Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

boards one-liners > FPMRS one-liners > Flashcards

FPMRS one-liners Flashcards

1
Q

What are the branches of the anterior division of the internal iliac artery?
Following parietal to visceral (ventral/posterior) (8): Umbilical artery (medial umbilical ligament distally), obturator, superior vesicle, inferior vesicle, uterine artery, middle rectal, internal pudendal, inferior gluteal

A 
Following parietal to visceral (ventral/posterior) (8): Umbilical artery (medial umbilical ligament distally)
obturator
Superior vesicle
Inferior vesicle
Uterine artery
Middle rectal
Internal pudendal
Inferior gluteal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the branches of the posterior division of the internal iliac artery?
Iliolumbar, lateral sacral, superior gluteal (I LOVE SEX)

A

Iliolumbar
Lateral sacral
Superior gluteal
(I LOVE SEX)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What provides the primary support to the uterus?

A

Uterosacral and cardinal ligaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Injury to which nerve will result in loss of the patellar reflex?

A

Femoral nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which nerves are at risk for injury for a patient in candy cane stirrups?

A

Femoral, peroneal, tibial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which nerves are at risk for injury with a transverse or Pfannenstiel incision?

A

Ilioinguinal, iliophygastric, genitofemoral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which nerves are at risk for patient in a frog-legged position?

A

Femoral, obturator, lateral femoral cutaneous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which nerves are at risk from self-training retractor blades?

A

Femoral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which level of Delancey support best describes apical support?

A

Level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which nerve is most at risk for injury during placement of the sutures for sacrospinous ligament fixation?

A

Sciatic nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What muscles make up the levator ani?

A

Iliococcygeus
Pubococcygeus
Puborectalis muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What muscles make up the pelvic diaphragm?

A

The levator ani (iliococcygeus, pubococcygeus, puborectalis muscles), and the coccygeus muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the embryologic origin of the uterus?

A

Paramesonephric ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the embryologic origin for the fallopian tubes?

A

Paramesonephric ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the embryologic origin for the proximal 1/3 vagina?

A

Paramesonephric ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the embryologic origin for the distal 2/3 vagina?

A

Urogenital sinus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the embryologic origin for the Trigone?

A

Mesonephric ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the embryologic origin for the ureters?

A

Mesonephric ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the embryologic origin for the renal pelvis/calcyces?

A

Mesonephric ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the embryologic origin for the posterior proximal urethra?

A

Mesonephric ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the embryologic origin for the bladder?

A

Urogenital sinus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the embryologic origin for the urethra?

A

Urogenital sinus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the embryologic origin for the rectum?

A

Cloaca

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the embryologic origin for the kidney?

A

Metanephros

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the embryologic origin for Gartner’s duct cyst?

A

Mesonephric ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the embryologic origin for Hydatid cysts of Morgagni?

A

Paramesonephric ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the embryologic origin for the ovaries?

A

Gonadal ridge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the embryologic origin for the Mullerian ducts?

A

Paramesonephric ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the embryologic origin for the Wolffian ducts?

A

Mesonephric ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the embryologic origin for the clitoris?

A

Genital tubercle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What other organ systems are typically at risk for accompanying congenital anomalies in a patient with mullerian agenesis?

A

Urinary tract, skeletal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the Weigert-Meyer rule?

A

In complete ureteral duplication, the upper pole moiety inserts medially and inferiorly to the lower pole moiety. The lower pole moiety inserts lateral and superiorly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Fecal incontinence: What is the recto-anal inhibitory reflex?

A

Involuntary IAS relaxation in response to rectal distension, allowing some rectal contents to descent into the anal canal where it is brought into contact with specialized sensory mucosa to detect consistency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Fecal incontinence: what is the recto-anal excitatory reflex?

A

An initial, semi-voluntary contraction of the EAS and puborectalis which in return prevents incontinence following the RAIR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Fecal incontinence: What happens to the anorectal angle during voluntary squeeze?

A

It becomes more acute, from 90 degrees at rest to 70 degrees with a squeeze

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Fecal incontinence: What happens to the anorectal angle during defecation?

A

It becomes more obtuse, from 90 degrees at rest to 110-130 degrees during defecation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Fecal incontinence: Which component of the anal sphincter complex contributes to the majority of the anal resting tone?

A

The internal anal spinster may contribute 50-86% of the anal canal resting tone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Fecal incontinence: What is the best imaging modality to differentiate from functional anatomic/nerve integrity of the anal sphincter?

A

Endoanal ultrasound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Fecal incontinence: What is the best imaging modality to assess rectal emptying?

A

Defacography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Fecal incontinence: What is the best method to evaluate resting and squeeze pressure of the rectum?

A

Anorectal manometry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Fecal incontinence: What is the best method to assess the electrical activity of the pelvic floor muscles?

A

Pudendal nerve latency testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Fecal incontinence: Which is the more effective sphincter repair - on overlapping or end-to-end?

A

Both are equally effective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Fistulas: What is the most common cause of ureterovaginal fistulas?

A

Benign GYN surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Fistulas: What is the most common cause of rectovaginal fistulas?

A

Obstetrical trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Fistulas: In the developed world, what is the most common cause of vesicovaginal fistula?

A

Pelvic surgery (eg hysterectomy)

46
Q

Fistulas: What is the blood supply for an interposing Martius fat pad?

A

The external pudendal artery, a branch of the obturator artery and the internal pudendal artery

47
Q

Fistulas: Which is a useful imaging adjunct to identify a urethrovaginal fistula?

A

Tratner catheter (double balloon)

48
Q

Fistulas: Which type of hysterectomy has the lowest post-operative vesicovaginal fistula complication rate?

A

Vaginal hysterectomy

49
Q

Fistulas: Which type of hysterectomy has the highest post-operative fistula complication rate?

A

Laparoscopic hysterectomy

50
Q

Fistulas: Which inflammatory bowel disease has the highest association with rectovaginal fistulas?

A

Crohn’s disease

51
Q

Hematuria: What is the definition of asymptomatic microscopic hematuria (AMH)?

A

> 3 RBCs/hpf from a “properly collected urinary specimen in the absence of an obvious benign cause

52
Q

Hematuria: What is the AUA recommended radiologic work up for asymptomatic microscopic hematuria?

A

CT urography, cystoscopy

53
Q

Hematuria: How often should a patient be worked up for persistent AMH noted on annual confirmatory microscopic UA?

A

Every 3-5 years

54
Q

Neurology: What are the FDA approved indication for sacral neuromodulation?

A

Fecal incontinence, refractory urge urinary incontinence, refractory urgency/frequency, idiopathic non-obstructive urinary retention

55
Q

Neurology: What are the corresponding neural responses to wire placement in the sacral foramen S2 for sacral neuromodulation?

A

S2 = contraction of the anal sphincter and plantar flexion and lateral rotation of the lower extremity

56
Q

Neurology: What are the corresponding neural responses to wire placement in the sacral foramen S3 for sacral neuromodulation?

A

S3 = bellowing of the anal sphincter and plantar flexion of the great toe

57
Q

Neurology: What are the corresponding neural responses to wire placement in the sacral foramen S4 for sacral neuromodulation?

A

S4 = bellowing of the anal sphincter and no lower extremity movement

58
Q

Neurology: Which nerve innervates the IAS?

A

Autonomic nervous system = enteric plexus (parasympathetic inhibits tone and sympathetic = hypogastric contributes to tone)

59
Q

Neurology: Which nerve innervates the EAS?

A

Pudendal

60
Q

Neurology: What is the innervation for the Detrusor muscle?

A

Sympathetic via hypogastric nerve and parasympathetic via pelvic nerves

61
Q

Neurology: What is the innervation for the urethral smooth muscle?

A

Sympathetic

62
Q

Neurology: What is the innervation for the striated urethral sphincter?

A

Pudendal

63
Q

Neurology: What is the neurotransmitter for the sympathetic nervous system?

A

Norepinephrine

64
Q

Neurology: What is the neurotransmitter for the parasympathetic nervous system?

A

Acetylcholine

65
Q

Neurology: Onuf’s nucleus is found in what level of the spinal cord?

A

S2-4

66
Q

Neurology: Which cholinergic muscarinic neuroreceptors predominate in the detrusor?

A

M2, M3

67
Q

Neurology: Which nervous system predominates for micturition?

A

Parasympathetic

68
Q

Neurology: Which nervous system predominates for storage?

A

Sympathetic 


69
Q

Painful bladder syndrome: What is the pathognomonic cystoscopic finding in painful bladder syndrome (PBS)?

A

Hunner’s ulcers

70
Q

Painful bladder syndrome: what are first-line treatments for PBS?

A

Dietary and behavioral modifications

71
Q

Painful bladder syndrome: what are second-line treatments for PBS?

A

PFMT, medication

72
Q

Painful bladder syndrome: what are third-line treatments for PBS?

A

Cystoscopic hydro-distension

73
Q

Painful bladder syndrome: what are fourth-line treatments for PBS?

A

Neuromodulation 


74
Q

Pelvic Organ Prolapse: Discuss the POP-Q system

A

Aa, Ba/gh, pb, tvl/Ap, Bp -> then add up for staging

75
Q

Pelvic Organ Prolapse: What are some space-filling pessaries?

A

Gelhorn, donut, cube, or inflatoball

76
Q

Pelvic Organ Prolapse: What are some support pessaries?

A

Gehrung, continence ring, continence dish

77
Q

Pelvic Organ Prolapse: What is the vessel most likely injured during a procedure involving the sacrospinous ligament?

A

Pudendal, inferior gluteal

78
Q

Pelvic Organ Prolapse: What is the vessel most likely injured during a Colposacropexy procedure?

A

Paraspinous veins, middle sacral artery

79
Q

Pelvic Organ Prolapse: What is the vessel most likely injured during a Burch colposuspension procedure?

A

Paraurethral venous plexus

80
Q

Pelvic Organ Prolapse: Which nerve is most likely injured during a procedure involving the sacrospinous ligament?

A

Sciatic or pudendal nerves

81
Q

Pelvic Organ Prolapse: Which nerve is most likely injured during a colposacropexy procedure?

A

Parasympathetic plexus

82
Q

Pelvic Organ Prolapse: Which nerve is most likely injured during a Burch colposuspension procedure?

A

Obturator nerve

83
Q

Pelvic Organ Prolapse: What is the primary support to the uterus?

A

Uterosacral and cardinal ligament complex

84
Q

Pelvic Organ Prolapse: Which type of mesh is used for POP repair?

A

Type 1 polypropylene, macroporous, monofilament 


85
Q

Surgical complications: What are the common sites of ureteral injury?

A

Clamping the IP ligament during BSO, clamping the uterine arteries and calming the uterosacral and cardinal ligaments

86
Q

Surgical complications: How is a distal ureteral injury repaired?

A

Ureteroneocystostomy

87
Q

Surgical complications: How is a ureteral injury above the pelvic brim repaired?

A

Transureteroureterostomy

88
Q

Surgical complications: How long do you drain a bladder base injury?

A

For at least 7 days and until objective proof (cystoscopy or CT urogram) verifies the integrity of the repair

89
Q

Urinary incontinence: what is the most sensitive test for stress urinary incontinence?

A

Standing stress test

90
Q

Urinary incontinence: What is the basic evaluation for urinary incontinence?

A

Focused history, physical examination, objective demonstration of SUI, assessment of post-void residual volume, and urinalysis with possible urine culture

91
Q

Urinary incontinence: What is the most likely source of bleeding encountered during a retropubic MUS?

A

Paraurethral venous plexus

92
Q

Urinary incontinence: What is the most likely source of bleeding encountered during a obturator MUS?

A

Obturator vein branch

93
Q

Urinary incontinence: Botox is FDA approved for which type of urinary incontinence?

A

Idiopathic overactive bladder

94
Q

Urinary incontinence: What is the point of fixation for the vaginal during a Burch retropubic urethropexy?

A

Cooper’s or iliopectineal ligament

95
Q

Urinary incontinence: What is the most accurate measurement of urethral mobility?

A

Q-tip or cotton swab test

96
Q

Urinary incontinence: What are the first-line therapies for the treatment of OAB?

A

Behavioral therapy, pelvic floor muscle, training, weight loss, and bladder control strategies

97
Q

Urinary incontinence: What are the second-line therapies for the treatment of OAB?

A

Medications, botox injections

98
Q

Urinary incontinence: What are the third-line therapies for the treatment of OAB?

A

Neuromodulation

99
Q

Urinary incontinence: What are the first-line therapies for the treatment of SUI?

A

Pelvic floor muscle training, anti-incontinence pessaries, weight loss, surgery

100
Q

Urinary incontinence: What is the definition of SUI?

A

UI that occurs simultaneous with an increase in intra-abdominal pressures in the absence of detrusor contractions

101
Q

Urinary incontinence: What is the definition of OAB?

A

Bothersome urinary urgency, usually accompanied by frequency and nocturia with or without urge incontinence, in the absence of infections or other pathology 


102
Q

Urethral diverticulum: What is the most common cancer in a urethral diverticulum?

A

Adenocarcinoma

103
Q

Urethral diverticulum: Which is the best imaging technique to identify a urethral diverticulum?

A

T2-weighted MRI 


104
Q

Urinary tract infections: What is the most common causative organism for a UTI?

A

E. Coli

105
Q

Urinary tract infections: What is the second most common causative organism for a UTI?

A

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

106
Q

Urinary tract infections: What is the definition of a recurrent UTI?

A

> 2 UTI during a 6 month period or > 3 UTI during the past 12 moths separated by at least two weeks or involve documentation of successful treatment of the first infection

107
Q

Urinary tract infections: What is a relapsing UTI?

A

A recurrent UTI with the same bacteria within 2 weeks of treatment of the original infection

108
Q

Urinary tract infections: What are the recommended antibiotics for empiric treatment of UTI?

A

Nitrofurantoin (100 mg BID for 5 days), TMP/SMX (160/800 mg BID for 3 days), fosfomycin (3g PO once), beta-lactam agents (3-7 days)

109
Q

Urinary tract infections: What is the definition of asymptomatic bacteriuria?

A

2 consecutive voided urine specimens with isolation of the same bacteria strain in quantitative counts 10^5 cfu/mL or a single catheterized urine specimen with 1 bacterial species isolated in a quantitative count 10^2 cfu/mL and the absence of UTI symptoms

110
Q

Urinary tract infections: What is the definition of a UTI?

A

A urine culture with > 100,000 CFU of < 2 bacteria AND one sign of symptoms of cystitis (urgency, frequency, dysuria, suprapubic tenderness, fever > 38 C) with no other cause

boards one-liners (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions