. Precautionary hose lines and large caliber streams were set up from a safe distance to operate into the excavation if the natural gas was to ignite.
    D. Subsurface structures and surrounding basements/cellars were checked for natural gas infiltration from the original leak, or secondary leaks.
A

C - Set up precautionary hose lines to control possible extension in case the natural gas ignites.
Large caliber streams should be considered as their reach and volume is appropriate for
defensive use. If the natural gas ignites, do not extinguish the fire. Avoid operating into the
excavation, as water accumulation here can impede isolation and repair. Cool adjacent
structures as necessary to prevent extension from radiant heat.

48
Q
13. A Battalion Chief operating at a “Major Gas Emergency” should use the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ to assist in defining the potential blast zone and keep all members who are not directly involved in direct life-saving operations out. (10.1)
A. The Safety Battalion Chief
B. The Haz-Mat Battalion Chief
C. The 1st arriving SOC officer
D. The 2nd arriving Battalion Chief
A

A - Upon arrival of the Safety Battalion, the IC should use this chief to assist in defining the
potential blast zone and keep all members who are not involved in direct life-saving
operations out. This should continue throughout the operation as boundaries can easily
change. Continuous monitoring should take place outside of the potential blast zone to
ensure gas does not migrate unexpectedly and adversely change the situation.

49
Q
14. Battalion 2 units are on scene of a strong odor of gas in the cellar of a multiple dwelling. The source of the leak cannot be found within the structure and it is believed the gas is leaking into the building from an outside manhole. After venting the area, if the LEL cannot be limited to less than \_\_\_\_\_%, the area should be treated as a “Potential Blast Zone”. (8, page 32)
A. 10
B. 20
C. 50
D. 80
A

A - Treat the affected area as a “Potential Blast Zone” if levels cannot be limited to less
than 10% LEL by venting and:
 The leak cannot be found.
 There are indications the leak is coming from an outside, subsurface source.

50
Q
  1. Of the following units, which one is not listed as being equipped with detectors designed for detecting natural gas in voids? (8 page 32)
    A. Haz-Mat 1
    B. Rescue Companies
    C. Haz-Mat Tech Units (Tech engines and Squads)
    D. Soc Support Ladders
A

B - Note: Utility Companies and FDNY Haz-Mat Company 1, Haz-Mat Technician Units
(Engines 44, 165, 250, 274 and all Squad Companies) and SOC Support Ladder
Companies are equipped with detectors designed for detecting natural gas in voids.

51
Q
  1. At the scene of a “Major Gas Emergency” where a “Potential Blast Zone” has been established, how many of the following actions may take place inside the “Potential Blast Zone”? (9.1)
    1) Rapid evacuation of the area
    2) Rapid ventilation of the area
    3) Power removal of the affected building(s)
    4) Rapid metering of the affected area
    A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
A

A - Tactics inside of the potential blast zone should be limited to rapid evacuation as detailed below.
Removing ignition sources and venting are not options within the potential blast zone.
No amount of reconnaissance, venting or power removal is worth a first responder’s life.
Other than rapid evacuation no other actions inside of the potential blast zone should be
warranted. All members should strive to GET OUT of the potential blast zone.

52
Q
17. The size of a potential blast zone shall include the area likely to be affected by a structural collapse. The zone will be determined by the Incident Commander and identified by red, “DANGER DO NOT ENTER” tape. No one shall be permitted to enter this area except to save life or unless authorized by which members? (AUC 360 2.3)
A. The IC or the Safety Chief
B. The IC or Operations Chief
C. The IC or the Haz-Mat Battalion Chief
D. The IC or the Sector Chief
A

D - Units are reminded that the danger zone should not be entered except to save life or
authorized by the IC or Sector Chief. This applies at all times, to all members,
during all stages of the operation

53
Q
  1. Rapid evacuation of a potential blast zone will allow members to locate and rescue civilians from an explosive environment, while limiting their exposure to potential extreme hazards. This is significantly different from primary searches conducted at fires and is accomplished with as few members in the potential blast zone as possible. Choose the incorrect tactic to be used during rapid evacuation. (9.1.3)
    A. Conduct rapid evacuation by knocking on doors and moving from door to door to alert occupants. The intent is to alert occupants to self-evacuate.
    B. If no one answers the door to an area or apartment, members should move on to the next door. Forcible entry should only be accomplished for a known life hazard.
    C. If forcible entry is required, use the adz end of the halligan to gap and force the door and/or with the use f the Hydra-Ram.
    D. In structures with elevators, civilians should be instructed use stairs and not elevators unless the situation makes it impractical. Elevator use within the potential blast zone must be approved by the IC.
A

D - In structures with elevators, occupants should be instructed to use the stairs and not the
elevators unless the situation makes it impractical (e.g., gas leak on an upper floor of a highrise
residential building where FDNY members utilize elevators to evacuate civilians).
Elevators in the potential blast zone are NOT to be used by civilian or FDNY personnel.
Elevators create electric arcs whenever they are activated by the call button or signaled to
move.

54
Q
  1. Operations outside of the potential blast zone include water supply, power removal, locating valves and ventilation. Which statement below is correct regarding these operations? (9.2)
    A. Fog streams can be used to dissipate natural gas venting outside of a structure or to protect Utility Company workers attempting to “plug” or “squeeze” a pipe with a leak.
    B. If unable to locate the source of the leak, only shut power if the gas readings are below 80% LEL.
    C. During rapid evacuation, venting windows and doors are they are passed may be permissible.
    D. Round, rectangular and square electric manholes may be pulled by FDNY members only when requested by on-scene Utility Company member, approved by an on-scene Chief Officer and the cover has been determined to be free of stray voltage by the on-scene Utility Company worker.
A

C -  Fog streams should not be used to dissipate natural gas venting outside of a structure; let the
gas vent naturally.- o When unable to locate the source of the leak, do not shut power. - Rectangular or square electric manhole covers shall not be pulled by FDNY personnel.

55
Q
  1. Members should be aware that a Con Edison gas main valve would have an ID number? (4.3)
    A. On a tag on the topside of the Main Valve cover.
    B. On a tag on the inside of the Main Valve cover.
    C. Stamped on the inside of the Main Valve cover.
    D. Stamped on the top side of the Main Valve cover.
A

B - Con Edison Gas main valves have ID numbers on tags inside of the valve cover.
National Grid main valve covers are identified by an ID number stamped on the North side of the
collar, underneath the cover; however, these numbers may be difficult to see.

56
Q
21. Which of the following item(s) are considered intrinsically safe to use in a potentially explosive atmosphere? (9.1.2)
A. Handie Talkies
B. Natural Gas Detectors and Meters
C. FDNY issued flashlights
D. Cell phones and megaphones
E. Thermal Imaging Cameras
F. Ventilation fans
A

A, B, C - Currently, the only FDNY-issued powered equipment that are intrinsically safe (can be used
in a potentially explosive atmosphere) are:
o Handie-talkies
o Natural Gas Detectors
o Natural Gas Meters
o Flashlights issued by the FDNY
Note: As a precaution, these devices should be powered on in a clear environment and
remain on until returned to a clear environment.

Decks in Fire Officer Spring 2019 Class (11):