Forensics Flashcards

1
Q

OP-
What is offender profiling?

A

A tool to help investigate to accurately predict likely offenders.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

OP-
What are the two types of offender profiling?

A

Top down approach, bottom up approach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

OP-
What is the top down approach?

A

Offenders are assigned to one of two pre-existing categories based on witness accounts and evidence from the crime scene.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

OP-
What are the two categories in the top-down approach?

A

Organised and disorganised offender

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

OP-
What is an organised offender?

A

Evidence of planning, targets victims, socially and sexually competent, higher than average intelligence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

OP-
What is a disorganised offender?

A

Little evidence of planning, leaves clues, socially and sexually incompetent, lower than average intelligence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

OP- TDA-
What are the four stages of an FBI profile?

A
  1. Data assimilation= the profiler reviews the evidence (photos, pathology reports, witness report)
  2. Crime screen classification= organised or disorganised
  3. Crime reconstruction= hypothesis in terms of sequence of events, behaviours of the victims etc.
  4. Profile generation= hypothesis related to the likely offender e.g. demographic background, physical characteristics, behaviour
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

OP- BUA-
What is the bottom up approach?

A

Data driven approach, using statistical data on smaller crimes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

OP- BUA-
What is investigative psychology?

A

Apply statistical procedures alongside psychological theory to the analysis of crime scene evidence. We establish patterns of behaviour.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

OP- BUA-
What is interpersonal coherence?

A

How they behave at the scene relates to how they behave in real life.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

OP- BUA-
What is forensic awareness?

A

Describes those individuals who have been the subject of police interrogation before, may know how to cover traits.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

OP- BUA-
What is geographical processing?

A

Uses info about the location of linked crime scenes to infer a home or operational base.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

OP- BUA-
What is spacial consistency?

A

When an offender commits crime within a limited geographical space.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

OP- BUA-
What is modus operandi?

A

The way criminals commit crimes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

OP- BUA-
What is the marauder?

A

Commits crimes near the home base

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

OP- BUA-
What is a commuter?

A

Travelled from their home base to commit crimes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

BE- L-
What are some examples of features in the atavistic form?

A

Big ears, long arms, dark skin, protruding jaw, deformed skill

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

BE- L-
What are some non-physical features of the atavistic form?

A

Insensitivity to pain, slang, tattoos, unemployment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

BE- G-
What is the idea of genes causing ciminality?

A

Suggests would be offenders inherit a gene or combinations, this predisposed them to commit crimes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

BE- G-
What does the diathesis stress model suggest?

A

Offending is caused by a combination of biological and environmental factors.
Could have a genetic predisposition, and can be triggered by an environmental, biological, or psychological.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

BE- N-
What is criminality associated with? (Disorder)

A

Antisocial personality disorder, associated with a reduced emotional response and lack of empathy for the feelings of others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

BE- N-
What are mirror neurones?

A

People with APD can experience empathy when they want to

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

BE- N-
What parts of the brain are affected?

A

Prefrontal cortex, amygdala and the temporal lobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

PE-
What is eyesenks theiry?

A

There are three aspects to criminal personality. Extrovert, neurotic, and psychotic.

25
Q

PE- ET-
What is extrovert caused by?

A

An under active CNS

26
Q

PE- ET-
What is extrovert?

A

Constantly seek excitement due to an under active CNS, they are likely to take part in risky behaviour. They tend to not condition easily.

27
Q

PE- ET-
What is neurotic caused by?

A

An overactive sympathetic nervous system.

28
Q

PE- ET-
What is neurotic?

A

Response quickly to threatening situations, nervous, jumpy and overanxious.

29
Q

PE- ET-
What is psychotic caused by?

A

High testosterone levels

30
Q

PE- ET-
What is psychotic?

A

Unemotional and prone to aggression.

31
Q

PE- ET-
What is the criminal personality?

A

Mixture of all three personality traits.
N- unstable and tend to overreact.
E- seek more arousal and engage in risky behaviour
P- aggressive and lacks empathy

32
Q

PE- ET-
What is the role of socialisation?

A

Taught to delay gratification and be more socially orientated.

33
Q

PE- ET-
Which personalities are difficult to condition?

A

E or N have difficult nervous systems to condition

34
Q

PE- ET-
What is a definition of offending?

A

Offenders are developmentally immature, selfish, and associated with mediate gratification.

35
Q

PE- ET-
How do you measure the criminal personality?

A

Through the EPQ, (Eyesenks personality quiz),

36
Q

PE- C-
What is pre-convential morality stage one?

A

Punishment orientation- rules are obeyed to avoid punishment

37
Q

PE- C-
What is pre-convential morality stage two?

A

Instrumental orientation or pr personal gain- rules are obeyed fro personal gain

38
Q

PE- C-
What is convential morality stage three?

A

Good boy/girl orientation- rules are obeyed for approval

39
Q

PE- C-
What is convential morality stage four?

A

Maintenance of social order- rules area maintained to keep social order

40
Q

PE- C-
What is post-convential morality stage five?

A

Morality of contract and individual risks- rules are challenged if they infringe on rights

41
Q

PE- C-
What is convential morality stage six?

A

What is morality of conscience- individuals have a personal set of ethical principles

42
Q

PE- C-
What is moral development?

A

Decisions and judgement on right and wrong can be summarised by the stages of moral reasoning

43
Q

PE- C-
How are the stages of moral reasoning linked with criminality?

A

Pre-C= need to avoid punishment and gain rewards, (less mature).

44
Q

PE- C-
What are cognitive distortions?

A

We all occasionally show evidence of faulty thinking, when explaining our own behaviour, especially when out of character. Linked to the way in which offenders. Interpret other peoples behaviour and justify their own crimes

45
Q

PE- C-
What is hostile attribution bias?

A

Offenders misinterpret non-violent facial expressions and body language as violent and then act back in a violent way

46
Q

PE- C-
What is minimisation?

A

Offenders aim to downplay the seriousness of their offence

47
Q

PE- DAT-
What is differential association theory?

A

Individuals learn offending behaviour through association and interaction with different people.

48
Q

PE- DAT-
How is behaviour acquired?

A

Acquired through learning,

49
Q

PE- DAT-
What is differential associations?

A

Should be able to mathematically predict how likely individuals are to offend

50
Q

PE- DAT-
What are Sutherland 9 propositions?

A
  1. Criminal behaviour is learned
  2. Criminal behaviour is learned with interaction with with other people in the process of communication.
  3. Main part of learning criminality is within n intimate personal groups
  4. Learning criminality includes learning techniques and motives
  5. Motives are learned through favourable and unfavourable laws
  6. Becomes a delinquent when willing to break an excess of unfavourable laws
  7. DA vary in frequency, duration an d intensity
  8. Learning criminality involves same mechanisms as any learning
  9. Criminal behaviour is an expression of general needs and values
51
Q

PE- p-
What is the superego?

A

A part of the personality Siffe stem by Freud.

52
Q

PE- P-
When is the superego formed?

A

At the end of he phallic stage

53
Q

PE- P-
What is the weak superego?

A

Failure to identify with the same sex parent

54
Q

PE- P-
What is the deviant superego?

A

The superego has immoral and deviant fires

55
Q

PE- P-
What is the over-harsh superego?

A

Created form an over harsh parenting style

56
Q

PE- P-
What is the role of emotion?

A

Having an inadequate superego is to allow primitive, emotional demands to become the upmost in guiding moral behaviours

57
Q

PE- P-
What is Repression?

A

Negative emotions are repressed until they ‘explode’

58
Q

PE- P-
What is displacement? (11 year old boy case)

A

Not angry at the brother but took it out on his brother