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OB one-liners Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most common presentation of a uterine rupture?

A

Change in FHR tracing

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2
Q

What is the most common cause of immediate postpartum hemorrhage?

A

Uterine atony

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3
Q

What is the pathognomonic congenital malformation associated with diabetes mellitus?

A

Sacral agenesis

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4
Q

What cervical ripening agent is absolutely contraindicated in a patient attempting a trial of labor after cesarean delivery?

A

Prostaglandin

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5
Q

A placenta accreta is a result of a deficiency of which histologic layer?

A

Nitabuch’s or basalis

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6
Q

What is the sonographic finding that confirms dichorionic/diamniotic pregnancy?

A

Twin peak sign

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7
Q

What is the most common placentation for identical twins?

A

Monochorionic-diamniotic

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8
Q

When shoulder dystocia is encountered, what initial maneuver is likely to be successful?

A

McRoberts and suprapubic pressure

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9
Q

Which forceps would be helpful in a vaginal breech delivery?

A

Pipers forceps

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10
Q

Which fetal presentation would require a vertical incision with cesarean section?

A

Transverse back down

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11
Q

Which congenital infection is pathognomonic for blueberry muffin rash?

A

Rubella

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12
Q

Which tocolytic is contraindicated in Myasthenia Gravis?

A

Magnesium sulfate

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13
Q

Which uterotonic should be avoided in women with hypertension?

A

Methergine

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14
Q

Which face presentation can be delivered vaginally?

A

Mentum anterior

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15
Q

What is the thrombophilia with the highest risk for blood clots?

A

Anti-thrombin III deficiency

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16
Q

What is the most common change in fetal heart rate associated with narcotic use?

A

Decrease in number of fetal heart rate accelerations

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17
Q

At what gestational age does the fetus start to produce thyroid hormone?

A

12 weeks

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18
Q

Which test for fetal lung maturity is not affected by blood or meconium contamination?

A

Phosphatidylglycerol

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19
Q

What is the most common maternal viral infection transmitted transplacentally to the fetus?

A

CMV

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20
Q

Which imaging study is the most useful in evaluation of placenta percreta?

A

MRI

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21
Q

What is the major laboratory finding that differentiates acute fatty liver of pregnancy and HELLP syndrome?

A

Hypoglycemia

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22
Q

What is the most common cause of fetal demise after 28 weeks gestation?

A

Unexplained

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23
Q

Which lab test is the most sensitive indicator of DIC?

A

Fibrinogen

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24
Q

What is the best test to screen for hemoglobinopathies?


A

Hemoglobin electrophoresis

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25
Q

What are the 3 antibodies to be tested for in antiphospholipid antibody syndrome?

A

Lupus anticoagulant, Anti-cardiolipin Ab IgM/IgG, Anti-beta-2-glycoprotein Ab IgM/IgG

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26
Q

Which umbilical vessel most accurately reflects fetal status?

A

Umbilical artery 


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27
Q

What is the classic ultrasound findings with duodenal atresia?

A

Double bubble sign

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28
Q

What is the most common nutritional deficiency associated with anencephaly?

A

Folic acid deficiency

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29
Q

What is the most common maternal cause of polyhydramnios?

A

Diabetes

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30
Q

What is the classic cranial defect in neural tube deficiencies?

A

Arnold Chiara malformation II

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31
Q

What is the best diagnostic test for neural tube defects?

A

Amniocentesis for amniotic fluid AFP and acetylcholinesterase

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32
Q

Which allergy is a contraindication to the influenza vaccine?

A

Egg allergy

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33
Q

Which primary maternal viral infection is associated with an 80% vertical transmission rate in the 3rd trimester?

A

CMV

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34
Q

Perimortem cesarean delivery is usually performed if cardiopulmonary resuscitation is not successful within what time frame?

A

4 minutes

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35
Q

What is the most common fetal cardiac rhythm abnormality?

A

Premature atrial contractions

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36
Q

What diagnosis during pregnancy is associated with an increased risk of cerebral palsy in infants who weigh 2500 g or more at birth?

A

Chorioamnionitis

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37
Q

What is the mechanism of cocaine that accounts for resultant hypertension?

A

Sympathomimetic vasoconstriction

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38
Q

What is the risk of placenta accreta with placenta previa and 4 or more cesarean deliveries?

A

70%

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39
Q

Which medication has been shown to decrease the risk of recurrent spontaneous preterm birth in a women with prior preterm birth?

A

17 alpha hydroxyprogesterone caproate

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40
Q

In women with HIV, which therapy reduces transmission rates intrapartum to <10%?

A

Zidovudine

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41
Q

Which pelvic shape is associated with persistent transverse positions?

A

Platypoid

42
Q

What is the most common organism associated with mastitis?

A

S. Aureus

43
Q

What are the criteria for surgical management of a vulvar hematoma?

A

Greater than 5 cm or expanding

44
Q

First trimester exposure to ACE inhibitors has been associated with what fetal defects?

A

Cardiac malformations


45
Q

Warfarin therapy in the first trimester is associated with what fetal defects?

A

Nasal bone hypolasia and ophthalmologic abnormalities

46
Q

Anti-epileptic medications, especially valproic acid, have been associated with what defects?

A

Neural tube defects

47
Q

The safest route for second-trimester termination is what?

A

D&E

48
Q

What is the treatment of choice for syphilis?

A

Penicillin

49
Q

Which procedure significantly reduces the rate of persistent variable decelerations?

A

Amnioinfusion

50
Q

What is the most common cause of respiratory failure in pregnancy?

A

RDS

51
Q

What is the most common cause of ARDS in pregnancy?

A

Sepsis 


52
Q

Which pelvic shape is associated with increased incidence of occiput posterior presentations?

A

Anthropoid

53
Q

What is the most common fetal nerve injury from shoulder dystocia?

A

C5-6 nerve roots, Erb Palsy

54
Q

What is the most common fetal injury from vacuum assisted deliveries?

A

Scalp laceration

55
Q

What is the most important determinant for successful vacuum assisted delivery?

A

Proper cup placement

56
Q

Which fetal chromosomal abnormality is associated with rocker bottom feet?

A

Trisomy 18

57
Q

Which chromosomal abnormalities are associated with low levels of maternal serum alpha fetoprotein?

A

Trisomy 21, trisomy 18, trisomy 13

58
Q

Tay-Sachs disease is more common in which population?

A

Ashkenazi Jew

59
Q

What is the presence of 2 or more cell lines in one individual derived from the same zygote?

A

Mosaic

60
Q

What is the presence of 2 or more cell lines in the same individual derived from different zygotes?

A

Chimera

61
Q

What results when there is failure of Meiosis II to occur?

A

Triploidy

62
Q

What results when there is nondisjunction in Meiosis II?

A

Trisomy

63
Q

What results when there is nondisjunction in mitosis?

A

Mosaic

64
Q

What is the most common placental tumor?

A

Chorioangioma

65
Q

What is the most common tumor that metastasizes to the placenta?

A

Melanoma

66
Q

Where are oxytocin and ADH produced?

A

Posterior pituitary gland

67
Q

What can be used to reverse the effects of heparin?

A

Protamine sulfate

68
Q

When taking heparin, how long should you wait before spinal anesthesia to decrease risks of bleeding?

A

4 hours 


69
Q

When taking prophylactic LMWH, how long should you wait before spinal anesthesia to decrease the risk of bleeding?

A

12 hours

70
Q

When taking therapeutic LMWH, how long should you wait before spinal anesthesia to decrease the risk of bleeding?

A

24 hours

71
Q

Which syndrome is associated with acute necrosis of the pituitary gland due to postpartum hemorrhage and shock?

A

Sheehan’s syndrome

72
Q

What is the most likely diagnosis when an infant is born with ambiguous genitalia?

A

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH)

73
Q

Which organism can infect pregnant with by contact with infected cat feces?

A

Toxoplasmosis

74
Q

Which organism is associated with fetal cataracts, cardiac defects, and deafness if exposure prenatally? 


A

Rubella

75
Q

Which organism is associated with microcephaly, intra-cerebral calcifications and hepatosplenomegaly if exposure prenatally?

A

CMV

76
Q

Which organism is an important cause of neonatal sepsis and meningitis?

A

Group B streptococcus

77
Q

Which antibiotic is associated with hypoplasia and staining of fetal teeth?

A

Tetracycline


78
Q

Which antibiotic is associated with kernicterus of the newborn?

A

Sulfonamides

79
Q

What is the ultrasound sign associated with Arnold Chiari Malformation?

A

Banana sign

80
Q

What is the classic cranial ultrasound sign associated with spina bifida?

A

Lemon sign

81
Q

Which dermatoses of pregnancy is associated with IUGR and stillbirth?

A

Herpes gestationis

82
Q

During a properly performed mediolateral episiotomy, what muscle is transected?

A

Bulbocavernosus

83
Q

What is the critical titer in isoimmunization monitoring?

A

1:16

84
Q

Which placental condition is most likely to be fatal?

A

Vasa previa

85
Q

What is the most common infectious etiology for fetal anemia?

A

Parvovirus

86
Q

How long does it take oxytocin to reach steady state levels in the plasma?

A

40 minutes

87
Q

What is the most serious fetal complication from vacuum assisted delivery?

A

Subgaleal hematoma

88
Q

What is the most likely cancer to be diagnosed in pregnancy?

A

Breast cancer

89
Q

What is the most common compilation associated with monochorionic/monoamniotic twins?

A

Cord entanglement

90
Q

What is the most lethal effect of oligohydramnios on the developing fetus?

A

Pulmonary hypoplasia

91
Q

What is the best test to be performed postpartum for type 2 diabetes?

A

2 hour glucose tolerance test (75g)

92
Q

What is the best diagnostic test of pulmonary embolism in pregnancy?

A

Spiral CT scan

93
Q

Which muscle is most likely to be injured during childbirth?

A

Pubococcygeus

94
Q

What is the most common anomaly associated with lithium use in pregnancy?

A

Ebstein’s anomaly

95
Q

Which thrombophilia cannot be reliably tested during pregnancy?

A

Protein S

96
Q

What is the radiation exposure level that has been associated with an increase in fetal anomalies?

A

5 rad

97
Q

One dose for 300 mcg anti-D immune globulin can prevent RhD alloimmunization after exposure to how much Rh-D positive blood?

A

30 mL

98
Q

What maternal condition is important to avoid when managing a paraplegic patient in labor?

A

Autonomic hyper-reflexia dystrophy

99
Q

What is the antibiotic of choice in treatment of GBS in a patient who as a rash with penicillin?

A

Cefazolin

100
Q

Which of the following is recommended in women with high risk of pre-eclampsia and should be initiated between 12-18 weeks gestation and continued until delivery?

A

Low dose Aspirin 81 mg/day

boards one-liners (6 decks)

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