Foundations Exam 2 Flashcards
(242 cards)
1
Q
components of the integumentary system include…
A
hair, skin, nails, sweat glands
2
Q
body’s largest organ system
A
skin
3
Q
functions of the skin
A
waterproof, protective barrier body temperature regulation vitamin D synthesis sensory perception non verbal communication & identity wound repair waste excretion
4
Q
three main layers of the skin
A
epidermis (most superficial), dermis, subcutaneous tissue (deepest)
5
Q
components of the epidermis
A
most superficial layer
thin (just a few cells thick)
avascular
two layers: outer (dead keratinized cells) and inner (cell layer where melanin, keratin formed)
6
Q
components of dermis
A
vascular
connective tissue
sebaceous and sweat glands
hair follicles
7
Q
components of subcutaneous tissue
A
adipose/fatty tissue
directly below dermis–loose later (inc. mobility over underlying structures)
fat for: energy, temp regulation, cushioning
8
Q
4 pigments that contribute to normal skin colors
A
melanin, carotene, oxyhemoglobin, deoxyhemoglobin
9
Q
melanin
A
brownish pigment
amount genetically determined
amount inc. with more sun exposure
10
Q
carotene
A
golden yellow pigment
in subQ fat and heavily keratinized areas (palms, soles)
11
Q
oxyhemoglobin
A
bright red pigment
predominates @ arteries, capillaries
blood flow through skin: more (reddening), less (pale pallor)
12
Q
deoxyhemoglobin
A
darker bluish pigment
increase amount @ cutaneous vessels: bluish color (cyanosis)
13
Q
abnormal skin pigments
A
jaundice, cyanosis
14
Q
jaundice
A
yellow color pigment
bilirubin deposits @ skin
secondary to liver disease, biliary duct obstruction, and increased destruction of RBCs
first seen: hard/soft palate junction, sclera of eyes, then @ skin over rest of body
15
Q
best way to assess jaundice?
A
in direct natural sunlight
16
Q
where is jaundice first seen?
A
junction of hard and soft palate and sclera of eyes
17
Q
cyanosis
A
bluish color pigment
nonspecific sign
peripheral (dec. cutaneous blood flow, normal arterial O2 levels–possibly normal response to cold, anxiety)
central (arterial O2 levels low)
hard to assess in people with darker pigmented skin
18
Q
how do you identify decreased oxygenation in lighter vs darker pigmented persons?
A
lighter: cyanosis
darker: rely on clinical signs of dec. oxygenation @ brain
19
Q
skin turgor is….. and it measures…
A
skin elasticity (ability to promptly return to place when released), hydration status.
20
Q
sign of decreased skin turgor
A
tenting when pinched
21
Q
causes of decreased skin turgor
A
age (thinning of dermis, reduced elastin)
dehydration
22
Q
examination of skin, hair, nails is _________ throughout the rest of the comprehensive examination
A
integrated…not a separate step!
23
Q
major components of skin assessment:
A
color, color change, temperature, moisture, thickness, texture, mobility/turgor, edema, lesions, pressure ulcer risks, skin cancer
24
Q
skin color assessment
A
general pigmentation, skin tone even, consistent with genetic background, increase/loss of pigmentation, color change (pallor, redness, central/peripheral cyanosis, jaundice, carotene)
25
high levels of carotene will present as a _______ pigment in the _______ (areas of the body)
yellow color; palms, soles, face
26
how do you assess skin temperature?
use the backs of hands
check bilaterally
skin should be warm and equal bilaterally
27
how do you assess skin moisture?
look & touch
should be dry to touch without flaking or cracking
perspiration/ diaphoresis
check mucosal membranes for dehydration (usually smooth, moist)
28
normal skin texture
smooth and firm with an even surface
29
a callous forms in response to...
excessive pressure exerted on certain areas (palms, soles)
30
arterial insufficiency leads to what skin findings?
very thin, shiny (atrophic) skin
31
skin mobility
the ease with which it lifts
32
skin turgor
the speed with which it returns to place
33
where do you usually assess skin turgor?
anterior chest under clavicle (preferred)
| back of the hand
34
pitting edema
fluid in interstitial spaces is displaced when pressure is applied to the surface area with a finger, leaving a depression or "pit".
usually assessed along the shin
35
nonpitting edema
cause by plasma proteins "leaking" out of capillaries and into tissues, drawing water with them
see with burns, localized reaction (bee sting, for example), or trauma
36
```
scale for pitting edema + corresponding depression depth:
1+
2+
3+
4+
```
```
1+ = 2mm (mild, disappears rapidly)
2+ = 4mm (moderate; disappears 10-15s)
3+ = 6mm (moderate-severe; lasts 1+min)
4+ = 8mm (severe; lasts 2+ min)
```
37
characteristics of lesions to note
anatomical location, distribution (localized, generalized), patterns, shapes, types, color, elevation
38
macule
flat, non-palpable skin color change (brown, white, tan, purple, red)
39
patch
flat, non-palpable skin color change (brown, white, tan, purple, red)
> 1 cm, may have irregular border
40
papule
elevated, palpable, solid mass with circumscribed border
41
plaques
elevated, palpable, solid mass with circumscribed border
> 0.5 cm
e.g. psoriasis, actinic keratosis
42
nodule
elevated, solid, palpable mass that extends deeper into the dermis that a papule
0. 5-2 cm and circumscribed
e. g. lipoma, squamous cell carcinoma, poorly absorbed injection, dematofibroma
43
tumor
elevated, solid, palpable mass that extends deeper into the dermis that a papule
> 1- 2 cm and doesn't always have sharp borders
e.g. larger lipomas, carcinoma
44
vesicle
circumscribed, elevated, palpable mass containing serous fluid
45
bulla
circumscribed, elevated, palpable mass containing serous fluid
> 0.5 cm
e.g. pemphigus, contact dermatitis, large burn blisters, poison ivy, bullous impetigo
46
wheal
elevated mass, transient borders, often irregular, size/color vary, caused by serous fluid moving into dermis, doesn't contain free fluid
e.g. hives (urticaria), insect bites
47
pustule
pus-filled vesicle or bulla
| e.g. acna, impetigo, furuncles, carbuncles
48
cyst
encapsulated, fluid-filled or semi-solid mass located in the subcutaneous tissue or dermis
e.g. sebaceous cyst or epidermoid cyst
49
primary vs. secondary skin lesions
primary skin lesions are original lesions arising from previously normal skin.
secondary skin lesions originate from primary lesions.
50
erosion
loss of superficial epidermis
does not extend to dermis
depressed, moist area
e.g. ruptured vesicle, scratch marks, aphthous ulcer
51
ulcer
skin loss extending past epidermis
necrotic tissue loss
bleeding, scarring possible
e.g. stasis ulcer (venous insufficiency), pressure ulcer
52
scar
(aka cicatrix)
skin mark left after healing of wound, lesion
injured tissue replaced by connective tissue
young = red, purple; mature = white, glistening
e.g. healed wound or surgical incision
53
fissure
linear cracks in skin
may extend to dermis
e.g. chapped lips or hands, athlete's foot
54
skin and mobility: discuss
patients with decreased mobility are at an increased risk for pressure ulcers, skin breakdown. pressure because not moving + circulation problems.
55
stage 1 pressure ulcer
non-blanching redness
56
stage 2 pressure ulcer
involves epidermis + dermis
57
stage 3 pressure ulcer
involves subcutaneous tissue
58
stage 4 pressure ulcer
involves muscle, bone, tendons
59
assessment tool for determining risk for skin breakdown, ulcers?
braden scale. Categories: sensory perception, moisture, activity level, mobility, nutrition, friction/shear. Lower score (6) = higher risk. Higher score (23) = lower risk.
60
three major types of skin cancer
basal cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, melanoma
61
basal cell carcinoma
arises in the basal layer of epidermis
80% of skin cancers
appear pearly white, translucent. grow slowly and rarely metastasize. mostly in sun-exposed areas @ head, neck
62
squamous cell carcinoma
arise in upper later of epidermis
16% skin cancers
appear crusted, scaly, red, inflamed/ulcerated
can metastasize
63
melanoma
arise from melanocytes in epidermis (produce melanin)
4% skin cancers, but most lethal type (cause 75% of deaths)
can spread rapidly
64
ABCDEs of examining moles for melanoma
A: asymmetry
B: borders (irregular)
C: color variation/change (esp black, blue)
D: diameter 6+mm or diff from others
E: evolving (diff from rest, changing over time)
65
risk factors for melanoma
```
sun exposure (UV radiation)
hx previous melanoma
older than 50 years
male
1-4 atypical moles
light colored eyes, skin
severe blistering as child (2nd degree)
```
66
most commonly recommended screening method for skin cancer
self-examination
67
skin cancer prevention strategies
avoid sun exposure(10a-2p), wear sun screen, wear long sleeves/pants/hat, regular self exam
68
what's included in hair assessment?
hair color, quantity, distribution, texture, scalp, body, axillae, pubic hair
69
hair color
results from melanin production. graying occurs with reduction of melanin.
70
hair quantity
varies from person to person, decreases with age in both men and women. male patterned baldness = normal change. abnormal = patchy or uneven balding
71
hair texture
fine, thick, straight, curly, kinky
72
hair distribution
may be diminished in certain populations (asian). look for normal hair distribution @ genital region.
73
scalp assessment
look for lesions, flaking, parasites
74
body/axillae/pubic hair assessment
look for changes, unusual patterns, ask pt what is normal, what is different for them
75
loss of hair on legs is an indication of...
peripheral artery disease
76
hirsutism
excessive facial hair on women due to elevated testosterone levels
77
two types of hair
vellus: short, fine, covers body ("peach fuzz")
terminal: coarser, thicker, conspicuous. scalp, armpits, eyebrows, pubic hair)
78
function and parts of fingernails
protect distal ends of fingers and toes, prevent infection.
| nail plate, lanula, cuticle
79
how to assess nails?
inspect, palpate
| look @ color, shape, any lesions
80
Beau's lines
horizontal ridges
| indicate acute illness
81
early & late clubbing
180 degrees + @ nail bed. indicates oxygen deficiency. More clubbing = more chronic hypoxia.
82
spoon nails
indicates iron deficiency anemia
83
pitting @ nails
indicative of psoriasis
84
paronychia
swelling proximal to cuticle. indicative of local infection.
85
sebaceous glands
oil glands that lubricate skin, hair
| reduces water loss @ skin
86
sweat glands
2 types
eccrine: widely distributed, open directly to surface, body temp control
apocrine: axillary and genital areas, stimulated by emotional stress, body odor
87
describe the flow of blood @ heart, lungs, body
from body, low O2 blood travels through vena cavas into right atrium. from right atrium through the tricuspid valve and into right ventricle. from right ventricle through pulmonic valve to pulmonary arteries to lungs where blood is oxygenated and returned to left atrium via pulmonary veins. from left atrium through bicuspid/mitral valve to the left ventricle. from left ventricle through aortic valve to the aorta and out to body to deliver O2 and collect waste.
88
describe the pericardial sac/pericardium
a double walled sac containing the heart and roots of the great vessels. consists of two layers (serous and fibrous) with pericardial fluid between to prevent friction/rubbing.
89
if pericardial fluid is limited/diminished, what sound might you hear @ auscultation?
pericardial rub
90
upper chamber, lower chamber, and septum @ heart (describe)
upper: right and left atria, thinner walls
lower: right and left ventricle, thicker walls
septum: separates right and left sides
91
AV valves
tricuspid and mitral valves. closing of these creates the S1 heart sound.
92
semilunar valves
pulmonic and aortic valves. closing of these creates the S2 heart sound.
93
location of the heart
under the sternum between the 2nd and 5th intercostal space (ICS).
Aprox. 2nd ICS = base of heart
Aprox. 5th ICS = apex of heart
94
pericordium
area of the anterior chest over the heart and great vessels
95
detrocardia
heart is oriented the wrong way/ on the opposite side in the thorax. aka "flipped heart"
96
electrical activity @ heart
SA node (60-100) > AV node (40-60) > Bundle of His > Purkinje fibers
97
what are the different phases of an ECG wave?
P wave: atrial depolarization (impulse conduction through atria)
QRS complex: ventricular depolarization (impulse conduction through ventricles)
T wave: ventricular repolarization ("recovery phase")
98
one of most important symptoms to assess during interview, subjective data collection...
chest pain. can be a wide variety of things, but assume it's cardiac until you can prove otherwise.
99
"Time is muscle." Explain.
the longer people go without care during cardiac events, the greater the damage to heart muscle. 1st: ischemia, loose O2 @ heart muscle. then, cardiac muscle dies, cannot regenerate.
100
CHEST mnemonic
```
causes of chest pain
C: cardiac disorders
H: heartburn, hiatal hernia
E: esophageal and gastric disorders
S: stress
T: trauma
```
101
common symptoms associated with chest pain
dyspnea, diaphoresis, pallor, nausea, vomiting, weakness, palpitations, disorientation, anxiety, "fear of impending doom."
102
prodromal/initial symptoms of heart disease in women
common: fatigue, anxiety, indigestion, achy chest, SOB esp with exercise, sleep difficulties
less common: discomfort @ shoulder, dizziness, changes in headache, vision probs
103
cardiac risk factors
smoking, nutrition, stress, alcohol use, exercise
104
patient positions for cardiac exam
supine, left lateral, leaning forward
105
assessment of precordium and heart sounds (steps)
```
inspect for pulsations
palpate apical impulse
palpate for abnormal pulses
auscultate heart rate (apical) and rhythm
if you detect an irregular rhythm, auscultate for pulse deficit (radial pulse rate minus apical pulse rate)
id and listen to S1 and S2
auscultate for extra heart sounds
auscultate for murmurs
auscultate w/ client in other positions
```
106
palpate apical pulse (location/what to assess)
location: use palm over area around 5th ICS, then switch to fingers for finer assessment.
Note location, diameter, amplitude, duration
107
what position should the patient be in to assess apical pulse?
supine
108
midsternal, midclavicular line
midsternal: down middle of sternum
midclavicular: middle of clavicle down (near nipple)
109
most useful characteristic for identifying left ventricular hypertrophy
apical pulse duration
110
what sound does the opening of heart valves produce?
none. just the closing produces sound.
111
S1 heart sound
"lub" of "lub dub." produced by closing of bicuspid (mitral) and tricuspid. heard the loudest @ apex of heart (near 5th ICS). correlates to the beginning of systole.
112
S2 heart sound
"dub" of "lub dub." produced by closing of semilunar valves (aortic and pulmonic). head loudest @ the base of heart (near 2nd ICS). correlates to beginning of diastole.
113
what heart sound marks the beginning of systole? diastole?
systole: S1
diastole: S2
114
what are split heart sounds?
when the valves in question (bi/tricuspid for S1 and semilunar for S2) don't close at the exactly the same time, you get a split S1 or S2 sound.
115
APE TO MAN
Aortic > Pulmonic > Erb's point > tricuspid > mitral (order for listening to heart sounds)
116
Location for listening to aortic valve?
right 2nd ICS
117
Location for listening to pulmonic valve?
left 2nd ICS
118
Location for listening to Erb's point? what is Erb's point?
left 3rd ICS. Location where you can hear S1 and S2 relatively equally.
119
Location for listening to tricuspid valve?
lower left sternal border @ 4th ICS
120
Location for listening to mitral valve?
left 5th ICS medial to midclavicular line
121
S3 heart sound
heard early in diastole immediately after S2.
produced by large amount of blood hitting compliant left ventricle b/c rapid ventricular filling. low frequency, dull sound. indicates ventricular dysfunction or overload.
122
most sensitive indicator of ventricular dysfunction
presence of S3 heart sound
123
ventricular gallop aka...
S3 heart sound
124
when is the presence of a S3 heart sound considered normal?
in young children, people with high cardiac output, and during 3rd trimester of pregnancy
125
S4 heart sound
heard late in diastole just before S1. indicates a reduction in ventricular wall compliance (resulting from conditions causing ventricular hypertrophy). "Ten-nes-see." Low pitch sound best heard with bell of stethoscope.
126
atrial gallop aka...
S4 heart sound
127
when is the presence of a S4 heart sound considered normal?
sometimes in athletes or elderly.
128
pericardial friction rub
caused by inflammation @ pericardial sac. rubbing together of two layers (parietal and visceral layers). best heard @ 3rd ICS to left of sternum. high pitched scratchy sound (inc. with exhalation, leaning forward). Have pt. hold breath to hear better.
129
conditions that contribute to heart murmurs
increased blood velocity, structural valve defects, valve malfunction, abnormal chamber openings (septal defects)
130
heart murmur sound are made by______ and sound like....
turbulent blood flow; swooshing or blowing during auscultation.
131
systolic murmur is heard...
between S1 and S2
132
diastolic murmur is heard...
between S2 and S1
133
how do you characterize hear murmurs?
timing (midsystolic, pansystolic, diastolic), intensity (1 softer to 6 louder scale), location where hear it best, pitch, and quality (blowing, swooshing, rumbling, rushing, musical), and shape/pattern (intensity from beginning to end).
134
jugular venous pressure reflects...
the pressure @ right atria (i.e. central venous pressure)
135
carotid artery pulse location
@ groove between trachea and sternocleidomastoid muscle
136
how do you assess jugular venous pulsation?
sit patient in supine position, 30-45 degree incline of torso, ask patient to turn head slightly to left, shine light to help.
137
how do you assess for jugular venous distention ?
patient supine, start @ 30 deg > 45 deg > 90 deg. turn head to left/right and look for distended jugular vein. evaluate both sides.
138
what does JVD indicate?
indicates right arterial pressure. if distended, likely right sided weakness and blood "backing up" @ heart.
also could indicate tension pneumothorax (blood can't get back to heart as well) and pericardial tamponade
139
auscultate the arteries using which end of the stethoscope?
use the bell to listen for bruits
140
bruits are caused by...
turbulent blood flow cause by increased stenosis @ artery.
141
steps for examining blood vessels @head/neck?
auscultate 1st (have pt hold breath briefly)! then palpate, one at a time so don't occlude both carotid arteries and blood O2 to brain.
142
what should you note when assessing blood vessels @ head, neck?
amplitude, elasticity, thrills (feels like cat purring softly)
143
An early systolic bruit is associated with....?
a 50% decrease in the diameter of the carotid artery lumen
144
A pansystolic bruit is associated with...?
a 60% reduction in the diameter of the carotid artery lumen
145
A pansystolic bruit that extends into early diastole is associated with...?
a 70-80% reduction in the diameter of the carotid artery lumen
146
chest pain can radiate to what other areas?
jaw, neck, back, shoulder, down arm
147
aggravating factors for chest pain?
eating, physical exertion, position change, motion of arms/neck/jaw, deep breathing or coughing, elimination, emotional upset/stress, sexual intimacy/activity, weather extremes (hot/cold)
148
alleviating factors for chest pain?
rest, change position, shallow breathing, temp change, heating pad or ice pack depending, reduce/eliminate stressors, medications, analgesics, OTCs, Rxs, antacids, H2 blockers, PPIs, nitroglycerin
149
arteries carry what? (and exception)
oxygen rich blood from heart to body tissues (via capillaries).
exception: pulmonary arteries carry deoxygenated blood from heart to lungs
150
major arteries of arm?
brachial, radial, ulnar
151
major arteries of leg?
femoral, popliteal, dorsalis pedis, posterior tibial
152
veins carry what? (and exception)
deoxygenated blood from body back to heart/lungs
| exception: pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood from lungs back to heart.
153
major veins?
femoral, popliteal, saphenous veins
154
the lymphatic system includes...
lymph, lymphatic capillaries, lymphatic vessels, and lymph nodes
155
lymphatic system forms a connection between...
arterioles and venules
156
what allows the circulatory system to maintain vital equilibrium?
the lymphatic system
157
peripheral vascular symtoms to note during subjective data collection...
skin changes, leg pain/heaviness/aching, leg veins (appearance, feel), leg sores or open wounds, swelling @ legs/feet, sexual activity changes (men), swollen glands/nodules.
158
arterial ulcers generally present where?
in toes (result from arterial insufficiency @ legs)
159
venous ulcers generally present where?
on ankles (venous insufficiency @ legs)
160
when assessing peripheral vessels, what should you always do?
compare bilaterally!
161
how do you grade pulses and what do the grades mean?
0: absent
1+: palpable, thready, weak, easily obliterated
2+: normal, easily identified, not easily obliterated
3+: increased pulse, moderate pressure for obliteration
4+: full pulse, bounding, cannot obliterate
162
arms: inspection and palpation steps
inspection: size, edema, venous patterning, skin color, clubbing @ fingertips
palpation: fingers/hands/arms for temp, capillary refill time, pulses (radial, ulnar, brachial), epitrochlear lymph nodes, allen's test
163
legs: inspection and palpation steps
inspection: skin color, hair distribution, lesions/ulcers, edema
palpation: temperature, capillary refill, femoral pulse (auscultate for bruits), popliteal/dorsalis pedis, posterior tibial pulses
164
how to assess popliteal pulse?
flex knee partially
| thumbs on anterior knee while press fingers firmly @ popliteal fossa @ back of knee
165
how to assess dorsalis pedis pulse?
have pt dorsiflex foot
| apply light pressure to + along side of extensor tendon of big toe
166
how to assess posterior tibial pulse?
palpate behind and just below medial malleolus (in groove between ankle and achilles tendon)
167
dependent position food turns red
arterial ulcerations/insufficiency
168
dependent position food turns cyanotic
venous insufficiency
169
Raynaud's
vascular disease caused by vasoconstriction and vasospasm of fingers and/or toes
170
breasts
paired mammary glands, produce/store milk, aid in sexual stimulation
171
lymphatic system
remove interstitial fluid from tissues, absorb/transport fatty acids as chyle from digestive system, transports WBCs to/from lymph nodes into bones
172
axillary tail of spence
fatty breast tissue extending up into armpit
173
BP & mastectomy
don't take BP on side with mastectomy. removed lymph nodes. swelling, damage from BP cuff.
174
external anatomy of breast
nipple, areola, montgomery glands, four quadrants
175
internal anatomy of breast
glandular, fibrous, and fatty tissues
| major axillary lymph nodes
176
risk factors for breast cancer
female, age (older), 1st degree relative with dx of bc, dense breast tissue, start menstruation before 12, menopause after 55, radiation to chest
177
modifiable risk factors for breast cancer
drinking alcohol, overweight/obesity, physical activity level (get at least 150 min moderate or 75 min intense per week), having children, taking birth control
178
hormone replacement therapy: the current word...?
okay for short-term replacement, but not safe for long-term tx
179
breast cancer and antiperspirants, bras, breast implants,
no hard evidence of link between these things and breast cancer
180
breast inspection includes...
palpation includes...
inspection: size/shape, color/texture, superficial venous pattern, bilateral color/size/shape/texture of areolas, bilateral size/direction of nipples
palpation: texture, elasticity, tenderness, temperature, masses, mischarge (only normal with lactation), mastectomy or lumpectomy
181
characteristic late sign of breast cancer
peau d'orange. skin peel looks like an orange. not good prognosis.
182
breast cancer symptoms
lump, pulled in nipple, dimpling, dripping, redness/rash, skin changes
183
best time to do self breast exam
immediately after menstruation, which can make boobs tender
184
expected changes in aging female breast tissue
decrease in size, firmness
glandular tissue decreases
fatty tissue increases
185
current screening guidelines
vague.
average risk: 40-44 (choice to get annual exams), 45-54 (yearly mammograms), 55+ (mammograms every 2 years)
higher risk: yearly MRI
186
thorax
base of neck to diaphragm
| lungs, distal trachea, bronchi
187
thoracic cage...what is it? what's it do?
sternum, 12 rib pairs, 12 thoracic vertebrae, muscles, cartilage
function: protects heart, lungs, great vessels
supports shoulders, upper limbs
attachment for many neck, back, chest muscles
uses IC muscles to lift, depress the thorax during breathing
188
thoracic cavity
respiratory components
189
retraction
when you can see the IC muscles assisting with the WOB. see a lot in kids (RSV, bronchiolitis) and adults with asthma
190
sternum angle
aka angle of Louis. location of 2nd pair of ribs and reference point for counting ribs/ICSs.
191
costal angle
angle where right and left costal margins meet the xiphoid process. usually less than 90 degrees, but will be increased with chronically overinflated lungs (emphysema, barrel chest)
192
posterior landmarks
right and left scapular lines and vertebral line
193
lateral landmarks
anterior and posterior axillary lines and midaxillary line (middle of armpit down)
194
anterior landmarks
midsternal line and right, left midclavicular line
195
mediastinum
trachea, bronchi, esophagus, heart, great vessels. lungs sit on either side of mediastinum.
196
trachea
flexible surface lying anterior to esophagus
begins @ cricoid cartilage @ neck
10-12 cm long in adults
made up of C shaped hyaline cartilage rings
197
bronchi
right, left main bronchi are @ oblique position in the mediastinum. right main bronchus is shorter, more vertical than left.
198
which bronchus is more likely to be involved during aspiration?
right bronchus because straighter down, more likely for material to go down it than the left bronchus. right bronchus goes straight into right middle lobe, so listen there for aspiration lung sounds
199
respiratory "dead space"
bronchi and trachea
200
where do you listen for aspiration sounds?
right middle lung, so listen @ armpit/axillary region.
201
lungs
two cone shaped, elastic structures suspended in the thoracic cavity
202
apex of lungs
extends slightly above the clavicle
203
base of lungs
@ level of diaphragm
204
@ anterior surface, the lungs extend down to what level? laterally? @ posterior surface?
6th rib; 8th rib; 10th rib
205
where does TB like to live in the lungs?
@ the apex (near clavicle).
206
lobes @ left lung
two
207
lobes @ right lung
three
208
where do you assess upper lobes of lungs? lower lobes? right middle lobe?
anteriorly for upper lungs; posteriorly for lower lungs; axillary area
209
alveoli are responsible for...?
gas exchange
210
the purpose of respiration
to maintain adequate oxygen level in blood to support cellular life
211
ventilation
the mechanical act of breathing
chest expands vertically and horizontally, creating negative pressure in the lungs to draw in air (inspiration). Expiration is passive, occurs with relaxation of IC muscles and diaphragm.
212
what are some things that alter breathing patterns?
cellular requirements, hormonal regulation, changes in O2 and CO2 levels in blood, changes in hydration status and pH
213
control centers of breathing?
medulla, pons, hypothalamus, sympathetic nervous system,
214
strongest stimulus for breathing
under normal circumstances, hypercapnia (high levels of CO2 in blood)
215
CHEST PAIN mnemonic
```
C: cardiac
H: heartburn, hernia
E: esophageal and gastric disorders
S: stress
T: trauma
P: pulmonary
A: aneurism
I: inflammation
N: neurological disorders
```
216
cough: what to evaluate
productive or non-productive?
| wheezing?
217
three major respiratory concerns for patients traveling outside country?
TB, SARS, MERS
218
pulmonary inspection
nasal flaring
color of face, lips, chest
look for clubbing @ nails
inspect shape, configuration of chest
219
normal anterioposterior to transverse ratio?
should be 1:2. measures chest anteriorly and compares to lateral size of chest
220
what part of stethoscope do you use to assess breath sounds?
diaphragm, not bell.
221
if listening to breast sounds through clothing, might mistakenly hear...?
crackles
222
increased WOB looks like....?
use of accessory muscles, tripod position, pursed lip breathing
223
pectus excavatum
"hole" in sternum
224
pectus carinatum
sternum protrudes outward
225
scoliosis
curvature of spine. note by looking for one shoulder shifting lower than other when pt bends forward.
226
kyphosis
"hump back"
227
lordosis
"sway back"
228
lordosis is normal in what populations?
toddlers, pregnant women
229
palpation @ pulmonary
measure chest expansion
230
hyper resonance upon percussing will be heard with what...?
emphysema or pneumothorax
231
diaphragmatic excursion
helps you determine if lungs functioning the same on both sides. as pt to exhale, percuss down until hear dull sounds. have pt inhale and repeat.
232
what pattern do you use to auscultate lungs?
"ladder pattern" from one side to the other as you move downward/distally
233
crackles, rales
can be fine or coarse. fine: high pitched, popping sound not cleared by coughing (associated with pneumonia, CHF, bronchitis, asthma, emphysema). coarse: low pitched, bubbling "velcro sound" (associated with pneumonia, pulmonary edema, pulmonary fibrosis)
234
pleural friction rub
low pitched, dry grating sound that occurs with inspiration and expiration (associated with pleuritis)
235
wheeze (sibilant)
high pitched musical sound heard primarily during expiration but may also be heard @ inspiration (associated with acute asmtha or chronic emphysema)
236
wheeze (sonorous)
low pitched snoring, moaning sounds heard during expiration that often clear with coughing (associated with bronchitis, single obstruction, snoring w/ sleep apnea)
237
stridor
harsh, honking/wheezing noise heard with severe broncholaryngospasm (like w/ croup)
238
when do you use voice sounds to assess pulmonary function? what does it test for?
if you hear abnormally located bronchovesicular or bronchial breath sounds.
tests for presence of bronchophony, egophony, and whispered petriloquy (changes with consolidation--clearer over consolidation). "ninety nine" as move down back.
239
bronchophony ("99")
indicates indicates increased density, sounds are louder and clearer
240
Egophony ("eee")
indicates area of consolidation, sound is louder and sounds like A
241
Whispered petriloquy (whisper "99")
indicates areas of consolidation or compression, whispered words are louder, clearer
242
health promotion counseling
tobacco cessation, immunizations (flu, pneumococcal pneumonia)
