FO CLASS #4 - Week of 22419  FFP – TP  Pgs 1-36,Comm.Man,Ch.9No Add's, T.B.–Salvage,T.B.–Tools 9,PAIDS–1-72&6-72 BC Ken Ruggiero Flashcards Preview

Fire Officer Spring 2019 > FO CLASS #4 - Week of 22419  FFP – TP  Pgs 1-36,Comm.Man,Ch.9No Add's, T.B.–Salvage,T.B.–Tools 9,PAIDS–1-72&6-72 BC Ken Ruggiero > Flashcards

Flashcards in FO CLASS #4 - Week of 22419  FFP – TP  Pgs 1-36,Comm.Man,Ch.9No Add's, T.B.–Salvage,T.B.–Tools 9,PAIDS–1-72&6-72 BC Ken Ruggiero Deck (64)
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1
Q
  1. Listed below are four definitions of construction terms taken from the glossary in the taxpayer bulletin. Which term/s listed below is/are not correctly described? (More than one Incorrect) Glossary
    A. An axial load is a force perpendicular to the supporting member. An axial load is straight and true and is evenly applied to the bearing structure.
    B. An eccentric load is a force whose resultant is perpendicular to the supporting member and passes through the center of the mass. The load is not evenly applied to the supporting or bearing member.
    C. Impact loads are loads delivered in a short time on structural members and produce stresses on structural members that may not have been provided for in design and may cause collapse.
    D. Lateral loads are loads that are exerted outwardly on a horizontal plane. These forces may take place during a collapse or an explosion. Walls are not usually designed to withstand severe lateral loads.
    E. Spalling is the process by which masonry surfaces lose successive layers of their mass when exposed to excessive water.
A

B, E

Axial load .
is a force perpendicular to the supporting member. An axial load is straight and true and is evenly applied to the bearing structure.

Eccentric load
is a force whose resultant is perpendicular to the supporting member but does not pass through the center of the mass. The load is not evenly applied to the supporting or bearing member.

Impact load
are loads delivered, in a short time, on structural members and produce stresses on structural members that may not have been provided for in design and may cause collapse.

Lateral load
are loads that are exerted outwardly on a horizontal plane. These forces may take place during a collapse or an explosion. Walls are not usually designed to withstand severe lateral loads.

Spall
the process by which masonry surfaces lose successive layers of their mass when exposed to excessive heat.

2
Q
2. During a drill members were describing taxpayers with their new proby and made the following four points. Which point listed below is not correct? 2.1, 2.2
A. Taxpayers are business structures one or two stories in height.
B. Taxpayers are commonly of class 3 construction with exterior firewalls and wooden
interior structural members.
C. Their areas vary from 20' x 50' to areas of whole city blocks, the most common size being approximately 100' x 100'. They can be built on one or more lots with adjoining structures of greater heights on three sides.
D. These buildings are usually single structures commonly sheltering from one to as many as 10 different businesses with fire resistive partitions and fire stops in the cocklofts.
A

D

2.2.2 These buildings are usually single structures commonly sheltering from one to as many as 15 different businesses with weak non-fire resistive partitions and no fire stops in the cocklofts.

3
Q
  1. The taxpayer bulletin tells us that there are three broad categories of taxpayers:
  2. The older type built from the turn of the century until the 1920’s. This type is usually one story in height but there are some that have two stories. Some of the older structures have partitions, girders, beams, and columns of wood and may be considered wood frame buildings although most have masonry exteriors.
  3. The most prevalent type built from the 1920’s into the 1960’s. They are usually larger in area than the older types and many are one-tenant occupancies, such as supermarkets, bowling alleys, restaurants, factories, etc.
  4. The newer type construction built since the 1960’s. These contain the same type of occupancies and the structural features will be similar to the previous types except that the use of combustible construction material has been reduced. In many of these buildings the difference will be the steel bar joists that are used to support the floors and roof in place of wood beams.
    In which category above will a firefighter be able to normally remove the cornice to gain access to a fire in the cockloft?
    A. The older type of taxpayer built from the turn of the century until the 1920’s.
    B. The most prevalent type of taxpayer built from the 1920’s into the 1960’s.
    C. The newer type of taxpayer construction built since the 1960’s.
A

A

2.3.1 The older type built from the turn of the century until the 1920’s. This type is usually one story in height but there are some that have two stories. Some of the older structures have partitions, girders, beams, and columns of wood and may be considered wood frame buildings although most have masonry exteriors. This makes them susceptible to rapid fire involvement. The original ceilings may be tin, nailed directly to the beams or to furring strips. Original lath and plaster and wood ceilings could be covered with tin. When renovating these buildings, hanging ceilings are installed which create a plenum area for fire travel. In this plenum area are installed pipes, wiring, air handling ducts and recessed lighting fixtures. Decorative metal cornices, through which fire can spread, may be found on the front of some buildings. When there is a heavy fire in the front of the building, the supports of these cornices can be weakened and the cornice can fall to the ground unexpectedly. They can be removed to provide access to the cockloft area.

4
Q
  1. Lt. Smith is working a day tour in L-100 and has just arrived at a fire in a 1 story 20’ x 50’ isolated taxpayer. L-100 is the FAST Unit and upon arrival hear the 1st due units tell command that the fire is located in a mezzanine area toward the rear of the store. Lt. Smith decides to tell the proby working about mezzanine areas in taxpayers and was incorrect in which point listed below? 2.4
    A. Since these areas have probably been added to the premises after the original construction date, the load bearing components will usually be the same as the original construction of the taxpayer or better.
    B. The mezzanine area is in most cases used for storage of goods, but it can contain offices (predominant in supermarkets and factories) and also sales areas to which the public will have access.
    C. The height of the ceilings in the mezzanine and the area below will be below average. Access to this area may be via small wooden stairs or just a ladder. Very seldom will there be another means of access.
    D. Mezzanine areas may be found in the rear of the store or building, some along one side from front to rear or along part of one side, and a few have been erected in the center of the premises.
A

A

2.4.2 Since these areas have probably been added to the premises after the original construction date, the load bearing components can be of light construction. These supports may be loaded beyond their safe load bearing capabilities.

5
Q
  1. The wooden bowstring truss is found in older commercial structures in New York City. It is common in supermarkets, bowling alleys, lumberyards, auto storage garages, and in buildings that originally housed such occupancies. Which point listed below regarding wooden bowstring trusses is not entirely correct? 3.3.3
    A. Wooden bowstrung trusses have a characteristic hump-like roof profile where the roof appears to rise up from below the parapet wall to tower above it. The longer the span, the higher the bow.
    B. When the bowstring truss was originally designed, engineers used certain assumptions pertaining to tensile strength of wood. Updated calculations have revealed that bowstring truss roofs may only support 60% of the load they were originally designed to hold.
    C. Bowstring truss roof overload can also occur due to later additions of loads that were not considered in the original design, such as accumulation of roofing material, heavier ceiling finishes, new mechanical equipment installations and conversion of the truss space into mezzanines, storage areas, office space, etc.
    D. In the older bowstring truss roof buildings, there is a possibility of rotting at the ends of the trusses where they rest on the walls, due to water leaking through the roof covering. Truss failure has occurred without fire impingement.
A

B

Updated calculations have revealed that bowstring truss roofs may only support 40% of the load they were originally designed to hold.

6
Q
  1. Please read the following statement and indicate if you agree or disagree with the statement. 3.3.3
    A truss is composed of two major members, the top one is called the top chord and the lower one called the bottom chord. Shorter members, called webs, connect the top and bottom chords. The webs are placed vertically and diagonally, forming triangular configurations with the chord members. There are many variations but all are essentially the same; a combination of independent components used to span large distances through the use of smaller pieces fastened together. Trusses can be either wood or steel.
    A. Agree or D. Disagree
A

D

I agree but the FT answer key says disagree here is the book…
Basically, the truss is composed of two major members -the top one is called the TOP CHORD and the lower one called the BOTTOM CHORD. Shorter members, called WEBS, connect the top and bottom chords. The WEBS are placed vertically and diagonally, forming triangular configurations with the CHORD members. There are many variations but all are essentially the same; a combination of interdependent components used to span large distances through the use of smaller pieces fastened together. Trusses can be either wood or steel

7
Q
  1. Open web steel joists are commonly found in modern taxpayer construction and members must have a working knowledge of the hazards associated with these trusses. Which point listed below about open web steel joists is not correct? 3.3.3
    A. Open web steel joists, found in modern taxpayer construction, have no fire resistance rating. Fire rating depends upon the ceiling finish and finish roofing.
    B. Open web steel joists come in standardized lengths, depths, and carrying capacities. They are used to span long distances up to 60 feet.
    C. Unprotected open web steel joists are particularly vulnerable to elevated temperatures of a fire and may collapse after only 10 or 15 minutes.
    D. Open web steel joists may be covered with various roof decks: solid wood, steel deck, cementitious roof plank, precast concrete, or gypsum plank.
A

C
Unprotected open web steel joists are particularly vulnerable to elevated temperatures of a fire and may collapse after only 5 or 10 minutes.

8
Q
  1. Operating at taxpayer fires present many dangers to the operating members. Roof operations can be especially dangerous at these buildings. Which point listed below is an incorrect point about roof features at taxpayers? 3.3.4
    A. On some roofs the skylights, scuttles, and other openings have additional security materials placed at the ceiling levels of these openings, such as, heavy metal grates, heavy steel plates and electrically charged grids.
    B. If any of these appurtenances listed in choice A above are removed and the area covered over, the supports for these coverings may be of very light weight, sometimes wood 2 x 4’s covered with thin sheets of plywood.
    C. “I” beams protruding above the roof surface or roofs built in step fashion with one store roof slightly higher than another will always indicate where fire division walls are located.
    D. Small scuttle covers on the roof, possibly with iron ladders to the interior, may also be opened to vent rooms below. Ventilators or exhaust ducts which may vent store areas or the cockloft are sometimes found on the roof.
A

C
“I” beams protruding above the roof surface or roofs built in step fashion with one store roof slightly higher than another sometimes give the false impression of fire division walls. The side walls of such protrusions are made of wood sheathing and are easily detected by striking them with a tool to differentiate them from a masonry wall. They can be opened for inspection or stream operation. A good working knowledge of these features will allow members on roofs to determine the size and shape of the fire building for the information of operating forces on the first floor.

9
Q
  1. The stability of masonry walls is very much dependent on the integrity of the roof. The roof acts as a monolithic brace which ties the walls together. In effect the roof is holding up the walls by providing lateral support. A collapse or disintegration of the roof removes this support and may impart a lateral load, either pushing out, or pulling in, on the wall as stresses are formed. A member studying for the Lieutenants test would know which points below to be correct? (More than one correct) 3.4.2
    A. Brick walls sometimes hinge at ground level and an entire side or rear wall may remain intact and fall out flat.
    B. Concrete block walls sometimes hinge at ground level and an entire side or rear wall may remain intact and fall out flat.
    C. Concrete block walls usually crumble or break as they fall, but large sections can be projected a good distance due to the impact as the wall hits the ground.
    D. Brick walls usually crumble or break as they fall, but large sections can be projected a good distance due to the impact as the wall hits the ground.
A

B, D

Concrete block walls sometimes hinge at ground level and an entire side or rear wall may remain intact and fall out flat. Brick walls usually crumble or break as they fall, but large sections can be projected a good distance due to the impact as the wall hits the ground.

10
Q
  1. After operating at an EMS run in a taxpayer the members of E99 were discussing parapet wall and their inherent dangers. Each member made a point about parapet walls. Which member was not entirely correct? 3.4.3
    A. A particularly hazardous condition is the possible collapse of the front parapet wall. This parapet wall is often only supported laterally at short intervals and it receives support at the ends where it is tied into the crosswalls.
    B. Stability of masonry walls depends on the load being concentrated in a vertical direction through the wall. Any degree of tilting which causes this load to be eccentric to the vertical may cause collapse.
    C. A long section of the parapet wall often remains intact as the wall topples onto the sidewalk. Members have been killed or injured by such wall collapses.
    D. A parapet wall is a continuation of an exterior wall, fire wall, or party wall above the roof line. The parapet section of the exterior walls may extend around the entire perimeter of a building roof area.
A

A
A particularly hazardous condition is the possible collapse of the front parapet wall (e.g., any parapet wall facing a street; a corner building facing one, two or three streets). This parapet wall is often unsupported laterally for a long distance, receiving its support only at the ends where they tie into crosswalls.

11
Q
11. L-100 is operating at a small fire in a one story, 100’ x 40’, class 3 taxpayer with 5 stores in it. The fire was in the middle store which is a pharmacy and sits in between a donut shop and a pizza store. The fire in a shelving unit that was up against the exposure 2 side partition wall. After the fire was knocked down Lt. Smith orders his proby to remove and overhaul the stock that was on the shelf and is smoldering. The interior plaster partition wall has substantial burn marks where the fire was burning against the wall. The Lieutenant tells the proby to open up the wall to make sure there is no extension behind the plaster covering. While the proby was opening the wall the Lieutenant tells the proby that when we remove any amount of plaster covering of an interior partition wall, we are weakening the wall since the plaster covering provides longitudinal rigidity for the partition wall. Do you agree or disagree with the Lieutenants statement? 3.4.4
A. Agree or D. Disagree
A

D
I agree but answer key at http://www.firetechstudies.com/moodle/mod/page/view.php?id=169
says D

3.4.4 Interior partition walls between stores are usually of wood stud construction, with plaster or sheetrock covering, and are usually firestopped at the floor and the ceiling by wood sills and plates. The plaster or sheetrock provides longitudinal rigidity for these partition walls between the front and rear walls and roof. Removal of large sections of plaster will weaken this bracing.

12
Q
  1. Exposed steel “I” beams are commonly used in taxpayer construction to support roof and floor joists. It is important for firefighters to have a good understanding of how steel “I” beams react under fire conditions. Which is the only correct point listed below regarding steel “I” Beams? 3.6
    A. An average 50 foot long steel “I” beam, heated uniformly over its length to 970 F will extend in length approximately 6”. At 1000 F a 100-foot long beam will have extended in length 12 1⁄2”.
    B. When steel “I” beams are heated from 1000 F to 1500 F, their yield strength drops dramatically and while they may soften they will not fail. This temperature can be reached in 15 to 20 minutes at a fire.
    C. Exposed steel “I” beams are commonly used in taxpayer construction to support roof and floor joists. “I” beams will absorb heat from the fire at a rate dependent on many factors, such as, the temperature of the fire, the extent of the fire, and the mass of the beam.
    D. A large, heavy “I” beam will absorb the same amount of heat and its temperature will rise the same as a lightweight beam. Because of the conductivity of the steel, this temperature will diffuse into the beam causing its expansion.
A

C

An average 50 foot long steel beam, heated uniformly over its length to 970 F will extend in length approximately four inches.

When these steel beams are heated from 1000 F to 1500 F, their yield strength drops dramatically and they start to soften and fail. This temperature can be reached in five to ten minutes at a fire and it is only a matter of time at an uncontrolled fire (thirty minutes for the smaller beam sections), until these beams can be heated beyond their strength limitations.

A large, heavy “I” beam will be able to absorb more heat and its temperature will rise more slowly than a lightweight beam.

13
Q
  1. Members of E-99 are operating at a fire in a taxpayer and are extinguishing the fire in the rear of the store. L100 has opened up the ceiling and there is a medium fire condition in the cockloft area. E-99 quickly extinguishes all the fire in the store and the cockloft. Once the fire is extinguished and the smoke starts to clear the Officer from E-99 notices a steel “I” beam which was involved in fire and is still glowing red from the heat of the fire. The Officer from E-99 tells his nozzle firefighter to open the line and cool the steel I beam. He tells his members that cooling the steel “I” beam will cause it to regain its strength and load carrying ability. He further states that if the beam has already sagged under the weight of floors or roof, firefighters should not be allowed in the possible collapse zone, whether these beams are cooled or not since the steel will contract to its original length as it is cooled and if the beam has sagged, this shortening may pull the end of the beams off their supports or twist the beam allowing the joists to drop. Do you agree or disagree with the
    Officer of E99’s statements? A. Agree
    3.6.4
    or D. Disagree
A

A

14
Q
  1. Taxpayers fires are dangerous due to the many hazards that may be stored within the building itself. Adding to that is the many structural and construction hazards that taxpayers present to firefighters. Which point below is not correct regarding hazards found at taxpayer fires? 3.8, 3.9
    A. Heavy terrazzo or concrete is sometimes placed over wood joist floor construction which is an exceptionally hazardous condition. A fire in the cellar may weaken floor supports with little evidence of heat conditions on the first floor. Sudden failure due to weight on the floor is possible.
    B. When pulling sheetrock ceilings, large pieces often fall flat in one large section and can inflict injury due to its weight. Long ceiling ducts may be sandwiched between hanging ceilings and usually have numerous supporting ties to hold them securely.
    C. Suspended ceilings offer their own collapse potential when loaded with water or weakened by fire. They are suspended by light wood strips, steel wire, or steel bars, all of which are quickly affected by fire.
    D. Suspended ceilings should be punched with a hook for water detection, to check construction, and fire conditions. Multiple layers of tin, sheetrock, or tiles may have been affixed together on supports which were not intended to carry such weight.
A

B
3.8.4 Long ceiling ducts often have a minimum of supporting ties and chain reaction can pull the entire duct down. They may be sandwiched between hanging ceilings or suspended beneath them.

15
Q
  1. Members were discussing cellar fires in taxpayers and made the following three statements below. Which statement(s) is/are correct? 3.10.3
  2. Partition walls between cellars are usually of combustible or flimsy construction and joist channels at cellar ceilings are often not firestopped allowing fire, combustible gas, and smoke extension from cellar to cellar.
  3. Cellar areas are often divided into a maze of storage spaces and the layout of the cellar will usually conform to the layout of the store above.
  4. Outside cellar stairs are usually found in the rear of taxpayers. When there are several stores in the building, these stairs may lead to a passageway along the rear cellar wall from which access can be gained to the various storage areas.
    A. All statements are correct.
    B. All statements are incorrect.
    C. Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    D. Statements 2 and 3 are correct.
    E. Statements 1 and 3 are correct.
A

E
3.10.1 Cellar areas are often divided into a maze of storage spaces. The layout often does not necessarily conform to the store layout. One occupancy may use a large section of the cellar with openings through partitions, while other occupancies may use smaller areas or none at all.

16
Q
  1. Overhead security doors present problems for firefighters operating at a fire in a taxpayer. These overhead doors may cover siamese connections, delay entry into the fire occupancy, and may rest on sidewalk entrance doors to the cellar. Which point made by members during a drill on overhead doors is not correct? 3.11.1
    A. When there are a number of stores in a building all with overhead doors, it may be difficult to determine the exact location of the entrance door or doors to the stores. Overhead signs might give a clue.
    B. At fires heat can cause springs in overhead door to lose tension. If these doors start down without the counterbalance of fully tensioned springs they will come down with tremendous force. Doors used in residential installations range in weight from 150 - 400 pounds.
    C. When the spring tension is gone, the motor or hoist devices act as a safety and will prevent the door from coming down. In addition, at more advanced fires the steel track on either side can warp pulling, out the rollers and allowing the door to drop flat.
    D. Attempting to force large overhead doors that have lost spring tension will require lifting dead weight and normally may be futile. Treat every open overhead door for what it is, a heavy overhead hazard.
A

C
When the spring tension is gone, motor or hoist devices usually will not prevent the door from coming down hard once it starts down. In addition, at more advanced fires the steel track on either side can warp pulling, out the rollers and allowing the door to drop flat.

17
Q
  1. The weight of an overhead door that is added to the front walls, especially when these doors are in the closed position, can cause the lintel over the store front to fail and the wall and door assembly may fall during a fire. 3.11.1
    A. True or
    B. False
    In the larger type occupancy such as a supermarket, there are two means of egress. The customers, however, are aware of the main entrance only, since the secondary exit is usually remote or obscure. 3.12
    A. True
    or B. False
A

B/A
The weight that is added to the front walls, especially when these doors are in the OPEN position, can cause the lintel over the store front to fail and the wall and door assembly may fall during a fire.

18
Q
  1. In assessing the possibility of a structural collapse, consideration must be given to the type of construction involved in the fire, the intensity of the fire, and the time that the structural members have been burning or subjected to the heat of the fire. All of the following points listed below are may be causes of collapse during a fire in a taxpayer except which one? 4.2.4
    A. A heavy body of fire which has been burning out of control for 15 minutes or more, particularly in a large open floor area.
    B. Presence of water absorbent materials such as rags, paper, and clothing, which increase floor loads when wet and which may push out walls by expansion from the absorbed water.
    C. Heating of unprotected structural members resulting in expansion with walls being pushed out and columns out of plumb.
    D. Girders, beams, and columns being twisted out of shape due to excessive heat and in turn causing floor joists to lose their bearing support and fall free.
    E. Backdrafts blowing out walls or floors, weakened and burned out structural members, vibration or movement in or near a weakened building, and water, ice, or snow loads on the roof.
A

A
Heavy body of fire which has been burning out of control for 20 minutes or more, particularly in a large open floor area.

19
Q
  1. A backdraft is the ignition and rapid combustion of a mixture of flammable gas or dust and air which flashes back through openings around the fire area. Which point about a backdraft is not correct? 4.4.1
    A. The three basic factors necessary for ordinary combustion and a backdraft are combustibles, oxygen, and heat.
    B. A room or fire area requires only 10 percent of its space to contain the explosive mixture for the entire area to possibly explode.
    C. Warning signs of a potential backdraft are glass windows stained with smoke condensation and pulsating from the pressure of the fire or the reversal of air with smoke being pulled back into a smoke filled opening.
    D. Cellar and storage areas are particularly vulnerable to backdrafts, although backdrafts can occur in any part of a structure.
A

B
A room or fire area requires only 25 percent of its space to contain the explosive mixture for the entire area to possibly explode

20
Q
20. BC Question. - E99, E98, E97, L100, L101, and BC5 have arrived at a 1 story, class 3, 40’ x 50’ isolated taxpayer with 2 stores. There appears to be a fire in the Chinese restaurant, the store on the exposure 2 side. The windows of the Chinese restaurant are pulsating and there is a dirty brown smoke leaking out of the AC unit above the front door. Both roof firefighters from L100 and L101 are on the roof, the Engine Companies have stretched a 2 1⁄2” hoseline to the front of the building, and L100 is getting ready to force the front door. The roof firefighters report that there is a skylight over the Chinese food store and that the glass is pulsating from the pressure of the fire. The BC at this operation would be correct to issue which order listed below at this fire? 4.4
A. Order the members of L-100 to force the front door, enter to start a search, and locate the main body of fire while the Engine Companies advance the 2 1⁄2” line into the store.
B. Have the Engine Co. take a flanking position and discharge the hoseline into fire area after the Ladder Co. forces the front door. This is the most effective way to attack a fire where a possible backdraft condition exists.
C. Have the roof firefighters open the roof directly over the fire. After the roof is vented have L-100 force the front door and order the Engine Co. to advance their line into the store to extinguish the fire.
A

C
The proper procedure is to open the roof or area directly over the fire. This allows the hot gases to move upward through the opening away from the fire. These gases may ignite and vent to the outer atmosphere. This is one of the most effective methods of protecting firefighters from the effects of a backdraft. Even if a backdraft occurs after the roof has been vented, the explosion will be diverted upward, out of the roof opening away from the firefighters advancing the hoseline.

21
Q
  1. E-99 is advancing a hoseline deep into a large cellar to attack a fire that is located in the rear of the cellar. The Ladder Co. has located the fire in a storage room and is holding the door closed waiting for the line to arrive. Members advancing the line took the following action and were incorrect in which one below? 4.7
    A. The control firefighter was posted as a lookout at the top of a cellar stairs to observe conditions.
    B. While advancing through the cellar the Officer continually checked the stability of the floor and the ceiling above.
    C. The Officer called for a backup line to be positioned at the top of the cellar stairs. D. The members of E99 bunched up on the line in order to ensure each other’s safety.
A

D
4.7.7 Do not “bunch up”. Spread out along a line to lessen floor loads in a central area and limit the injury potential in the event the structure fails.

22
Q
  1. During afternoon drill members were discussing a recent fire that they operated at. The fire started on the first floor and spread to the cockloft of a 1 story taxpayer. Which statement is not entirely correct regarding cockloft fires in taxpayers? 5.3
    A. Since most fires originate in the rear of the first floor where utilities, storage, and services are located, this is the area from which the fire usually extends to the cockloft.
    B. The standard flat roof may have little or no pitch. If it is pitched, it will be from the front to the rear.
    C. If fire enters the cockloft at the low point or rear of the building, our fire problem is less severe than if it has entered into the cockloft at the front.
    D. When a taxpayer has an inverted roof, the roof beams create the original ceiling level. Roof supports of 2 inch x 4 inch short studs are connected to the roof beams and extended upward, where they connect to a roof grid to which the roof boards are nailed.
A

C
If fire enters the cockloft at the high point or front of the building, our fire problem is less severe than if it has entered into the cockloft at the rear. The reason is that fire does not burn quickly from a high point to a lower area.

23
Q
  1. Which point below about venting the roof at a taxpayer fire is correct? 5.4.5, 5.4.6, 5.4.7, 5.4.12, 5.4.13, 5.4.14,
    A. When cutting a vent hole in the roof of a taxpayer the hole must be large enough to remove the bulk of the heat, smoke, and fire. A hole 3’x6’ where possible is recommended.
    B. The immediate ventilation and cutting of an effective size hole on the roof calls for two saws and two members on the roof. A Roof Sector Supervisor must supervise roof operations when more than two power saws are working on the roof.
    C. Additional ladder companies should be special called to the scene of the operation as needed. The 2nd arriving officer should initiate this, if necessary. A Roof Sector Supervisor should be assigned as early as possible to supervise roof operations. This should be a Chief Officer.
    D. Scuttles, skylights, or covers of former skylights that are located over or near the main body of fire should be opened first. Make sure that ceilings or other sealed spaces below such openings are pushed down and opened to permit the exit of heat, smoke, gases, and fire.
A

D
A hole eight feet by eight feet, where possible, is recommended.
A Roof Sector Supervisor must supervise roof operations when more than one power saw is working on the roof.
5.4.13 Additional ladder companies should be special called to the scene of the operation as needed. The first arriving officer should initiate this, if necessary.
5.4.14 A Roof Sector Supervisor should be assigned as early as possible to supervise roof operations. This could be a chief or company officer as designated by the IC.

24
Q
  1. BC Question - BC Knowitall is the IC at a fire in a 100’x50’ 1 story taxpayer with 5 stores. The fire is in the middle store, the pizza store. The dispatcher just notified BC Knowitall’s aid and told him that the Deputy was involved in an accident and is going to be delayed. The 1st due Ladder Co. officer calls BC Knowitall and tells him that the fire in the store is advanced but it has not extended into the cockloft. Two 2 1⁄2” lines have been stretched into the store due the volume of the fire. Rescue is in the exposure, 02, and reports that the fire has burnt through the partition wall but that they can hold it with the can. Squad is in the opposite exposure, 04, and reports that there is a light smoke condition and no fire extension. The roof firefighters call BC Knowitall and report that the roof is open and there is no fire extension into the cockloft. In this situation BC Knowitall should take which action below? 5.7.4
    A. Transmit a 2nd alarm.
    B. Transmit a 10-75 along with an all hands.
    C. Transmit a 10-75 along with an all hands and call for an additional Engine and Truck.
    D. Continue to operate with the units on the scene and await the arrival of the Deputy Chief.
A

A
5.7.4 When two handlines are operating on an advanced fire in a store, special call an extra engine and ladder. Transmit a second alarm for extension to the cockloft, adjoining occupancy or for an advanced fire in the cellar. The need for additional ladder companies at these operations is great, anticipate such and special call as needed.

25
Q
  1. Members were discussing the cutting of roofs and floors at taxpayer fires and made the following four points. Which point below is incorrect? 5.5
    A. The direction and force of the wind is often a critical factor in determining the plan of action in cutting the roof. The most effective and quickest cutting will be accomplished if you work with the wind at your back.
    B. Generally, wood joists run the long side of a building or occupancy, particularly in the older taxpayers where the occupancies within a taxpayer have frontages not exceeding forty feet. C. Wood joist beams are usually spaced 16 inches on center. Wood flooring and roof boards when nailed directly to roof beams are nailed at right angles to these joists.
    D. In most cases, you will not know for certain how the joists run until a ceiling is pulled, or the floor or roof boards are removed and you can visually observe them.
A

B
5.5.10 Generally, wood joists run the short side of a building or occupancy, particularly in the older taxpayers where the occupancies within a taxpayer have frontages not exceeding twenty feet.

26
Q
  1. With increased knowledge regarding bowstring truss roof construction, a cautious approach must be adapted, regardless of the size of the fire area. Which point listed below is incorrect when operating at a fire in a taxpayer with bowstring truss roof construction? 5.5.25
    A. Prior to implementing interior operations, the IC must perform a risk assessment keeping in mind that the life hazard and safety of the members involved in the operation is of paramount concern.
    B. If interior operations are implemented, the operating force and interior operational time shall be kept to a minimum with the maximum amount of supervision.
    C. At large and/or advanced fires, or where the timber trusses or the underside of the roof are involved in fire, exterior operations should be the primary tactical consideration.
    D. If a building has a wooden, metal, or combination bowstring truss design, members will only be allowed to operate on the roof if the fire is small and is confined to the contents only.
A

D
Note: Under no circumstances shall any member operate on the roof of any building involved in a content or structural fire with a wooden, metal or combination bowstring truss design.

27
Q
  1. BC Question - When firefighters encounter a fire in structure with bowstring truss roof construction, the IC must perform a risk assessment keeping in mind that the life hazard and safety of the members involved in the operation is of paramount concern. The IC may implement an interior attack after a risk assessment has been performed. The IC should take all
    but which of the following factors into consideration?
    A. The current structural stability of the building.
    B. The size and location of the fire.
    C. Any possible life hazard.
    D. Verification of safe access to the fire area.
    5.5.25
A

C

 Any known life hazard.

28
Q
  1. During afternoon drill members were talking about collapse of wooden bowstring truss roofs and made the following four points. Which point listed below is incorrect? 3.3.3, 5.5.25
    A. Wood truss roofs appear to fail without warning. The roof does not sag or get spongy. Steel trusses tend to stretch when losing their strength because of elevated temperatures, but wood tends to snap.
    B. The added live load of firefighters and their equipment on a roof of this type can precipitate a collapse. Truss failure has occurred without fire impingement.
    C. Units are reminded of the collapse potential of these type roof systems, with particular attention being paid to the side walls. This is due to the hip rafters being pushed in an upward and outward fashion when the main roof collapses.
    D. When there is a need for members to operate on a bowstring truss roof of a building not involved in fire, the IC must take into account the past history of truss failure in these buildings, particularly if the building is vacant.
A

C

This is due to the hip rafters being pushed in a DOWN and outward fashion when the main roof collapses.

29
Q
  1. Recently BC Kascone operated at two different fires in taxpayers and was designated as the roof sector supervisor at both fires. Both taxpayers were 60’ x 50’ class 3, and had 3 stores in each. In which fire(s) listed below would BC Kascone be correct to start a trench cut?
    Fire 1: The fire started on the 1st floor in the middle store and extended to and spread throughout the cockloft.
    Fire 2: The fire started in the cellar and spread to the 1st floor. Units on the scene were having trouble extinguishing the fire on the 1st floor and thought the fire was going to spread to the cockloft. The fire was eventually extinguished and contained to the cellar and first floor.
    A. Both fires.
    B. Fire 1 only.
    C. Fire 2 only.
    D. Neither fire 1 or fire 2.
A

C
D. The practicality of trenching will depend on many factors:
1 The size of the roof - a long trench may take too much time.
2. The volume of fire - it may be no longer possible to get ahead of the fire.
3. Ceilings - height and type. Due to inaccessibility and extensive lighting systems it may be necessary to attack the fire from above.

30
Q
  1. BC Question - A BC running a fire in a taxpayer would be correct to know that at a serious fire in a taxpayer the need for and use of ______ Ladder companies is not unusual. 5.4.13
    A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6
A

B
5.4.13 Additional ladder companies should be special called to the scene of the operation as needed. The first arriving officer should initiate this, if necessary. Consideration should be given to whether tower ladder apparatus is responding or should be called. The need for, and use of, four ladder companies at a serious taxpayer fire is not unusual.

31
Q
  1. In newer taxpayers the roof supports are of lightweight open web steel joists. These lightweight steel joists present many hazards to firefighters operating at fires in these buildings. Which point below is not correct regarding lightweight steel joists? 5.5.26
    A. Roofs of fire buildings with lightweight steel joists as the roof support system can only be cut if the fire is confined to the contents only.
    B. Vertical ventilation should be limited to removal of skylights and scuttle covers if present.
    C. Lightweight open web steel joists are spaced greater distances apart than the standard wood
    joists.
    D. The spacing of the joists will vary depending on the strength of the joists and the type of roof decking used.
    E. Fire resistance of lightweight steel joists is a function of the mass of the material. Lightweight members have little inherent fire resistance.
A

A

Roofs of fire buildings with this type of roof support system must not be cut.

32
Q
  1. During a recent day tour Lt. Smith of L-100, decided to give the proby the roof for the first time. Just after roll call L-100 responded to a fire in a 1 story, 60’x 60’ taxpayer. The fire started in the rear utility room and extended to the cockloft. After performing his initial duties the proby started to cut a vent hole in the roof with the saw. As he started to cut he noticed a white powdery residue around the saw blade. He called his officer to tell him and Lt. Smith instructed the proby to finish the cut and then get off the roof. The proby also notified the IC. Do you agree or disagree with Lt. Smith’s order? 5.5.26 H
    A. Agree or D. Disagree
A

D
The presence of a gypsum roof deck will be indicated by a white powdery residue during saw operations. Upon this observation, members should immediately notify the Roof Sector Supervisor and IC and evacuate the roof.

33
Q
  1. L-100 is operating at a fire on the 3rd floor of a 5 story multiple dwelling. While operating on the roof, the roof firefighter is trying to call his officer to let him know that the cockloft is clear, but his officer is not answering his repeated calls. In this situation the roof firefighter would be correct to contact which member listed below? 9.2.2 B
    A. The Engine Officer who is operating in the fire apartment with the officer from L-100.
    B. The Ladder Co. Chauffeur of L-100.
    C. The Incident Commander.
    D. The Irons FF from L-100.
A

B
(CIA)
If contact cannot be made with their Company Officer, they shall contact (in this priority) their Company Chauffeur, the Incident Commander or any other HT equipped member advising such member that contact cannot be made with their Officer. Any of the foregoing who are so contacted must advise the member’s Officer as soon as possible.

34
Q
  1. The importance of communications between units and the IC cannot be overemphasized. Information of a routine nature should be communicated to the Company Officer, while more serious information should go directly to the IC. Which member listed below should transmit the following points of information to the IC: 9.3.1
     Location of the fire. (Wing, floor, apt. number etc.)
     Fire conditions.
     Access to the fire area.
     Whether the fire is extending and how it is extending.
     Difficulties or delays in gaining entrance to the fire area.
     If any occupants have located or are reported missing.
    A. The 1st due Ladder Co. Officer at the fire area.
    B. The 1st due Engine Co. Officer at the fire area.
    C. The 2nd due Engine Co. Officer at the fire area.
    D. The first Officer who arrives at the fire area.
A

D
LODANCE
9.3.1 The Officer who arrives first at the fire area must transmit the following information to the IC:
A. Location of the fire. (If a multiple dwelling, report the wing, floor, apartment number, and number of apartments on fire floor.)
B. Fire conditions.
C. Access to fire area.
D. Whether fire is extending and how it is extending and the need for additional lines.
E. Difficulties or delays in gaining entrance to fire area or in advancing line. Give reasons.
F. If any occupants have been located or are reported missing.

35
Q
  1. During a drill about mayday and urgent transmissions, each member of E-99 made a point on the subject. Which point made was not entirely correct? 9.4
    A. When giving an urgent or a mayday, the member must always press the Emergency Alert Button. This will ensure that the message gets transmitted at maximum wattage.
    B. Mayday and urgent messages are intended for use in situations where immediate communication is necessary to protect life or prevent injury.
    C. The term “collapse” is to be used to indicate structural failure only. Mayday transmissions have priority over urgent transmissions.
    D. Whenever the Emergency Alert Button has been pressed, and/or a mayday or urgent is transmitted, all HT communications on that frequency are to cease, except those between the member initiating the emergency transmission and the IC.
A

A
If possible, the member transmitting the MAYDAY or URGENT shall begin, by pressing the Emergency Alert Button, ensuring the message gets transmitted at maximum wattage and repeating “MAYDAY” or “URGENT” three times followed by the remainder of the message.

36
Q
  1. The IC must conduct a roll call in all of the following MAYDAY and URGENT situations listed below except for which one? 9.4, 9.4.2
    A. When a MAYDAY is transmitted for a “collapse imminent”.
    B. When a MAYDAY is transmitted for a “structural collapse has occurred”.
    C. When an URGENT is transmitted when an “interior attack is discontinued”.
    D. When an URGENT is transmitted for a “danger of collapse”
A

D
3. The member transmitting the URGENT shall respond in the following format:
“Ladder 6 Roof to Command, URGENT - COLLAPSE FEARED,” and provide the following information:
 Location
 Conditions discovered

37
Q
  1. While reviewing a recent operation at a 1 story, 20’x40’ taxpayer where a mayday was transmitted for an imminent collapse, members were listening to the HT transmissions and heard the following: 9.4.1 A, 9.4.2 C
    - Mayday, Mayday, Mayday, L-99 OV to Command Mayday.
    - Command to L-99 OV go ahead with your Mayday.
    - L-99 OV to Command, mayday - collapse imminent, the rear wall is about to collapse,
    there are cracks in the wall. I am in the rear, exposure 3, looking at the exposure 3 wall.
    - Command to all units, Mayday, Back out of the building, back out of the building.
    - Command, the IC, then immediately conducted a roll call and accounted for all the
    members.
    - After the mayday was resolved, the IC notified all units.
    Please choose the correct answer below.
    A. The entire transmission is correct.
    B. The entire transmission is incorrect.
    C. The transmission and actions of the IC are correct.
    D. The transmission and the actions of the OV from L-99 are correct.
    E. The transmission and actions of the IC are correct; however the transmissions and actions
    from the OV of L-99 are incorrect.
A

D
4. The IC shall then transmit:
“Command to all units, MAYDAY, GET OUT OF BUILDING, GET OUT OF BUILDING” and repeat this message as often as necessary. All members shall immediately evacuate the building on transmission of this message.

  1. When the IC decides to discontinue an interior attack and institute an exterior attack, the IC shall immediately press their Emergency Alert Button, and then transmit a message in the following format:
    “URGENT-URGENT-URGENT, Command to all units, URGENT - ALL UNITS - URGENT, BACK OUT, BACK OUT.”
    On transmission of this message, all units shall withdraw from the building.
38
Q
  1. All of the following below are correct mayday messages except for which one? 9.4.1
    A. Engine 222 to Command, Mayday-Unconscious Member. The following information is transmitted: Location, Unit and ID of the Injured Member, Nature and extent of the injuries, if known, and Resources needed.
    B. Ladder 11 to Command, Mayday – Missing Member.
    The following information is transmitted: Last know location or reference point, Unit the member is working in that tour, Name of the affected member, and Assignment (roof, nozzle).
    C. Ladder 43 Fast OV to Command Mayday - Missing Member Found. The following information is transmitted: Location, ID of member to determine if it is the reported missing member, and Resources needed to reach safety.
    D. Ladder 44 OV to Command, Mayday – Collapse has occurred. The following information is transmitted: Location and extent of collapse, Number and nature of injuries, and if anyone is trapped.
A

C
 Location
 Identity of member(s) to determine if it is the member(s)
reported missing.
 Any imminent conditions that might affect the missing member(s) e.g., fire nearby, out of air.
 Resources needed to reach safety.

39
Q
  1. Lt. Smith was drilling with the proby assigned to E-99 and was discussing mayday and urgent transmissions. Lt. Smith made the following two statements:
  2. An urgent transmission is used to indicate that a member has suffered a serious injury that is not immediately life threatening or to inform members of a serious change in conditions.
  3. Anytime a member discovers another member with any type of non-life threatening injury, he/she shall immediately press their Emergency Alert Button, and then contact the IC in the following format: “urgent, urgent, urgent, Engine 99 to command, urgent.”
    Which statement(s) below is/are correct?
    A. Only statement 1 is correct.
    B. Only statement 2 is correct.
    C. Both statements are correct.
    D. Both statements are incorrect
A

A
A member discovering another member with a non life threatening injury that requires medical attention shall immediately press their Emergency Alert Button, and then contact the IC in the following format:
“URGENT-URGENT-URGENT, Engine 161 to Command, URGENT.”

40
Q
  1. When units arrive on the scene of a fire and are unable to secure a positive water source, certain actions must be taken to remedy this problem as quickly as possible. Which action below is incorrect when units are unable to secure a positive water source? 9.4.2 B
    A. Whenever any Engine Co. is operating at the scene of a fire and is unable to secure a positive water source, the ECC should immediately press his/her EAB button and transmit an urgent message to the IC.
    B. The urgent message should be transmitted to the IC as follows: Urgent, Urgent, Urgent, E-99 Chauffeur to command Urgent.
    C. When the IC acknowledges the urgent message the ECC should respond as follows: E-99 Chauffeur to command, Urgent 10-70 and then provide information to the IC such as dead hydrant, apparatus breakdown, or insufficient pressure.
    D. The IC shall announce over the HT when a positive water source has been attained. The IC shall also inform the Borough Dispatcher that a positive water source has been attained.
A

A
When the FIRST arriving Engine Company is unable to secure a positive water source, the first arriving Engine Chauffeur shall immediately press their Emergency Alert Button, and then contact the IC in the following format:
“URGENT-URGENT-URGENT, Engine 254 Chauffeur to Command, URGENT.”

41
Q
  1. During the recent cold spell E-99 operated at numerous fires and at four of these fires they had to transmit urgent messages. Which urgent message transmitted by E-99 was not entirely correct? 9.4.2
    A. When the nozzle firefighter became aware of a structural problem that indicated a danger of collapse he transmitted an urgent, used the words “Collapse Feared”, and gave his location and conditions discovered.
    B. When the Officer of E-99 noticed that the wind was impacting the fire and endangering the nozzle team he transmitted an urgent message, used the words “Fire Extending”, and then waited for the IC’s directions.
    C. When the control firefighter noticed a burst length he transmitted an urgent, used the words “Water Loss, and told the IC the nature of the problem and the ID of the units affected.
    D. When the ECC noticed that fire was entering exposure two he transmitted an urgent, used the words “Fire Extending”, and then gave the location and the nature of the extension.
A

B
1. A member aware of a change in conditions that will severely impact an operation or the safety of members shall immediately press their Emergency Alert Button, and then contact the IC in the following format:
“URGENT-URGENT-URGENT, Ladder 132 to Command, URGENT.”
2. The IC shall respond in the following format:
“Command to Ladder 132, go ahead with your URGENT.”
3. The member transmitting the URGENT shall provide the following information:
 Nature of the problem
 Location
 Members/Units affected

42
Q
  1. The Emergency Alert Tone Assisted Rescue can be utilized to home in on the location of missing, lost, or trapped members. This procedure takes advantage of the increased wattage of the emergency alert tone and maximum volume output regardless of the missing member’s volume setting, and requires only one handie talkie. Which point about this procedure is not correct? 9.5
    A. The IC announces over HT that an emergency alert tone assisted rescue is to be implemented and designates a new primary tactical channel. This channel shall not be the same one on which the missing, lost, or trapped member was operating.
    B. The emergency alert tone will be created by a designated member as follows: A H/T is placed on the channel which the missing, lost, or trapped member was operating. The EAB is pressed every few seconds to transmit the emergency alert tone and then pausing to allow for the possibility of a response from the missing, lost, or trapped member.
    C. Searchers listen for the beacon tone emanating from the missing, lost, or trapped member’s HT. When beacon tone has been detected, searchers home in on member’s location by use of the beacon tone.
    D. When the definite location of member has been determined, the emergency alert tone should be discontinued to lessen the discomfort of the trapped member and to enable communication between this member and searchers.
A

C
Searchers listen for tone emanating from missing, lost, or trapped member’s HT. When tone has been detected, searchers home in on member’s location by use of this tone.

43
Q
  1. Feedback assisted rescue is another procedure that may be used to locate a missing, lost, or trapped member. This procedure utilizes the handie talkie feedback noise in order to home in on the location of missing, lost, or trapped members. Which point about this procedure is incorrect? 9.5
    A. The H/T’s used for the feedback assisted rescue are placed on the channel that the missing member was operating on.
    B. A member is designated to produce the feedback and is assigned two H/T’s.
    C. The H/T speakers are held 1 to 2 inches apart as this produces the loudest high pitch
    feedback tone.
    D. The transmit buttons of both HT’s are pressed and held for 60 seconds until the time out timer cuts off the transmitter.
A

D
The member designated to produce the feedback will have to release the Push-to-Talk button momentarily every 30 seconds to re-key the transmitter.

44
Q
  1. While discussing the handie talkie during a drill, members made the following points and were only correct in which one below? 9.6, 9.7, 9.8
    A. Certain areas in a building are conducive to good HT operations like the outer area of a structure, windows, or unobstructed shafts. It may be necessary to move around until best location is found.
    B. Members may, during visits to hospitals, use their HT’s in a normal fashion. The H/T’s radio frequency transmissions will not interfere with patient care equipment.
    C. All facepieces are equipped with voicemitters. When transmitting with the facepiece donned, place the microphone in the vicinity of the voicemitter.
    D. HT communications in the subways system are good from level to level. Communications in straight line are excellent. Some subway stations have multiple levels underground, which will require additional handie talkies.
A

A

  1. 6.3 There is a possibility that radio frequency (RF) transmissions may affect the operation of medical equipment in hospitals.
  2. 6.4 Members shall, during non-emergency visits to hospitals, restrict the use of HT and other RF transmissions (cell phones, etc.) in patient care areas of hospitals.
  3. 6.5 Except in an emergency, members shall leave the patient care area prior to transmitting via HT.

Note: 1.
HT communications are poor from level to level. Communications in straight line are from fair to poor. Some subway stations have multiple levels underground, which will require additional handie talkies. The objective is to be able to communicate to grade level.

All facepieces are equipped with voicemitters. The proper procedure for use of the HT with the voicemitter is to:
A. Remove the microphone from the harness clip.
B. Place the microphone directly on the voicemitter.
C. After completing transmission, the microphone can be returned to the harness clip.

45
Q
  1. When a Ladder Co. performs salvage at the scene of an operation, a report must be completed. From the choices below please select who must file this report and where must the report be sent/stored? 12
    A. The Ladder Co. officer of the unit who performs salvage at an operation must complete the SAL-2 form and forward it to the IC responsible for the fire report.
    B. The IC of the operation must complete the SAL-2 form and include it in the NYIRS report.
    C. The IC of the operation must complete the SAL-2 and file it in their unit records.
    D. The Ladder Co. officer of the unit who performs salvage at an operation must complete the
    SAL-2 form and file it in their unit records.
A

D

  1. REPORTS
  2. 1 The ladder company officer is responsible for completing a single copy of the SAL-2 form.
  3. 2 The SAL-2 form shall be filed in the unit.
46
Q
  1. BC Question - BC Knowitall is the IC at an all hands fires on the 2nd floor of a two story private dwelling. The fire was contained to a rear bedroom with slight extension to the cockloft. Members had to cut the roof, take 2 windows, and they used one line to extinguish the fire. The Deputy Chief already took up when BC Knowitall decides that he needs a unit to perform salvage operations. There were five engines and three trucks still on the scene. BC Knowitall looked around and ordered E-100 to perform salvage operations since they were the extra engine above the all hands and stood fast for the duration of the operation. Do you agree or disagree with BC Knowitall’s order? 11
    A. Agree or D. Disagree
A

D

  1. 2 If there is a ladder company at the scene, the Incident Commander will direct a ladder unit to perform necessary salvage duties.
  2. 3 If a ladder company is not at the scene, the Incident Commander shall special call such unit to perform salvage duties.
47
Q
  1. Which point listed below about salvage operations at a fire operation is not correct? 1.1, 1.3, 2.2, 4.1
    A. Salvage is defined as the saving of possessions in danger of being lost by a fire and is a definite function of a fire department, particularly of a ladder company.
    B. Salvage begins with the fire is knocked down and continues throughout operations and overhaul. The ladder company officer in his overhauling size-up must include a salvage size up. C. During operations all members are salvage firefighters and should try to extinguish, vent, overhaul, and examine in a manner that avoids unnecessary damage to the premises and contents. D. In addition to our normal complement of tools the following equipment should be available in order to properly protect property: plastic sheeting, staples and staple guns, hammers and nails.
A

B
It begins with the initial attack and continues throughout operations and overhaul. The ladder company officer in his overhauling size-up must include a salvage size-up.

48
Q
  1. FF Carter has decided to go back to school to get his nursing license and is thinking about applying for a school attendance variance. Lt. Smith was explaining the procedure to FF Carter and was mistaken in which choice below? 3.1, 3.2, 3.4, 3.4.2, 3.4.6
    A. Mutual exchange of tours shall be the primary medium for arranging necessary time off to attend scheduled classes. If mutual exchanges are unavailable, members may use compensatory time due for Memorial or Veterans Day, their adjusted tour, or any other compensatory time due. B. Whenever a member is attending any type of school program and is unable to make mutual exchanges of tours or is lacking time owed, the member may be permitted excusal time up to a maximum of 48 hours
    C. Members shall repay excusal time as soon as possible, at their convenience. No time limitations for repayment shall be imposed as long as the member is enrolled. However, when a member owes 36 hours of excusal time for a period of 30 or more days, no further excusal time shall be allowed.
    D. Member must repay excusal time by working the same number of hours excused. Members accepting regularly offered minimum manning overtime cannot credit such time against excusal time.
A

B
However, when a member owes 36 hours of excusal time for a period of 30 or more days no further excusal time shall be allowed.

49
Q
  1. When a member is using a mutual exchange of tours to arrange for the necessary time off to attend school classes, there are certain rules and restrictions that must be adhered to. Which choice below is in accordance with the rules and restrictions? 3.9, 3.1.1
    A. Members can pre pay time for the purpose of accumulating time as a bank for future leaves.
    B. Mutual exchange of tours may be made between members assigned to the same borough.
    C. Part tour mutuals shall be not less than one hour and not more than six hours.
    D. All part tour mutuals shall begin or end at 0900 hours only, similar to vacations.
A

C
Mutual exchange of tours may be made between members assigned to the same division.
All part tour mutuals shall begin or end at the time of tour changes, i.e.,
0900 hours or 1800 hours.
No member shall repay time for the purpose of accumulating such time as a bank for future leaves.

50
Q
  1. Capt. Myster is working a day tour in E-289 and after lunch FF O’Duff, the senior member of E-289, comes into the office and tells Capt. Myster that he wants to put his next mutuals in the Unit Staffing Log. Capt. Myster hands FF O’Duff the Unit Staffing Log, FF O’Duff records his next two mutuals in the Unit Staffing Log, and hands the Log back to Capt. Myster. Do you agree or disagree with Capt. Myster’s and FF O”Duff’s actions? PA/ID 6/72 2.1
    A. Agree or D. Disagree
A

D
Department policy mandates that only the company officer responsible for approving staffing events and changes, shall maintain control of, and record in, the Unit Staffing Log. Chief and company officers shall ensure compliance with above procedures.

51
Q
  1. FF O’Duff was talking with the proby about mutuals and gave the proby the following points of information. Which point of information listed below is not entirely correct? PA/ID 6/72 Section 1 and 5
    A. Under normal circumstances, members should not owe or be owed more than 8 mutual exchange of tours. This includes self-mutuals.
    B. Mutual exchanges of tours shall be completed within a 30 day period subsequent to first date involved.
    C. Any member who owes or is owed 8 or more mutual exchange of tours, as reflected on three 3 consecutive bi-weekly printouts, will be prohibited from making any additional mutual exchange of tours.
    D. Approved mutual exchange of tours shall be voided if either member will be on any type of leave or detail for which the member has been notified more than 5 days prior to first date of mutual.
A

A
Under normal circumstances, members should not owe or be owed 8 or more mutual exchange of tours. This excludes self-mutuals.

52
Q
  1. An often confusing topic in regards to mutuals is when mutuals are incomplete. Which point about an incomplete mutual is incorrect? Section 4
    A. If member A works a tour for member B, then member A is owed the tour. If the tour is interrupted by a line of duty medical leave then member A is owed a tour equal to that which the member would have received if the mutual had been completed.
    B. If a member received a tour off in a mutual, and subsequently is unable to work the scheduled payback tour due any type of medical leave, the member is not required to pay back the required tour.
    C. Time due the Fire Department or a member, as a result of an incomplete MX shall be cleared up within thirty (30) days after the member becomes available. Company Commanders shall ensure compliance.
    D. Tours owed because of an incomplete mutual, shall be repaid with a similar tour (e.g. if member was not able to repay a 6x9 tour he/she shall owe a 6x9 tour).
A

B
If a member received a tour off in a MX, and subsequently is unable to work the scheduled payback tour due to a line of duty medical leave, the member is not required to pay back the required tour. However, if the member is involved in more than one MX only the earliest repayment date (maximum of one tour) is excusable.

53
Q
  1. The portable power saw comes equipped with a variety of cutting blades. High engine speed and availability of special blades enables the operator to cut almost any material encountered at fires or emergency operations. Which description of the various blades listed below is incorrect? 2.2
    A. Carbide tip blades will cut through gravel and tar covered roofs, wood flooring, light sheet metal, and similar material. The operational life span of the blade is short and dislodged carbide tips becoming airborne have caused injury to members.
    B. Aluminum Oxide blades, abrasive disc, will cut through various types of steel, including auto bodies, metal security doors, metal window bars, etc.
    C. Silicon Carbide blades, abrasive disc, will cut through concrete and other masonry materials.
    D. The diamond metal/concrete blade can replace both the aluminum oxide and silicon oxide blades. The combination blade is also recommended to cut wood, gravel and tar covered roofs, and light sheet metal.
A

D
Combination Metal/Concrete blades (diamond blade) will replace both the aluminum oxide abrasive disk used for metal cutting and the silicon carbide abrasive disk used for concrete cutting.

54
Q
  1. The portable power saw is a highly effective tool, however it must be properly maintained to ensure it operates at peak performance and in a safe manner. Which point listed below is incorrect regarding the maintenance of the portable power saw? 3.2, 3.3, 3.4
    A. The saw should be placed out of service if blade continues to spin at a low idle as this is usually the result of clutch failure.
    B. Return carbide-tipped blades to the Technical Service Division when more than eight tips are missing, broken, or worn down to the circumference of the blade.
    C. Return aluminum oxide or silicon carbide blades for replacement whenever they are cracked, badly nicked, if the center hole wears out of round, or the blade is worn down to 8” in diameter or less.
    D. Belt adjustments, including a visual inspection of the belt should be done weekly at MUD and after every cutting operation. Blades must be kept tight when on the saw.
A

B
Return carbide-tipped blades to the Technical Service Division when eight (8) OR MORE tips are missing or broken, or worn down to the circumference of the blade.

55
Q
  1. The combination metal/concrete saw blade is 12” in diameter, diamond brazed, and can replace the aluminum oxide and abrasive disk blades. After using the diamond blade at an operation members noticed that it was glazed over and cutting ineffectively. From the choices below please choose the correct way to remedy this condition. TB Tools 9 Append D, Data Sheet 1
    A. Place the blade OOS and return it to Tech Services.
    B. Place the blade in a container of diesel fuel and let it soak for at least 24 hours and then
    clean it.
    C. Run the blade through concrete as this will expose more diamonds on the blades edge. D. The blade must be removed and thrown away since it has reached its useful life span.
A

C
1.12 If the blade becomes glazed over and cuts ineffectively, it can be cleaned by running the blade through an abrasive material such as concrete. This will expose more diamonds on the blades edge.

56
Q
  1. When operating with the saw the potential for an accident is high due to adverse operational conditions. A slight miscalculation or sudden unplanned move can result in a serious accident. Performance skill coupled with strict adherence to safety procedures can prevent accidents. Which point below about operating with the power saw is not correct? 4.4
    A. Only members who have demonstrated an aptitude and who have been thoroughly trained in its operation should be permitted to operate the saw during fire operations.
    B. At all times a team of two members shall perform cutting operations. Members shall be equipped with complete fire clothing, gloves on, and protective goggles in place.
    C. The firefighter who operates the saw, the operator, will be assisted and/or guided by another member. The Officer in charge of the operation should select the best method compatible with circumstances existing at the time.
    D. A physical communication system between the guide man and the operator will be as follows: one slap on the back of operator = stop cut, two slaps on the back of operator = cut, three slaps on the back of operator = shut down saw.
A

B
4.4.1 Whenever possible, a team of two members shall perform cutting operations. Members shall be equipped with:
A. Complete fire clothing.
B. Gloves on and protective goggles in place. Goggles shall be attached to
saw carrying handle.

57
Q
  1. Members of L-100 were discussing the portable power saw during evening drill and made the following statement listed below. Which statement is correct? 4.7.1, 4.8.3, 4.11, 4.13
    A. Only the Officer, the operator, and the member designated as the guide may enter the circle of danger. All persons directly to the rear of the operating saw blade must be warned away, as the saw may throw debris 20’ feet or more.
    B. If possible, the saw shall be shut down when unattended and when moving to distant areas of operation such as moving from level to level.
    C. The saw cut should be as deep as possible as this will ensure that the saw has cut through the material. The experienced operator will know when a beam is being cut by the sound and feel of the saw.
    D. Gunning the saw while the operator is either standing by or moving to a new point of operation is permitted to keep the saw running smoothly in a heavy smoke condition.
A

A
4.8.3 THE SAW SHALL ALWAYS BE SHUT DOWN WHEN UNATTENDED
The saw shall be shut down when moved to distant areas of operation, (i.e., level to level).
4.11 “GUNNING” the saw while the Operator is either “standing by” or moving to a new point of operation SHALL NOT BE PERMITTED. Gunning engages the centrifugal clutch and causes the blade to spin, thus increasing the possibility of injury.
4.12 The saw cut should be only as deep as necessary. Deep cuts may weaken supporting beams and lead to collapse. The experienced Operator will know when a beam is being cut by the sound and feel of the saw.

58
Q
  1. Please read the following four statements and pick which one(s) is/are correct. (May be more than one correct). 4.7
  2. During roof or floor cutting operations, everyone in the vicinity of a saw in operation shall observe, as near as possible and practical, a 20 foot radius circle of danger. This circle shall be measured in all directions from the point where the blade of the saw is in operation.
  3. During roof or floor cutting operations, everyone in the vicinity of a saw in operation shall observe, as near as possible and practical, a 40 foot radius circle of danger. This circle shall be measured in all directions from where the member operating the saw is standing.
  4. During roof or floor cutting operations, everyone in the vicinity of a saw in operation shall observe, as near as possible and practical, a 40 foot diameter circle of danger. This circle shall be measured in all directions from the point where the blade of the saw is in operation.
  5. During roof or floor cutting operations, everyone in the vicinity of a saw in operation shall observe, as near as possible and practical, a 20 foot diameter circle of danger. This circle shall be measured in all directions from where the member operating the saw is standing.
    A. Only #1 is correct.
    B. 1 and 2 are correct.
    C. 2 and 3 are correct.
    D. 1 and 3 are correct.
    E. 3 and 4 are correct.
A

D
During roof or floor cutting operations, everyone in the vicinity of a saw in operation shall observe, “as near as possible and practical, a 20 foot radius Circle of Danger.” This circle shall be measured in all directions FROM THE POINT WHERE THE BLADE OF THE SAW IS IN OPERATION.

59
Q
  1. During a study group each member made a point about the portable power saw. Which point was not entirely correct? 4.13, 5.7
    A. Side pressure or twisting of the blade when operating should be avoided. If too much pressure is applied to the blade, the hazard of the blade breaking with the aluminum oxide or silicone blade or the blade shattering with the carbide tipped blade is increased.
    B. When cutting with the carbide tipped blade members should rev up the saw, lean forward, and squeeze the throttle to bring the blade up to full RPM before contacting the surface with the blade. Let the blade lower itself into the material to be cut. A slight back and forth motion of the saw will widen the cut and help prevent binding of the blade. Maintain the saw at full RPM while cutting.
    C. When cutting with an abrasive disk, when the disk is brought into contact with the material to be cut the engine is run at low speed and the speed is gradually increased as the disk cuts into the material. This provides guidance for the disk. Then work at full throttle and regulate engine speed by varying pressure on the material.
A

A
If too much pressure is applied to the blade, the hazard of blade breakage (carbide tipped) or blade shattering (aluminum oxide or silicon carbide discs) is increased.

60
Q
  1. Please read the following statements and indicate which ones are true statements. 4.14.1, 5.5, 5.9
  2. The saw is designed for use on a horizontal surface at ground or foot level. Operation becomes particularly dangerous as the surface angle approaches the vertical. Accordingly, whenever the saw is used on other than a flat horizontal surface at foot level, the blade guard should be moved and secured to protect the operator. The saw shall be used in horizontal position only under the direct supervision of an officer.
  3. The stance for normal cutting should be the boxer stance. The operator draws the saw toward the space between his feet, which is approximately 18” to 20”.
  4. When a cut has been completed, stop the blade by lifting the spinning blade from the cut, releasing the trigger, and let the blade spin freely until it stops spinning. Placing a spinning blade on a roof surface to stop the blade from spinning will shorten the life of the blade unnecessarily.
    A. All statements are true.
    B. All statements are false.
    C. Only #2 is true.
    D. 1 and 3 are true.
    E. 2 and 3 are false.
A

C

  1. 14.1 The saw is designed for use on a horizontal surface at ground or foot level. Operation becomes particularly dangerous as the surface angle approaches the vertical. Accordingly, whenever the saw is used on other than flat horizontal surface at foot level, the blade guard should be moved and secured to protect the Operator. It shall be used in this position only on the direct order and/or under the supervision of an officer. To support the weight of the saw in this position an additional member may have to be used.
  2. 9 When a cut has been completed, stop the blade by lifting the spinning blade from the cut, releasing the trigger and placing the blade on the surface being cut.
61
Q
  1. In all fires, it is still of paramount importance to provide rapid initial ventilation like the windows, skylights, etc. before getting involved in the slower work of cutting the roof. Which point below about roof cutting is not correct? 6.1.6, 6.1.7, 6.1.8, 6.1.9
    A. A 10’ hook brought to the roof of a taxpayer can be used efficiently to push down double ceilings, open returns, etc.
    B. If excessive resistance to the saw is encountered, the cut may be on the beam. Sparks are a good indication that the cut is on a beam. Move the saw to the outside of the cut, permitting a cut clear of the beam.
    C. If resistance is met when cutting perpendicular to the roof beams, lift the saw, continue to cut, but avoid a deep cut into the beams.
    D. Fresh smoke coming from the area of the saw blade and a slowing of the blade usually indicates too deep a cut through heavy material. When this occurs, remove the saw from the cut, rev the saw up to maximum RPM, and begin a slightly shallower cut.
A

B
6.1.6 If excessive resistance to the saw is encountered, the cut may be on the beam. Sparks are a good indication that cut is on beam. Move the saw to the inside of the cut, permitting a cut clear of the beam and making the section easier to remove.

62
Q
  1. Members of Squad 9 were discussing making a coffin cut on the roof of a six story old law tenement. Which point(s) made was/were not entirely correct?
    A. A coffin cut is approximately 3’ x 6’ and can be expanded as necessary. When making a coffin cut, the second cut is called the knockout cut.
    B. There are seven cuts in the sequence when making a coffin cut. Five of these cuts will be 3’ in length.
    C. Cut number three is 6’ long and is the longest cut in the sequence.
    D. The preferred way to examine the cockloft is by making a coffin cut and observing the conditions in the cockloft.
    E. As soon as the knockout cut is made, additional members should start to pull open the coffin cut
A

D
Cockloft conditions may be observed by opening the returns between the roof and the top floor ceiling. (Returns are side walls of the hatchway, such as skylights, scuttles, etc.)

63
Q
  1. Since there is very little visual or physical difference between the aluminum oxide and silicon carbide blades it is a good practice to paint them so that they are easily recognizable. Please choose the correct point below. TB Tools 9 Appendix C
    A. The silicon carbide blade shall be painted yellow and both sides should be painted. The aluminum oxide blade shall remain unpainted.
    B. The silicon carbide blade shall remain unpainted. The aluminum oxide blade shall be painted yellow and both sides should be painted.
    C. The silicon carbide blade shall be painted orange and both sides should be painted. The aluminum oxide blade shall remain unpainted.
    D. The silicon carbide blade shall remain unpainted. The aluminum oxide blade shall be painted orange and both sides should be painted.
A

A

64
Q
  1. Each roof carry sling comes as a three piece Husqvarna kit and includes a handle attachment and its modified D-ring, the saw sling, and the blade guard sling attachment. Which point about the sling and its part is not correct? TB Tools 9 Appendix 9
    A. An adjustable roof saw carry sling has been issued to all ladder companies. The sling is designed to aid members in carrying the roof saw at FDNY operations in a hands free manner.
    B. Inspection of the sling for serviceability must be a normal part of saw maintenance. The sling must be removed from the saw before starting.
    C. When the saw is stored on the apparatus, the sling should be adjusted for a proper fit to the user upon assignment of a position.
    D. The saw sling has a breaking strength of 1,000 lbs. while the handle and the blade guard sling attachments have a breaking strength of 5000 lbs.
A

D

1.2 All components have a breaking strength of 1,000 lbs.

Decks in Fire Officer Spring 2019 Class (11):