Foundations of OMM Principles Flashcards

(55 cards)

1
Q

define anatomic barrier.

A

maximum distance at which a joint can be actively moved plus passively moved beyond the physiological barrier

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2
Q

define physiologic barrier

A

maximum point at which a pt. can actively move a joint in the absence of somatic dysfunction

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3
Q

compare and contrast physiologic vs. restrictive barrier

A

Ex: a pt. can actively abduct their right hip to 90 degrees. However, they can only abduct their left hip to 75 degrees

physiologic barrier refers to a pt.’s maximum active range of motion about a particular joint; in this example, the PB would be 90 degrees

a restrictive barrier occurs when a pt. cannot actively move the joint all the way into the physiologic barrier. in this example, 75 degrees would be the RB

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4
Q

Describe how an elastic barrier works

A

falls between physiological and anatomical barriers and is defined as the maximum passive ROM past the physiologic barrier before tissue is disrupted

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5
Q

T or F: restrictive barrier can also be referred to as the pathologic barrier

A

true

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6
Q

List the components of the acronym-TART

A

T- tissue texture changes
A- asymmetry
R-restriction
T-Tenderness

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7
Q

T or F: acute SD tends to be cool and pale in texture.

A

False
acute SDs tend to be warm and moist with erythema while chronic SDs tend to be cool and pale to the touch

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8
Q

T or F: viscero-somatic reflexes are more frequent with chronic SDs compared to Acute SDs.

A

true

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9
Q

What is Fryette’s Law III?

A

initiating motion at any vertebral segment in any one plane of motion will modify the mobility in the other planes of motion

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10
Q

T or F: Fryette’s third law of spinal facilitation only apples to the thoracic and lumbar vertebrae

A

True
this does not apply to the cervical vertebrae

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11
Q

What are the mnemonics for facet orientation

A

BUM - cervical
BUL - Thoracic
BUM - Lumbar

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12
Q

T or F: T12 follows the same rules as T7-T9

A

False
T10 = T7-T9
T11-T4-T6
T12 = T1-T3

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13
Q

define isotonic contraction.

A

muscle contraction that results in its approximation b/t the origin and insertion w/o a change in the muscle’s tension

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14
Q

define isometric contraction

A

muscle contraction that results in an increase in muscle tension w/o an approximation b/t the origin and insertion

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15
Q

How is isolytic contraction defined?

A

Muscle contraction against resistance to an opposing lengthening force
ex: the brachial biceps will contract as the hand weights attempt to lengthen the arms

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16
Q

compare and contrast concentric and eccentric contraction

A

concentric: results in an approximation b/t the muscle origin and insertion

eccentric: results in a lengthening of the muscle due to an external force

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17
Q

what is the difference b/t a tender point and a trigger point?

A

a tender point elicits LOCALIZED acute pain
a trigger point elicits RADIATING acute pain from the trigger point site

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18
Q

MET is a form of what type of muscle contraction?

A

isometric contraction

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19
Q

T or F: MET manipulates the muscle spindles. Explain your reasoning

A

False
MET manipulates the Golgi tendon to send afferents to the brain to activate reflex relaxation of muscle contraction

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20
Q

Counterstrain targets what organ in the muscle tissue? Explain your reasoning

A

The muscle spindles
Tender points are generated when muscles are too eccentrically contracted
CS attempts to counteract this by manipulating the muscle spindles to shorten the contracted muscle

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21
Q

T or F: the golgi tendon promotes stretching while the muscle spindle promotes contraction

A

True

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22
Q

How is vertebral restriction defined?

A

Restriction of a particular vertebra is always described in relation to the vertebra below it.
Ex: T6ERSL means T6 is restricted in FRSR relative to T7

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23
Q

T or F: the convexity of a spinal hump is named for the side opposite the SB component of the dysfunctional vertebral segment/s

24
Q

activity of the biceps muscle during elevation of a weight while performing a curling maneuver describes what type of muscle contraction?

25
What type of muscle contraction is described in the following scenario? the activity of the biceps muscle while holding a weight steady with arms flexed to 90 degrees.
isometric
26
What type of muscle contraction is describe in the following scenario? the activity of the biceps muscle while lowering a weight during a curling exercise.
eccentric
27
What type of muscle contraction is described in the following scenario? muscle contraction against resistance while an external force causes the muscle to lengthen with the purpose of breaking adhesions.
isolytic - a type of eccentric contraction
28
T or F: cervical nerve roots exit at the level below their corresponding vertebral segment.
false they exit from above w/ C1 nerve exiting above C1 and C7 nerve exiting above C7 and C8 above T1
29
The posterior scalene attaches to what rib?
2nd rib
30
the anterior and middle scalenes attach to what rib?
1st rib
31
What are the True and false ribs?
True ribs: 1-7 false ribs: 8-12
32
what ribs predominantly follow the pump-handle motion?
ribs 1-5 increases AP diameter during inspiration
33
what ribs predominantly follow the bucket-handle motion?
ribs 6-10 increase transverse diameter during inspiration
34
T or F: a disk herniation b/t C3 & C4 would not present w/ UE neurological impairments?
true brachial plexus innervation does not start until C5
35
How is OA somatic dysfunction defined?
Freedom of the occiput on the atlas Ex: OA FRrSl this means the occiput is FRrSl on the atals
36
how is AA somatic dysfunction defined?
freedom of rot. of C1 on C2
37
what are the differences b/t spondlylo: osis lysis listhesis
osis-degenrative changes w/o a pars defect lysis- defection of pars w/o anterior displacement listhesis- defection of pars w/ anterior displacement
38
how is spondylolysis detected on radiograph?
oblique view - black collar around the neck of the scotty dog in the pars interarticularis
39
what plane would you want to order for an X-ray of suspected spondylolisthesis?
lateral films
40
A herniated nucleus pulposus of the L3/L4 intervertebral disc would affect what lumbar nerve root? Explain your reasoning.
L4 nerve root both thoracic and lumbar nerve roots exit at the level below their corresponding vertebra; therefore, any insult of the intervertebral disc right above will affect the nerve root of the vertebra below In this case, the L3 nerve root would not be affected since it exits the intervertebral foramen before reaching the L3/L4 intervertebral disc
41
Psoas syndrome will be assoc. w/ what OSE findings?
global: enhanced lumbar lordosis contralateral: pelvic side shift Piriformis tender point Ipsilateral: extension restriction + Thomas Test SB & flexed posture iliacus tender point
42
A + wallenberg test is indicative of what?
Repeated or extreme cervical extension should be avoided to prevent vertebrobasilar sequelae w/ OMM
43
T or F: An anterior innominate will usually be assoc. w/ tight hamstrings.
false tight hamstrings would be the case for a posterior innominate anterior innominate, on the other hand, is assoc. w/ tight quadriceps
44
Why is a thoracic lymphatic pump inappropriate for a pt. suffering COPD?
This technique may rupture blebs present in the lung parenchyma
45
What muscles are utilized for active expiration?
rectus abdominis internal & external obliques transversus abdominis internal intercostals
46
What muscles are utilized for active inspiration?
scalenes, SCMs, & external intercostals
47
What are the nerve roots to the foregut?
Greater splanchnic nerves (T5-T9)
48
The midgut starts at the distal duodenum & end where?
right 2/3rds of the transverse colon
49
What are the nerve roots to the midgut?
lesser splanchnic nerves (T10-T11)
50
What are the nerve roots to the hindgut (left 1/3 transverse colon to the anus)
least & lumbar splanchnics (T12-L2)
51
At which segment along the GI tract does the Gut parasympathetic innervation switch from CN X to the S2-S4 nerve roots?
splenic flexure
52
T10-T11 contains the sympathetic innervation for which portions of the urinogenital tract?
kidneys, ureters, bladder
53
What nerve roots carry the sympathetic innervation for the prostate?
L1-L2
54
The sympathetic fibers to the appendix come from which corresponding spinal nerve root?
T12 nerve root
55
where is the autonomic innervation of the reproductive organs located?
sympathetics: T9-L1 parasympathetics: S2-S4