Flashcards in Freihaut Deck (13)
2 criteria to classify a transaction as having risk transfer:
1. Reinsurer assumes signicant insurance risk
2. It is reasonably possible that the reinsurer may realize a signicant loss
What must the CEO/ CFO confirm in the Reinsurance Attestation Supplement:
-There are no separate written or oral agreements between the two parties
-There is documentation for every reinsurance contract where risk transfer is not self evident that describes the economic
purpose of the transaction & discloses that documentation proving risk transfer is available for review
-The reporting entity complies with all requirements of SSAP62
-The appropriate controls are implemented to monitor the use of reinsurance
Formula for Expected Reinsurer Deficit (ERD):
ERD = Probability (NPV U/W loss to reinsurer) x Avg Severity (U/W loss)
Describe why profit commissions need to be excluded from the risk transfer analysis.
Risk transfer analysis only focuses on scenarios that would generate a loss to the reinsurer, in which case a profit commission will not be required.
Describe why prot commissions can have an indirect impact on risk transfer:
The reinsurer may charge a higher premium to account for the fact that prot commissions may need to be paid.
Describe why reinsurer expenses need to be excluded from the risk transfer analysis.
They do not constitute a cash flow that takes place between ceding company & reinsurer.
How should premium be treated in the risk transfer analysis when it is dependent on future events:
-Initial deposit premium: intuitive & simple, but does not include future payments, and can therefore be easily manipulated.
-Expected premium: also intuitive. may over detect risk transfer: in the iterations with the highest losses, the premium should be higher as well.
-Actual premium: based on the losses simulated.
2 reasons that the selected interest rate should at least exceed the risk free rate:
1. Very unlikely that a lower rate will be reasonable
2. A lower rate would over detect risk transfer
2 issues with using a rate higher than risk free if the reinsurer has a higher expected investment yield:
1. The reinsurers yield is most likely not known by the ceding company
2. It will generate the situation where risk transfer is more likely to be triggered when dealing with reinsurers with poorer investment yields
Why cant a yield curve be used to discount cash flows in a risk transfer analysis:
Not consistent with the accounting standards, as it would produce different interest rates in each iteration of the simulation when the timing of cash flows differed, which is against the standard that interest rates can not vary by
What factors can be used to derive the projected loss payment patterns:
-Previous experience of the ceding insurer
-Combination of the two
List some factors which the loss distributions can be based on:
-Previous company experience
-All of the above