food hygiene written COPY Flashcards
(131 cards)
1
Q
A. Cadmium is taken up from the soil and filtered through the leaves.
B. Lead is taken up from the soil and filtered through the leaves
A
A
2
Q
A. Methyl-mercury has a neuro-toxic effect.
B. Methyl-mercury has a cardiotoxic effect.
A
A
3
Q
A. Anthrax, you must slaughter and do necropsy.
B. Anthrax, you do not slaughter.
A
B
4
Q
A. Paratuberculosis has no post-mortem lesions.
B. Paratuberculosis PM lesions are typically found in SI and prox LI
A
B
5
Q
A. Q-fever has no characteristic post-mortem lesions.
B. Q-fever has characteristic post-mortem lesions seen in the lungs.
A
A
6
Q
A. Paratuberculosis, perform slaughter regardless of findings.
B. Paratuberculosis, animals should always be treated first.
A
A
7
Q
A. Paratuberculosis has clinical signs.
B. Paratuberculosis has no clinical signs.
A
A
8
Q
A. the official control on food safety of Molluscs/Fish. 854/2004
B. the official control on food safety of Molluscs/Fish. 854/2014
A
A
9
Q
A. dilution of the 3rd tube when using spread plate method is 10^-10.
B. dilution of the 3rd tube when using spread plate method is 10^-5.
A
B
10
Q
A. amount of protein in milk is 28g.
B. amount of protein in milk is 32g.
A
A
11
Q
A. the typical characteristic of natural casings of sausages is that they’re impermeable to smoke
B. the typical characteristic of natural casings of sausages is that they’re permeable to smoke
A
B
12
Q
A. spread plate the sample is already 0.1ml when you start
B. spread plate the sample is already 1.0ml when you start
A
A
13
Q
A. Pour plate the sample is already 0.1ml when you start
B. Pour plate the sample is already 1ml when you start
A
B
14
Q
A. Impedance: always DECREASES
B. Impedance: always INCREASES
A
B
15
Q
A. Boiling test must be used along with other tests.
B. Boiling test can be used alone.
A
B
16
Q
A. the reason for adding antioxidants to meats is for stabilising the colour
B. the reason for adding antioxidants to meats is for medical foodstuff
A
A
17
Q
A. Eggpacking centre requires approval
B. Laying hen farm requires approval
A
A
18
Q
A. In the event of food quality defect, the food must be withdrawn from the market
B. In the event of food safety defect, the food must be withdrawn from the market
A
B
19
Q
A. In the case of single-cyst bovine cysticercosis, the non affected parts are fit for human consumption.
B. In the case of single-cyst bovine cysticercosis, the non affected parts may be declared fit for human consumption after cold treatment.
A
B
20
Q
A. Cracked eggs are unfit for human consumption.
B. Cracked eggs are fit for human consumption only after heat treatment.
A
B
21
Q
A. Quick cured meats shall be chilled.
B. Quick cured meats shall be stored at room temperature.
A
It says fast cured and long cured meat should be kept under 15°C, so…..A..?
22
Q
A. Histamine can be measured if there is a doubt of freshness of fishery products
B. Total volatile basic nitrogen can be measured if there is a doubt of freshness of fishery products
A
B
23
Q
A. Noble moulds are obligate pathogens, this makes them utilisable to the food industry.
B. Noble moulds do not produce mycotoxins, this makes them utilisable to the food industry.
A
B
24
Q
A. In the case of foot and mouth disease, the meat from pigs derived from a protection zone and slaughtered in an immediate way may be used for production of animal feed.
B. In the case of foot and mouth disease, the meat from pigs derived from a protection zone and slaughtered in an immediate way may be used for human consumption, however only after heat treatment.
A
B
25
A. A core temperature, of minimum 70 degrees, should be reached by the heat treatment of Frankfurters.
B. A core temperature, of minimum 90 degrees, should be reached by the heat treatment of Frankfurters.
A
Core temperature of 65°C would be sufficient to achieve the protein coagulation, but for hygienic reason and in order to eliminate a major part of micro-organisms, core temperature of 70-72°C must be reached. (practical 10)
26
A. The control of personal hygiene is the main element of the official control of good hygiene practice.
B. The control of personal hygiene is the main element of the official control of HAPCC system.
A?
27
A. Fresh class "A" eggs shall be chilled below 5 degreesC at the farm.
B. Fresh class "A" eggs must not be artificially chilled on the farm.
B
28
A. Animals diseased in anthrax shall be treated.
| B. Animals diseased in anthrax shall be slaughtered.
A
29
A. Live bivalves cannot contain histamine.
| B. Live bivalves cannot contain Salmonella spp. in 25g of sample (0/25g)
B
2073/2005/EC
(practical 7)
30
A. Establishments manufacturing foods containing unprocessed products of animal origin shall be approved by a competent authority.
B. Establishments manufacturing foods containing unprocessed products of plant origin shall be approved by a competent authority.
A
31
A. In the event of a non compliance with the food safety criterion laid down in the microbiological regulations of the EU in force, the food must not be placed on the market.
B. In the event of a non compliance with the food safety or process hygiene criterion laid down in the microbiological regulations of the EU in force, the food must not be placed on the market.
A
Pathogen microorganisms in
foodstuffs 4: Regulation of microbiology: food safety
EU regulation 2073/2005/EC
Food safety criteria: limits that determine the acceptability of foods for human consumption → noncompliance:
food safety defect → distribution shall be prohibited, product shall be recalled from the market
- Process hygiene criteria: indicate proper operation without any direct effect on the acceptability of foods →
improvement of technology, however this shall not affect the distribution of the given food
32
A. the main aim of curing is to inhibit the growth of Staph aureus
B. the main aim of curing is to inhibit the growth of Clostridium botulinum
B
Lecture on week 7 of Semester 1, it has a chart called chemical mathods, under curing, purpose of application, it says "Color, taste, preservation (C. botulinum)"
33
A. The hair line cracked eggs are not fit for human consumption
B. The hair line cracked eggs are fit for human consumption
B
34
A. Salmonella positive flocks infected with S. enteritidis are not fit for human consumption.
B. Salmonella positive flocks infected with S. enteritidis must be slaughtered separately
B
Separate slaughter and the detained storage of carcases and offal can be ordered:
if the stock’s animal health status so requires (e.g. in the case of poultry flocks positive for S. Enteritidis or S. Typhimurium)
35
A. it is each member states competence to define their official control organisations
B. The eu regulation on official food control in force defines both the general principles and the official control organisations that shall perform the controls
A
official control organisations → national issue
36
A. In Hungary, the official control of the whole food chain is performed by a single food chain control authority.
B. In Ireland, the official control of the whole food chain is performed by a single food chain control authority.
B?
37
A. Advantages of using natural casing: impermeable
| B. Advantages of using natural casing: permeable to smoke and water vapour
B
38
A. Complementary bacteriological meat inspection aims at detecting cross contamination of carcasses during slaughter.
B. Complementary bacteriological meat inspection aims at detecting conditions associated with bacterial disseminations or local infections occurred in the slaughtered animal.
B
Indications for Complementary bacteriological meat inspection
o Any suspicion suggestive of bacterial dissemination, except when septicaemia can clearly be
established on the basis of the gross pathological lesions
o The presence of purulent lesions or inflammatory or necrotic foci in the parenchymal organs
o Cases of icterus or dystocia (obstructed labour)
o Suspicion of poisoning
o Official veterinarian’s professional judgement and decision
39
A. Trueperella pyogenes causing bacterial dissemination in pigs is a zoonotic bacterium
B. Trueperella pyogenes causing bacterial dissemination in pigs has no public health significance
B
Trueperella pyogenes, Pseudomonas aeruginosa strains do not cause disease in humans according to lecture notes but the internet says T. pyo can cause (self limiting) infections...
40
A. Meat products intended for human consumption may only be manufactured in a registered establishment
B. Meat products intended for human consumption may only be manufactured in a approved establishment
B
41
A. If chronic erysipelas is detected at meat inspection, the carcass must be declared unfit for human consumption.
B. If chronic erysipelas is detected at meat inspection, the carcass can be declared fit for human consumption after heat treatment.
A
Diseased animals must not be slaughtered for human consumption. Identified at the slaughterhouse, judgement in all erysipelas forms of pigs is total condemnation. Other animal species being diseased by E. rhusiopathiae: total condemnation (unfit for human consumption)
42
A. A meat product is determined according to the cut surface of the product, which no longer has the characteristics of fresh meat
B. A meat product is determined according to the production process of the product, which refers to subsequent change in texture compared to raw meats
B
43
A. in case of dry pastas, contamination with L. monocytogenes may present a significant food safety risk
B. in case of dry pastas, contamination with S. aureus may present a significant food safety risk
B
44
A. The OIE listed diseases are notifiable human disease
| B. The OIE listed diseases are notifiable animal disease
B
| OIE-listed diseases: notifiable animal diseases with possible human health relevance
45
```
Which statement is true for Salmonella?
A. Indol production is negative
B. Voges-Proskauer test is positive
C. Lactose fermentation is positive
D. H2S production is positive
```
A
| D
46
Which statement is false for Listeria monocytogenes?
A. Catalase test is positive
B. Rhamnose negative
C. Its typical colonies on ALOA agar are blue
D. Shows summer saulting motility at 25°C
B
47
```
Which statement is false for E.coli?
A. Citrate utilisation test is positive
B. Indole test is positive
C. Voges-Proskauer test is negative
D. Methyl red test is positive
```
A
48
```
Enterococcus faecalis can grow:
A. Between 10-60°C
B. At pH 2.6
C. At 6.5% salt concentration
D. Grow on blood agar with 70% bile content
```
C
49
Which statement is false?
A. Limulus test is suitble for detection of Gram - bacteria
B. Impedence measurement works with special media only
C. The microbial count can be determined by detecting the amount of ATP
D. The redox potential of the medium decreases during the bacterial growth.
C
50
Which statement is true?
A. Enteroccus faecalis is catalase positive
B. Staphylococcus aureus is cultured in Fraser broth
C. Positive colonies of E.coli are bluish green on TBX agar
D. Enterobacteriaceae cannot ferment glucose
C
51
Which statement is false?
A. Listeria monocytogenes' beta-haemolysis strenghtens the haemolysis of Staphyloccous aureus
B. Salmonella colonies are reddish purple on XLD agar
C. Salmonella decomposes lactose
D. MRSV agar can be used instead of RVS broth in the enrichement procedure of Salmonella
C
52
Which statement is true for Clostridium perfringens?
A. Cultured on sulphite cycloserine agar
B. B and C strains are pathogenic for humans
C. In LS broth incubated at 25°C
D. No haemolysis on blood agar
A
53
Which statement is false?
A. Selective media of moulds have low pH
B. Enteroccus faecalis is one of the most resistant among the non-spore forming microbes
C. Enterococcus faecalis is catalase positive
D. E.coli can ferment lactose
C
54
```
Which statement is true for Staphylococcus aureus?
A. Produces toxin between 8-45°C
B. Reduces nitrate to nitrite
C. No haemolysis on blood agar
D. Gram negative
```
B
55
What is the suitability of sampling based on suspicion and annual monitoring plan? Write the letters to the adequate line:
A. It is used to inspect the cause of foodborne disease
B. It is used to determine the drug residues in the food
C. It is used to investigate the chemical contaminants of the food
D. It is used to detect the poisonous source
Sampling based on suspicion: A,D
| Sampling based on monitoring plans: B,C
56
```
Classify the different screening methods:
A. Meatsafe test
B. KIS test
C. Brilliant black reduction test
D. Snap test
```
Microbial growth inhibition test: B,C
| Receptor based test: A,D
57
```
What is the quantity of one sample based on the legal regulation in case of the foods below? Pair the sample with the adequate quantity:
A. Turkey meat
B. Stone fruit
C. Mammal fat
D. Cow milk
```
Cow milk: 500ml
Turkey meat, Mammal fat: 500g
Stone fruit: 1kg
58
What are the characteristics to the objective inspection program and the selective control?
A. It is used to survey attributes of food
B. It is used to screen the non-compliant items occurring rarely
C. The sample is selected by targeted risk evaluation
D. The results of the investigation are valid for the whole population
Objective inspection program: A,D
| Selective control: B,C
59
```
Classify the different screening methods:
A. Rosa test
B. Delvotest
C. Four plate method
D. Beta star test
```
Microbial growth inhibition method: B, C
| Receptor based test: A,D
60
```
What is the quantity of one sample based on the legal regulation in case of the food below?
A. Mammal meat
B. Pulse (leguminous)
C. Sausage
D. Milk
```
Milk: 500ml
Mammal meat, sausage: 500g
Pulse: 1kg
61
What is not true for gas chromatography?
A. It is not suitable for analyzing inorganic materials
B. Heat sensitive materials can also be analyzed
C. It has higher resolution capacities than liquid chromatography
D. It can be connected with mass spectrometric detection
C
62
What is the main bottleneck of molecular spectroscopy?
A. Detection and quantification levels are not low enough
B. It is suitable for analyzing solid samples
C. Only one compound can give a signal in the given wavelength
D. It requires too high amount of analytical sample
C
63
Which one is not characterstic of indicator organisms?
A. Should be informative in all types of waters
B. They are obligate pathogens
C. Characterized by longer survival time than the general enteral pathogenic microbes.
D. Their quantity must show direct correlation with the degree of faecal contamination
B
64
Which statement is true for Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
A. Gram positive, rod shaped, oxidase positive, non spore-forming bacteria
B. Occurs in faeces, soil, water and waste water
C. Can be used as an indicator of faecal contamination
D. Provides information about defects of filtering process
B
65
Which statement is false for sulphite reducing Clostridia and Clostridium perfringens?
A. Obligate anaerobic, spore forming bacteria
B. Most representative is Clostridium botulinum, which is a natural member of faecal microflora
C. Spore can survive in the water for a long time and are highly resistant to disinfection
D. The presence in drinking water indicates the possibility of protozoa cysts and defects of filtering process
B
66
Which statement is false for heterotrophic aerobic bacteria?
A. Determined at 15°C and 37°C
B. Long term examination can be used for control of the treatment of water
C. Sudden increase in the number refers to a defect in the water treatment
D. Carried out by pour plate method
A
67
Which statement is true for total coliforms?
A. Associated with a more or less faecal contamination
B. Direct indicators of faecal contamination or have health risk
C. Presence in drinking water indicates the possibility of protozoa cysts
D. Belonging to the Streptococcaceae family
A
68
Which statement is true for the organic acids as preservatives?
A. Usually these substances have bactericide effect
B. The organic acids are effective in dissociated form
C. The effectiveness of the preservatives depends on the concentration temperature
D. At low pH value the degree of dissociation is higher
C
69
Which statement is true for the water removal?
A. The microbes can multiply at any water activity circumstances
B. Reducing the water activity inhibits the multiplication of microorganisms
C. The bacteria can grow below 0.8 aw
D. The aw requirement of bacteria is lower than the moulds
B
70
Which statement is true for the heat treatement?
A. All of the vegetative cells can be eliminated with 60°C heat treatment
B. Enterococcus can survive 80°, 30min heat treatment
C. All the spores can be eliminated with 80°C heat treatment
D. The most commonly used preservation method in the food industry
D
71
```
The typical spoilage flora of meat products are?
A. Moulds
B. Yeasts
C. Micrococci, Lactobacilli
D. Salmonella spp.
```
C
72
```
The typical spoilage flora of bakery products are?
A. Moulds
B. Lactobacilli
C. Yeasts
D. Clostridium botulinum
```
A
73
Which one is characteristic of indicator organisms?
A. Should be informative in all types of waters
B. They are obligate pathogens
C. Charcterized by shorter survival time than the general enteral pathogenic microbes
D. Their quantity does not show direct correlation with the degree of faecal contamination
A
74
Which statement is false for Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
A. Gram negative, rod shaped, oxidase positive, non-spore forming bacteria
B. Occurs in faeces, soil, water and waste water
C. Can be used as an indicator of faecal contamination
D. Provides information about the general cleanliness of the water distribution system
C
75
Which statement is true for sulphite reducing Clostridia and Clostridium perfringens?
A. Obligate aerobic, spore forming bacteria
B. Most representative is clostridium botulinum, which is a natural member of faecal microflora
C. Spores can survive in the water for a long time and are highly resistant to disinfection
D. Provides information about the general cleanliness of the water distribution system
C
76
Which statement is true for heterotrophic aerobic bacteria?
A. Determined at 15°C and 37°C
B. Long term examination can be used for conrol of the treatment of water
C. Sudden increase in the number refers to a faecal contamination in the water treatment
D. Carried out by the MPN method
B
77
Which statement is false for total coliforms?
A. Associated with a more or less faecal contamination
B. Direct indicators of faecal contaminaton or have health risk
C. Provide good information on the microbiological status of the water
D. Belonging to the Enterobacteriaceae family
B
78
Which statement is false for the organic acis as preservatives?
A. Usually these substances have a bacteriostatic effect
B. The organic acids are effective in undissociated form
C. The effectiveness of the preservatives depends on the concentration temperature
D. At low pH value the degree of dissociation is higher
D
79
Which statement is false for the water removal?
A. The microbes can multiply at certain water activity circumstances
B. The reducing of water activity inhibits the multiplication of microorganisms
C. The bacteria can grow below 0.7 aw
D. The aw requirement of bacteria is higher than the moulds
C
80
Which statement is false for the heat treatment?
A. All of the vegetative cells can be eliminated with the 60°C heat treatment
B. Enterococcus can survive in 60°C for 30 minutes
C. All the spores cannot be eliminated with 80°C heat treatment
D. The most commonly used preservations method in the food industry
A
81
What part of the electromagnetic radiation spectrum can be used for analytical purposes?
A. Only the ultraviolet and the visible parts
B. The ultraviolet, visible and near infrared parts
C. The ultraviolet, visible, infrared and x-ray parts
D. The whole spectrum can be used
C
82
The main bottleneck of mass spectrometry?
A. Detection and quantification levels are not low enough
B. It is not suitable for analyzing solid samples
C. It is suitable only for structure analysis of chemically clean materials
D. It requires too high amount of analytical sample
C
83
How many meat stamps should go on a body?
A. 5
B. 3
A
84
Which category of shells should be wash
| carefully/for a long time, A, B or C?
C
85
which type of meat has low level of glycogen?
- PSE: most of the glycogen is degraded
within 45 min lactate is produced decr pH
- DFD: Low amount of glycogen in the muscles before slaughter no lactate
can be produced because there's nothing to produce it from.
?
86
which bacterium is the direct indicator of fecal contamination in water?
A. E. coli, Enterococcus
B. Pseudomonas, Coliforms
A
87
in cattle and pig during a routine examination you should cut the lymph nodes of the head or not, and if yes which ones?
- Routine in Cattle! Only if suspicious in pig
| - Maxillary, retropharyngeal and parotid LN
88
8 months old cattle or above it, which part of the body is SRM?
A. Spinal cord
B. Hindlimb
A
89
cattle and pig, bleeding out in horizontal/transversal/or both way?
A. Horizontal
B. Transversal
B
90
what do you identify in Eber's test?
A. NH3
B. H2O2
A
91
which should be highlighted on a sticker of products?
A. Manufacturer's processing number
B. Allergens
B
92
which bacteria you don't identify by membrane filtration method?
A. Coliforms
B. Heterotrophic aerobic bacteria
B
93
what happens if an animal doesn't have all the official papers/certificates at the
slaughterhouse?
A. Slaughter is permitted but the meat has to be stored separately from
other meat until we have the paper
B. Animal must be isolated until papers are produced
A
94
which form of the myoglobin is irreversible?
A. Sulphomyoglobin, Chylomyoglobin
B. Haemoglobin
A
95
which yellow colouring of the meat is pathological?
A. Icterus
B. Pink
A
96
Which animal has a personal paper for transporting?
A. Rabbit and poultry
B. Cattle and horse
B
97
Chicken boiling the water temperature depends on what?
A. Time taken to boil
B. Later cooling technology
B
98
Where do they eviscerate small game?
A. on a tablecloth
B. a post hunting collection
shed
B?
99
What drug is in group A?
A. Antibiotics
B. Chloramphenicol (also anabolic substances e.g hormones, stilbene, nitrofuran, tyreostatics, zeranol, beta agonists)
B
100
What sample you DON'T take in primary sampling?
A Milk
B meat
C urine
C
101
From what do you take a sample of 500g?
A. Mammal meat
B. Eggs
A
102
What is not true for an assay with roots in suspicion?
A. When there is a suspicion, sample is taken from the suspected contaminated food/product in order to detect food borne disease and poisonous source
B. Sample is taken from all food from farm
A
103
In what range of light can you get information about quantity?
A. Visible
B. IR
B
104
What is NOT true about mass spectroscopy?
A. sample is converted into ions, high sensitivity, low detection limit, only a small amount of sample required.
B. sample is converted into ions, low sensitivity, high detection limit, only a small amount of sample required.
A
105
What is NOT true about atomspectroscopy?
A. sample is converted into atomic state and light absorption is measured.
B. sample is converted into atomic state and heat absorption is measured.
A
106
For what would you use molecular spectroscopy?
A. Information on quantity
B. Quantitative analytical purposes
(QUALiative analysis?)
B
107
What kind of microflora is used in curd?
A. mesophilic lactic acid bacteria
B. thermophilic lactic acid bacteria
A
108
What kind of microflora is used in kefir/koumiss?
A. lactic acid bacteria and yeast
B. mesophilic lactic acid bacteria
A
109
What kind of microflora is used in yoghurt?
A. lactic acid bacteria and yeast
B. thermophilic lactic acid bacteria
B
110
What paint (stain) can paint the lactate producing bacteria?
A. Methylene blue
B. Crystal violet
A
111
What method roots in receptor binding?
A. Rosa (also snap test)
B. Delvo
A
112
What method has roots in microbe inhibition?
A. KIS
B. Rosa
A
| also fourplate, delvo test, brilliant black reduction test
113
What's the colour of a positive DELVO test?
A. Purple (negative: yellow)
B. Blue (negative: Red)
A
114
Which method would you use for protein definition in milk?
A. Mass spectronomy
B. Klejdahl method
B
| formal titration, FTIR (fourier transformation infrared spectroscopy)
115
What method would you use to find out if there was cheating with milk?
A. Density measurement
B. Milk weight measurement
A
| density decreases when foreign milk added
116
What is the method that shows if the milk was heat-treated or not?
A. Phosphatase or peroxidase test
B. Oxidase examination
A
117
Which is the durable permanently (?) milk?
A. UHT
B. Fresh
A
118
A. Hazard analysis critical control point (HACCP):
food safety regulation system applicable to the entire food chain, increases efficiency, enables cost-effective management, preventative approach rather than control
B. Hazard analysis critical control point (HACCP):
food safety regulation system applicable to the consumer end of food chain, increases efficiency, enables cost-effective management.
A
119
In faecal contamination of water which microbe do you search for?
A. Strept. faecalis
B. Clost. Perfringens
A
| also E.coli
120
A. Strept. Agalactiae can cause human disease, but cannot be gotten from the bovine groups
B. Strept. Agalactiae cannot cause human disease
A
| can infect humans, but not zoonotic
121
What is that cant be on chicken meat?
A. salmonella
B. campylobacter
A
122
What is the primary source of yersinia enterocolitica?
A. Raw beef
B. Raw pork
B
123
Which has the lowest aw?
A. Moulds
B. Bacteria
A
124
Which is based on last years production?
A. Poultry
B. Dairy
A
125
Which CANNOT be contaminated during primary production?
A. Yoghurt
B. Sausage
B
126
Alcohol test used for?
A. Examination of contamination
B. Examiantion of freshness and acidity
B
127
pH sorbic acid works best at?
A. pH 7.3
B. pH 5.5
B
128
A. D value is the time for (surviving) population to be reduced by 1 magnitude at a specific temp.
B. D value is the time for (surviving) population to be increased by 1 magnitude at a specific temp.
A
129
A. The Z-value is the change in temperature, which results in a tenfold change in the decimal reduction
B. The Y-value is the change in temperature, which results in a tenfold change in the decimal reduction
A
130
A. lactobacillus are Gram-positive, spore-forming bacteria
| B. lactobacillus are Gram-positive, non-spore-forming bacteria
B
131
A. Peroxidase test is the storch test
| B. Peroxidase test is the milk fat test
A
