Foundations Year 2 Flashcards

(85 cards)

1
Q

What is the primary source of bilirubin in the body?

A

from the breakdown of haem from aged red blood cells

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2
Q

What is the first step in bilirubin metabolism after haem is broken down?

A

Haem is converted to biliverdin, then to unconjugated bilirubin (indirect bilirubin)

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3
Q

How is unconjugated bilirubin transported to the liver?

A

Unconjugated bilirubin binds to albumin and is transported to the liver

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4
Q

How is conjugated bilirubin excreted from the body?

A

Conjugated bilirubin is secreted into the
1. bile
2. then enters the intestine

  1. where it is either converted to urobilinogen or excreted asstercobilinin faeces
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5
Q

What is the key difference between unconjugated and conjugated bilirubin?

A

Unconjugated bilirubin is lipid-soluble and bound to albumin, while conjugated bilirubinis water-soluble and can be excreted in bile/urine

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6
Q

What are the three main categories of causes of jaundice?

A
  1. Pre-hepatic
    = haemolysis
  2. Hepatic
    = hepatitis, Crigler-Najjar
  3. Post-hepatic
    = biliary obstruction
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7
Q

What is the primary cause of hepatic jaundice?

A

Impaired liver function, such as in hepatitis, cirrhosis, or genetic conditions like Crigler-Najjar and Gilbert’s syndrome

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8
Q

What is the primary cause of pre-hepatic jaundice?

A

Haemolysis (destruction of RBCs) leading to increased unconjugated bilirubin

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9
Q

What causes post-hepatic jaundice?

A
  1. Biliary obstruction = such as from gallstones, pancreatic cancer
  2. biliary atresia = leading to increased conjugated bilirubin
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10
Q

At what age is neonatal jaundice considered pathological?

A

Neonatal jaundice is considered pathological if it appears before 24 hours of age

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11
Q

What is the most common cause of pathological neonatal jaundice?

A

Haemolytic disease of the newborn
= ABO incompatibility
= Rh incompatibility

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12
Q

How is neonatal jaundice investigated?

A
  1. serum bilirubin
  2. Coombs test
  3. blood group(mother and baby)
  4. FBC
  5. infection screen (blood cultures)
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13
Q

What is the first-line treatment for neonatal jaundice?

A

Phototherapy, which uses blue light to convert unconjugated bilirubin to a water-soluble form

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14
Q

When is exchange transfusion indicated for neonatal jaundice?

A

serum bilirubin levels are extremely high or phototherapyis ineffective

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15
Q

What is Dubin-Johnson syndrome?

A

A rare condition with impaired excretion of conjugated bilirubin, leading toconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia and a black liver on histology

It’s typically benign

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16
Q

What is Gilbert’s syndrome?

A

A benign condition with mild deficiency of UDP-glucuronyl transferase

= leading to intermittent unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia, often triggered by stress, fasting, or illness

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17
Q

What is Rotor syndrome?

A

A condition similar to Dubin-Johnson, but without the pigmented liver

It also causes conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia but is typically benign

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18
Q

What is the difference betweenCrigler-Najjar syndrome Type I and Type II?

A
  1. Type I
    = Complete absence of UDP-glucuronyl transferase →severe unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia
    = high risk of kernicterus
  2. Type II
    = Partial enzyme activity →milder hyperbilirubinaemia
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19
Q

What is the mechanism of Rhesus (Rh) incompatibility?

A

Rh-mothers can become sensitised during the first pregnancy with an Rh+ foetus, producing IgG antibodies.

In subsequent pregnancies, IgG crosses the placenta and causes haemolysis of the foetal RBCs

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20
Q

How do you prevent rhesus haemolytic disease?

A

Give Anti-D immunoglobulin to Rh-mothers after delivery or any sensitising event
= miscarriage, trauma etc

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21
Q

What does a Coombs test detect?

A

The direct Coombs test detects antibodies on neonatal RBCs, while the indirect Coombs test detects maternal anti-Rh antibodies

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22
Q

Rh- mother + Rh+ baby leads to what happening?

A

Immune sensitisation

  1. First pregnancy
    = IgM (no placental crossing)
  2. Subsequent pregnancies
    - IgG crosses placenta → foetal haemolysis
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23
Q

What are the typical LFT findings in pre-hepatic jaundice?

A

(1) ↑ Unconjugated bilirubin

(2) Normal ALT, AST, ALP, and GGT

(3) Cause
= Excess haemolysis
(eg, haemolytic anaemia)

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24
Q

What are the typical LFT findings in hepatic jaundice?

A

(1) ↑ ALT and AST (often > ALP)
= hepatocellular pattern

(2) Mixed rise in conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin

(3) ALP and GGT may be mildly elevated or normal

(4) Cause: Hepatocellular damage
(eg, hepatitis, cirrhosis, Gilbert’s)

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25
What are the typical LFT findings in post-hepatic (obstructive) jaundice?
(1) ↑ ALP and GGT (often > ALT/AST) = cholestatic pattern (2) ↑ Conjugated (direct) bilirubin (3) ALT/AST may be mildly elevated (4) Cause: Bile flow obstruction (eg, gallstones, pancreatic cancer)
26
Define homeostasis
The process by which the body maintains a stable internal environment despite external changes
27
: What is a negative feedback loop? Give an example
A mechanism where a change triggers a response that opposes the change Example = high blood glucose = insulin = lowers glucose = shuts off insulin release
28
What hormones regulate calcium homeostasis?
1. PTH = ↑ blood calcium 2. Calcitonin = ↓ blood calcium 3. Vitamin D = ↑ calcium absorption from the gut
29
How is temperature homeostasis maintained?
Via hypothalamic regulation 1. shivering and vasoconstriction when cold 2. sweating and vasodilation when hot
30
Describe the hormonal control of blood glucose
1. Insulin (from β-cells) = decrease in blood glucose by increasing uptake/storage 2. Glucagon (from α-cells) = Increase in blood glucose via glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis
31
What is positive feedback? Name a physiological example
The response amplifies the initial stimulus Example: oxytocin during childbirth
32
What are the primary components of the body's feedback systems?
(1) Sensor (receptor) = Detects environmental changes such as body temperature and blood glucose (2) Integrator (control centre) = Typically the brain (hypothalamus) or endocrine glands, compare the current state with the desired set point (3) Effector = Executes the response to bring the body back to homeostasis Such as muscle contractions for shivering, sweat glands for cooling
33
What are the physiological processes that occur when the body is exposed to cold temperatures?
1. The body responds with vasoconstriction (to preserve heat) 2. shivering (to generate heat) 3. release of ADH (to conserve water)
34
Describe how the kidneys contribute to homeostasis in terms of blood pressure regulation
via the RAAS system
35
What makes you warmer?
The cold response 1. Shivering 2. Vasoconstriction (reduces heat loss) 3. Piloerection (goosebumps).
36
What makes you cold?
The hot response 1. Sweating 2. Vasodilation (increases heat loss) 3. Decreased metabolic rate
37
Diseases with a high anion gap >16
1. DKA 2. Addison's disease 3. Rhabdomyolysis 4. Erythema Multiforme 5. Toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN)
38
A patient presents with hoarseness and undergoes a biopsy of an irregular area on the vocal cord. The biopsy shows viable fibrocollagenous tissue and an inflammatory infiltrate composed mainly of lymphocytes and plasma cells. What type of inflammatory process is this?
Chronic inflammation
39
What is seen in chronic inflammation?
lymphocytes, plasma cells, macrophages, fibroblast
40
What is seen in acute inflammation?
neutrophils, oedema, early fibrin, vascular changes
41
Granulomatous inflammation would show what?
aggregates of histocytes
42
Abscess formation would show what?
pus
43
What is an enzyme that transcribes genetic material?
RNA polymerase
44
Which statement is characteristic of a disease/condition due to a heritable mutation in mitochondrial DNA?
The condition can only be transmitted from an affected mother to her children
45
Karyotype analysis of bone marrow mitotic cells arrested in metaphase is performed in a patient with suspected malignancy. A single copy of Chromosome 7 is identified instead of the usual two copies. What term describes this chromosomal abnormality?
Monosomy = The loss of an entire chromosome, leaving one of the partners is monosomy
46
Uniparental disomy refers to what?
situation in which 2 copies of a chromosome come from the same parent, instead of 1 copy coming from the mother, and 1 copy coming from the father
47
Many anti-cancer drugs produce their effects by activating a family of proteins in a cascade-like fashion to trigger the common end-stages of apoptosis. Which family of proteins is being referred to?
Caspase
48
Scientists in the department of genetics at Ninewells Hospital are analysing transcripts within bone marrow cells from patients attending the haematology department. Which describes the material the analysis is being performed on?
RNA
49
A 25-year-old man presents to his GP. He is concerned because his sister has recently been diagnosed with breast cancer at the age of 30 years and has been found to have a BRCA2 mutation. He wants to be tested for the mutation because he has heard that he would be at increased risk of breast cancer if he also has the mutation. If he were to be BRCA2-positive, what other form of cancer would he be most likely to be at increased risk of?
Prostate
50
What is most commonly associated with the formation of granulomas in chronic inflammation?
Macrophages
51
A 69 year old lady presents with a painful red swollen leg. Her temperature is 39C. Blood cultures are taken and grow gram-positive cocci in clusters What is the most likely organism cultured?
Staphylococcus aureus
52
Phase one metabolism is the first stage of metabolism of a drug, involving
oxidation, reduction or hydrolysis.
53
Which physiological response is a primary mechanism for heat conservation in a cold environment?
Vasoconstriction
54
What are the mechanisms to Increase heat production?
Shivering and increased metabolic rate
55
This muscle attaches to the spine of the scapula, the acromion process of the scapula and the lateral third of the clavicle. Which muscle is being described?
The deltoid
56
Which is the single best description of an allergen?
A molecule that binds to antibodies sensitising the surface of mast cells
57
Order of anatomy
Nerve, artery, vein
58
What is the neutrophil mechanism in phagocytosis?
Neutrophils engulf the pathogen and use ROS to destroy it - Reactive oxygen species production
59
What is used to drain fluid from a child’s brain to their tummy in hydrocephalus?
Ventriculoperitoneal (VP) shunt
60
Leaning forward + chest pain → suspect pericarditis What is the initial mangement?
give paracetamol for symptom relief
61
Double-checking test results before diagnosis is what type of thinking?
Type 2
62
What causes a sudden heart attack due to plaque breaking in a coronary artery?
Rupture of the fibrous cap over an atherosclerotic plaque
63
The ampulla of the uterine tube is the site of what?
site of fertilisation
64
The uterus is site of what?
Implantation and pregnancy.
65
Define what is a competitive inhibitor
1. Binds to the active site 2. Competes with the substrate 3. The effect can be overcome by more substrate
66
Define what a non-competitive inhibitor is
1. Binds to anywhere other than the active site 2. Changes the enzyme's shape 3. Lowers enzyme activity regardless of substrate amount
66
Define what an allosteric inhibitor is
1. Binds to a different site (not the active site) 2. Changes the enzyme shape to reduce activity
67
An enzyme without a cofactor is called a what?
Apoenzyme
68
Enzyme with a cofactor is called a what?
Holoenzyme
69
A nucleoside has…
5C sugar + organic base
70
A nucleotide has…
5C sugar + organic base + phosphate group(s)
71
What are isozymes?
Catalyse same reactions as enzymes but have different properties and structure
72
Which enzymes carry out phosphorylation?
Kinases
73
What are zymogens?
Inactive precursors of an enzyme
74
In competitive inhibition, Vmax is ___ and Km is ___
The same, increased
75
In non-competitive inhibition, Vmax is ___ and Km is ___
Decreased, the same
76
What are desmosomes?
Adhering junctions that anchor cells together
77
What are tight junctions?
Join lateral edges of epithelial cells near their apical membranes
78
What are gap junctions?
Communicating junctions that allow the movement of charge between adjacent cells
79
Gentamicin belongs to which class of antibiotics?
Aminoglycosides
80
"Formation of germ cells (sperm, ovum)" This describes what stage?
gametogenesis
81
"Formation of zygote" This describes what stage?
fertilisation
82
"Rapid cell division" This describes what stage?
cleavage
82
"Formation of germ layers (ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm)" This describes what stage?
gastrulation
83
"Folding of embryo forms 3D human-like shape" This describes what stage?
morphogenesis