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BDS 1 > Formative B 2017 > Flashcards

Formative B 2017 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which one of the following passes through the diaphragm along with
    the oesophagus?
  2. Azygos vein
  3. Phrenic nerves
  4. Right vagus
  5. Sympathetic trunks
  6. Thoracic duct
A
  1. Right vagus
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2
Q
  1. The apex of the lungs is covered by which pleura?
  2. Bronchopulmonary
  3. Cervical
  4. Costal
  5. Diaphragmatic
  6. Mediastinal
A
  1. Cervical
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3
Q
  1. Which of the following muscles are involved in quiet inspiration?
  2. Abdominal muscles
  3. Diaphragm
  4. Diaphragm and external intercostal muscles
  5. Internal and external intercostal muscles
  6. Trapezius
A
  1. Diaphragm and external intercostal muscles
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4
Q
  1. Which one of the following is the epithelium that lines the trachea?
  2. Pseudostratified
  3. Simple squamous
  4. Stratified columnar
  5. Stratified cuboidal
  6. Transitional
A
  1. Pseudostratified
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5
Q
  1. The main reason why smooth muscle contraction makes it difficult
    for asthma patients to breath is that the contraction results in
    significant narrowing of the lumen of which one of the following?
  2. Alveolar ducts
  3. Bronchi
  4. Bronchioles
  5. Laryngeal inlet
  6. Mouth of each individual alveolus
A
  1. Bronchioles
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6
Q
  1. A patient has a forced vital capacity (FVC) of 4 L (80% of normal) and
    forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) of 2 L.
    Which one of the following best describes the type of respiratory
    deficit?
  2. Combined restrictive and obstructive deficits
  3. Neither restrictive nor obstructive
  4. Obstructive deficit alone
  5. Restrictive deficit alone
  6. There is no deficit, the values are within the normal range
A
  1. Obstructive deficit alone
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7
Q
  1. Which one of the following is responsible for the greatest
    proportion of carbon dioxide carried the blood?
  2. Bicarbonate in erythrocytes
  3. Bicarbonate in plasma
  4. Carbamino albumin
  5. Carbamino haemoglobin
  6. Dissolved in plasma
A
  1. Bicarbonate in plasma
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8
Q
  1. Ventilation may be increased by which one of the following?
  2. Breathing O2-enriched air
  3. Decreasing plasma pH (acidosis)
  4. Increasing blood perfusion of the lungs
  5. Stimulation of the carotid sinus by hypercapnia
  6. Stimulation of the intracranial chemoreceptors by hypoxia
A
  1. Decreasing plasma pH (acidosis)
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9
Q 
13. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) can be managed
with which one of the following class of drugs?
  1. β-adrenoceptor agonists
  2. β-adrenoceptor antagonists
  3. Calcium channel blockers
  4. Muscarinic receptor agonists
  5. Muscarinic receptor antagonists
A
  1. Muscarinic receptor antagonists
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10
Q
  1. The wall of the urinary bladder is best described by which one of
    the following?
  2. Has a lining of simple squamous epithelium
  3. Has a muscularis externa partially composed of skeletal muscle
  4. Has a prominent muscularis mucosae
  5. Has epithelial cells containing many membrane-shuttling vesicles in their apical cytoplasm
  6. Has epithelial cells that are highly permeable to water
A
  1. Has epithelial cells containing many membrane-shuttling vesicles in their apical cytoplasm
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11
Q
  1. Fluid entering the loop of Henle is normally ______ with plasma,
    and that entering the distal tubule is normally ______ with plasma
  2. Hypertonic, hypotonic
  3. Hypotonic, hypertonic
  4. Hypotonic, isotonic
  5. Isotonic, hypertonic
  6. Isotonic, hypotonic
A
  1. Isotonic, hypotonic
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12
Q
  1. Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) has which one of the following
    actions?
  2. Inhibits Na+ reabsorption in the DCT
  3. Is a renal vasoconstrictor
  4. Stimulates ADH release
  5. Stimulates renin release
  6. Suppresses the production of renin and aldosterone but not ADH
A
  1. Inhibits Na+ reabsorption in the DCT
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13
Q
  1. The release of renin results in the synthesis of which one of the
    following?
  2. ADH
  3. Aquaporins in the basal membranes of proximal convoluted tubule cells
  4. Na+ channels in the apical membranes of distal convoluted tubule cells
  5. Na+/K+/2Cl− transporters in the loop of Henle
  6. Renin
A
  1. Na+ channels in the apical membranes of distal convoluted tubule cells
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14
Q
  1. Which one of the following best describes the mechanism of
    diuretic action for loop diuretics?
  2. Block Na+ channels
  3. Inhibit the 3Na+/2K+ ATPase
  4. Inhibit the Na+/K+/2Cl− transporter
  5. Stimulate the 3Na+/2K+ ATPase
  6. Stimulate synthesis of aquaporins
A
  1. Inhibit the Na+/K+/2Cl− transporter
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15
Q
  1. A mix of skeletal and smooth muscle tissue is found in which part
    of the GI tract?
  2. Internal anal sphincter
  3. Muscularis externa of the middle third of the oesophagus
  4. Muscularis externa of the upper third of the oesophagus
  5. Taenium coli of the colon
  6. Tongue
A
  1. Muscularis externa of the middle third of the oesophagus
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16
Q
  1. By comparison with the small intestine, the large intestine has a
    greater percentage of which cells in its epithelium?
  2. Absorptive columnar cells
  3. APUD cells
  4. Goblet cells
  5. M cells
  6. Paneth cells
A
  1. Goblet cells
17
Q
  1. Salivation is stimulated by which one of the following?
  2. Acetylcholine
  3. Atropine
  4. Cholecystokinin
  5. Gastrin
  6. Histamine
A
  1. Acetylcholine
18
Q
  1. Which one of the following best describes the intestinal phase of
    gastric juice secretion?
  2. Controls gastric emptying
  3. Is activated by the release of secretin and cholecystokinin
  4. Is brought about by both distension of the duodenum and the release of secretin
  5. Is due to activation of G-cells in the intestinal mucosa
  6. Is regulated by somatostatin release by ECL cells
A
  1. Is due to activation of G-cells in the intestinal mucosa
19
Q
  1. The TATA box fulfils which one of the following roles?
  2. It codes for introns
  3. It initiates binding to ribosomes to mRNA
  4. It is a site for DNA synthesis to occur
  5. It is found adjacent to the translation start site in prokaryotic mRNAs
  6. It is found in promoter regions
A
  1. It is found in promoter regions
20
Q
  1. The enzyme responsible for forming the final phosphodiester bond
    between two DNA fragments during DNA replication is which one of
    the following?
  2. DNA-directed RNA polymerase
  3. DNA ligase
  4. DNA polymerase I
  5. DNA polymerase III
  6. Reverse transcriptase
A
  1. DNA ligase
21
Q
  1. To which site on the ribosome does the next aminoacyl tRNA bind
    during the elongation phase of translation?
  2. The 5’ site
  3. The 3’ site
  4. The A site
  5. The E site
  6. The P site
A
  1. The A site
22
Q
  1. If cells in the process of dividing are subjected to colchicine, a drug
    that interferes with the functioning of the spindle apparatus, at which
    stage will mitosis be arrested?
  2. Anaphase
  3. Metaphase
  4. Prometaphase
  5. Prophase
  6. Telophase
A
  1. Metaphase
23
Q
  1. A mutation results in a cell that no longer produces a normal
    protein kinase for the M phase checkpoint. Which one of the following
    would likely be the immediate result of this mutation?
  2. The cell would prematurely enter anaphase.
  3. The cell would never leave metaphase.
  4. The cell would never enter metaphase.
  5. The cell would never enter prophase.
  6. The cell would undergo normal mitosis, but fail to enter the next G1 phase.
A
  1. The cell would undergo normal mitosis, but fail to enter the next G1 phase.
24
Q
  1. The glenoid (mandibular fossa) is an anatomical part of which one
    of the following bones?
  2. Mandible
  3. Maxilla
  4. Occipital Bone
  5. Parietal bone
  6. Temporal bone
A
  1. Temporal bone
25
Q
  1. At the end of gastrulation stage of embryonic development,
    ectoderm is the outermost layer of the embryo and endoderm is the
    innermost layer, with mesoderm sandwiched between them.

Which one of the following systems originates from the ECTODERM?

  1. Blood
  2. Circulatory system
  3. Gastrointestinal tract
  4. Nervous system
  5. Skeleton
A
  1. Nervous system

BDS 1 (24 decks)

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